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  • Using Android AsyncTask to download html file

    - by Lukas Tomsu
    i just started with android and i'm working on a simple app that should download contents of a html file. I'm using AsyncTask as suggested, but i'm encountering one problem. In the following code (i followed a tutorial code), i get tv cannot be resolved for the onPostExecute method. How to access the downloaded file? Thank You: public class FlashResults extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); TextView tv = new TextView(this); setContentView(tv); readWebpage(tv); } protected class DownloadPage extends AsyncTask<String, Void, String> { protected String doInBackground(String... urls) { String responseStr = null; try { for (String url : urls) { DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet get = new HttpGet(url); HttpResponse httpResponse = httpClient.execute(get); HttpEntity httpEntity = httpResponse.getEntity(); responseStr = EntityUtils.toString(httpEntity); } } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { } catch (IOException e) { } return responseStr; } protected void onPostExecute(String result) { tv.setText(result); } } public void readWebpage(View v) { DownloadPage task = new DownloadPage(); task.execute(new String[] { "http://seznam.cz" }); } }

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  • Policy file error while loading images form facebook

    - by Fahim Akhter
    Hi, I making a game leaderboard on facebook. I'm not using connect but working inside the canvas. When I try to load the images from facebook it gives me the following error. SecurityError: Error #2122: Security sandbox violation: Loader.content: http://test cannot access http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg A policy file is required, but the checkPolicyFile flag was not set when this media was loaded. Here is my loader code public var preLoader:Loader; preLoader=new Loader(); **update** Security.loadPolicyFile('http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml'); Security.allowDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); Security.allowInsecureDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); **update-end** public function imageContainer(Imagewidth:Number,Imageheight:Number,url:String,path:String) { preLoader=new Loader(); Security.loadPolicyFile("http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml"); var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(); context.checkPolicyFile = true; context.applicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; preLoader.load(new URLRequest(path),context); Any Ideas? I am importing the right class though. UPDATE: I am loading the images from a different domain say , calling func http://fahim.com images are from http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg something ( I have made sure the pictures are static do not require a facebook login or anything , they are just user public profile pictures)

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  • Convert Lambda from C# to VB.NET

    - by Iosu
    How would I translate this C# lambda expression into VB.NET ? query.ExecuteAsync(op => op.Results.ForEach(Employees.Add)); using System; using System.Net; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Ink; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; using System.Windows.Shapes; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; using IdeaBlade.Core; using IdeaBlade.EntityModel; namespace SimpleSteps { public class MainPageViewModel { public MainPageViewModel() { Employees = new ObservableCollection(); var mgr = new NorthwindIBEntities(); var query = mgr.Employees; query.ExecuteAsync(op = op.Results.ForEach(Employees.Add)); } public ObservableCollection<Employee> Employees { get; private set; } } }

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  • Asynchronous callback - gwt

    - by sprasad12
    Hi, I am using gwt and postgres for my project. On the front end i have few widgets whose data i am trying to save on to tables at the back-end when i click on "save project" button(this also takes the name for the created project). In the asynchronous callback part i am setting more than one table. But it is not sending the data properly. I am getting the following error: org.postgresql.util.PSQLException: ERROR: insert or update on table "entitytype" violates foreign key constraint "entitytype_pname_fkey" Detail: Key (pname)=(Project Name) is not present in table "project". But when i do the select statement on project table i can see that the project name is present. Here is how the callback part looks like: oksave.addClickHandler(new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick(ClickEvent event) { if(erasync == null) erasync = GWT.create(EntityRelationService.class); AsyncCallback<Void> callback = new AsyncCallback<Void>(){ @Override public void onFailure(Throwable caught) { } @Override public void onSuccess(Void result){ } }; erasync.setProjects(projectname, callback); for(int i = 0; i < boundaryPanel.getWidgetCount(); i++){ top = new Integer(boundaryPanel.getWidget(i).getAbsoluteTop()).toString(); left = new Integer(boundaryPanel.getWidget(i).getAbsoluteLeft()).toString(); if(widgetTitle.startsWith("ATTR")){ type = "regular"; erasync.setEntityAttribute(name1, name, type, top, left, projectname, callback); } else{ erasync.setEntityType(name, top, left, projectname, callback); } } } Question: Is it wrong to set more than one in the asynchronous callback where all the other tables are dependent on a particular table? when i say setProjects in the above code isn't it first completed and then moved on to the next one? Please any input will be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

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  • How do I avoid repetition in Java ResourceBundle strings?

    - by Trejkaz
    We had a lot of strings which contained the same sub-string, from sentences about checking the log or how to contact support, to branding-like strings containing the company or product name. The repetition was causing a few issues for ourselves (primarily typos or copy/paste errors) but it also causes issues in that it increases the amount of text our translator has to translate. The solution I came up with went something like this: public class ExpandingResourceBundleControl extends ResourceBundle.Control { public static final ResourceBundle.Control EXPANDING = new ExpandingResourceBundleControl(); private ExpandingResourceBundleControl() { } @Override public ResourceBundle newBundle(String baseName, Locale locale, String format, ClassLoader loader, boolean reload) throws IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, IOException { ResourceBundle inner = super.newBundle(baseName, locale, format, loader, reload); return inner == null ? null : new ExpandingResourceBundle(inner, loader); } } ExpandingResourceBundle delegates to the real resource bundle but performs conversion of {{this.kind.of.thing}} to look up the key in the resources. Every time you want to get one of these, you have to go: ResourceBundle.getBundle("com/acme/app/Bundle", EXPANDING); And this works fine -- for a while. What eventually happens is that some new code (in our case autogenerated code which was spat out of Matisse) looks up the same resource bundle without specifying the custom control. This appears to be non-reproducible if you write a simple unit test which calls it with and then without, but it occurs when the application is run for real. Somehow the cache inside ResourceBundle ejects the good value and replaces it with the broken one. I am yet to figure out why and Sun's jar files were compiled without debug info so debugging it is a chore. My questions: Is there some way of globally setting the default ResourceBundle.Control that I might not be aware of? That would solve everything rather elegantly. Is there some other way of handling this kind of thing elegantly, perhaps without tampering with the ResourceBundle classes at all?

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  • adding multiple <asp:Hyperlink>s into a repeater

    - by Colin Pickard
    I have a repeater control, and I want to put an unknown number of <asp:Hyperlink>s into the template, for example if you start with this: <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="PetsRepeater"> <ItemTemplate> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Owner")%> <%#this.ListPets(Container.DataItem)%> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> and in code behind: public partial class test1 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { PetOwner p = new PetOwner() { Owner = "Jimmy", PetNames = new List<String>() { "Nemo", "Dory" } }; List<PetOwner> PetOwners = new List<PetOwner>() { p }; PetsRepeater.DataSource = PetOwners; PetsRepeater.DataBind(); } } protected String ListPets(Object PetOwner) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (String Name in ((PetOwner)PetOwner).PetNames) { if (sb.Length > 0) sb.Append(", "); sb.Append(Name); } return sb.ToString(); } } class PetOwner { public String Owner; public List<String> PetNames; } Now suppose instead of having the string "Nemo, Dory" in my repeater, I want something like this: <asp:HyperLink runat=server Text="Nemo" NavigateUrl="Pet.aspx?Name=Nemo" />, <asp:HyperLink runat=server Text="Dory" NavigateUrl="Pet.aspx?Name=Dory" /> How can I do that? I tried putting a foreach inline in the aspx page, but I get the error Invalid expression term 'foreach'.

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  • Adivce on Method overloads.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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  • Issue with getting 2 chars from string using indexer

    - by Learner
    I am facing an issue in reading char values. See my program below. I want to evaluate an infix expression. As you can see I want to read '10' , '*', '20' and then use them...but if I use string indexer s[0] will be '1' and not '10' and hence I am not able to get the expected result. Can you guys suggest me something? Code is in c# class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string infix = "10*2+20-20+3"; float result = EvaluateInfix(infix); Console.WriteLine(result); Console.ReadKey(); } public static float EvaluateInfix(string s) { Stack<float> operand = new Stack<float>(); Stack<char> operator1 = new Stack<char>(); int len = s.Length; for (int i = 0; i < len; i++) { if (isOperator(s[i])) // I am having an issue here as s[i] gives each character and I want the number 10 operator1.Push(s[i]); else { operand.Push(s[i]); if (operand.Count == 2) Compute(operand, operator1); } } return operand.Pop(); } public static void Compute(Stack<float> operand, Stack<char> operator1) { float operand1 = operand.Pop(); float operand2 = operand.Pop(); char op = operator1.Pop(); if (op == '+') operand.Push(operand1 + operand2); else if(op=='-') operand.Push(operand1 - operand2); else if(op=='*') operand.Push(operand1 * operand2); else if(op=='/') operand.Push(operand1 / operand2); } public static bool isOperator(char c) { bool result = false; if (c == '+' || c == '-' || c == '*' || c == '/') result = true; return result; } } }

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  • Does JAXWS client make difference between an empty collection and a null collection value as returne

    - by snowflake
    Since JAX-WS rely on JAXB, and since I observed the code that unpack the XML bean in JAX-B Reference Implementation, I guess the difference is not made and that a JAXWS client always return an empty collection, even the webservice result was a null element: public T startPacking(BeanT bean, Accessor<BeanT, T> acc) throws AccessorException { T collection = acc.get(bean); if(collection==null) { collection = ClassFactory.create(implClass); if(!acc.isAdapted()) acc.set(bean,collection); } collection.clear(); return collection; } I agree that for best interoperability service contracts should be non ambiguous and avoid such differences, but it seems that the JAX-WS service I'm invoking (hosted on a Jboss server with Jbossws implementation) is returning as expected either null either empty collection (tested with SoapUI). I used for my test code generated by wsimport. Return element is defined as: @XmlElement(name = "return", nillable = true) protected List<String> _return; I even tested to change the Response class getReturn method from : public List<String> getReturn() { if (_return == null) { _return = new ArrayList<String>(); } return this._return; } to public List<String> getReturn() { return this._return; } but without success. Any helpful information/comment regarding this problem is welcome !

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  • Unit testing with Mocks when SUT is leveraging Task Parallel Libaray

    - by StevenH
    I am trying to unit test / verify that a method is being called on a dependency, by the system under test. The depenedency is IFoo. The dependent class is IBar. IBar is implemented as Bar. Bar will call Start() on IFoo in a new (System.Threading.Tasks.)Task, when Start() is called on Bar instance. Unit Test (Moq): [Test] public void StartBar_ShouldCallStartOnAllFoo_WhenFoosExist() { //ARRANGE //Create a foo, and setup expectation var mockFoo0 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo0.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); var mockFoo1 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo1.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); //Add mockobjects to a collection var foos = new List<IFoo> { mockFoo0.Object, mockFoo1.Object }; IBar sutBar = new Bar(foos); //ACT sutBar.Start(); //Should call mockFoo.Start() //ASSERT mockFoo0.VerifyAll(); mockFoo1.VerifyAll(); } Implementation of IBar as Bar: class Bar : IBar { private IEnumerable<IFoo> Foos { get; set; } public Bar(IEnumerable<IFoo> foos) { Foos = foos; } public void Start() { foreach(var foo in Foos) { Task.Factory.StartNew( () => { foo.Start(); }); } } } I appears that the issue is obviously due to the fact that the call to "foo.Start()" is taking place on another thread (/task), and the mock (Moq framework) can't detect it. But I could be wrong. Thanks

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Show WPF tooltip on disabled item only

    - by DT
    Just wondering if it is possible to show a WPF on a disabled item ONLY (and not when the item is enabled). I would like to give the user a tooltip explaining why an item is currently disabled. I have an IValueConverter to invert the boolean IsEnabled property binding. But it doesn't seem to work in this situation. The tooltip is show both when the item is enabled and disabled. So is is possible to bind a tooltip.IsEnabled property exclusively to an item's own !IsEnabled? Pretty straightforward question I guess, but code example here anyway: public class BoolToOppositeBoolConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } #endregion } And the binding: <TabItem Header="Tab 2" Name="tabItem2" ToolTip="Not enabled in this situation." ToolTipService.ShowOnDisabled="True" ToolTipService.IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsEnabled, ElementName=tabItem2, Converter={StaticResource oppositeConverter}}"> <Label Content="Item content goes here" /> </TabItem> Thanks folks.

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  • Using .NET XmlSerializer with get properties and setter functions

    - by brone
    I'm trying to use XmlSerializer from C# to save out a class that has some values that are read by properties (the code being just a simple retrieval of field value) but set by setter functions (since there is a delegate called if the value changes). What I'm currently doing is this sort of thing. The intended use is to use the InT property to read the value, and use SetInT to set it. Setting it has side-effects, so a method is more appropriate than a property here. XmlSerializationOnly_InT exists solely for the benefit of the XmlSerializer (hence the name), and shouldn't be used by normal code. class X { public double InT { get { return _inT; } } public void SetInT(double newInT) { if (newInT != _inT) { _inT = newInT; Changed();//includes delegate call; potentially expensive } } private double _inT; // not called by normal code, as the property set is not just a simple // field set or two. [XmlElement(ElementName = "InT")] public double XmlSerializationOnly_InT { get { return InT; } set { SetInT(value); } } } This works, it's easy enough to do, and the XML file looks like you'd expect. It's manual labour though, and a bit ugly, so I'm only somewhat satisfied. What I'd really like is to be able to tell the XML serialization to read the value using the property, and set it using the setter function. Then I wouldn't need XmlSerializationOnly_InT at all. I seem to be following standard practise by distinguishing between property sets and setter functions in this way, so I'm sure I'm not the only person to have encountered this (though google suggests I might be). What have others done in this situation? Is there some easy way to persuade the XmlSerializer to handle this sort of thing better? If not, is there perhaps some other easy way to do it?

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  • Using XmlSerializer deserialize complex type elements are null

    - by Jean Bastos
    I have the following schema: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsd:schema xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:tipos="http://www.ginfes.com.br/tipos_v03.xsd" targetNamespace="http://www.ginfes.com.br/servico_consultar_situacao_lote_rps_resposta_v03.xsd" xmlns="http://www.ginfes.com.br/servico_consultar_situacao_lote_rps_resposta_v03.xsd" attributeFormDefault="unqualified" elementFormDefault="qualified"> <xsd:import schemaLocation="tipos_v03.xsd" namespace="http://www.ginfes.com.br/tipos_v03.xsd" /> <xsd:element name="ConsultarSituacaoLoteRpsResposta"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:choice> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element name="NumeroLote" type="tipos:tsNumeroLote" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/> <xsd:element name="Situacao" type="tipos:tsSituacaoLoteRps" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/> </xsd:sequence> <xsd:element ref="tipos:ListaMensagemRetorno" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/> </xsd:choice> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> </xsd:schema> and the following class: [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("xsd", "2.0.50727.3038")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(AnonymousType = true, Namespace = "http://www.ginfes.com.br/servico_consultar_situacao_lote_rps_envio_v03.xsd")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRootAttribute(Namespace = "http://www.ginfes.com.br/servico_consultar_situacao_lote_rps_envio_v03.xsd", IsNullable = false)] public partial class ConsultarSituacaoLoteRpsEnvio { [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Order = 0)] public tcIdentificacaoPrestador Prestador { get; set; } [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Order = 1)] public string Protocolo { get; set; } } Use the following code to deserialize the object: XmlSerializer respSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(ConsultarSituacaoLoteRpsResposta)); StringReader reader = new StringReader(resp); ConsultarSituacaoLoteRpsResposta respModel = (ConsultarSituacaoLoteRpsResposta)respSerializer.Deserialize(reader); does not occur any error but the properties of objects are null, anyone know what is happening?

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  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

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  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

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  • How can I make this work with deep properties

    - by Martin Robins
    Given the following code... class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Foo foo = new Foo { Bar = new Bar { Name = "Martin" }, Name = "Martin" }; DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Name); DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Bar.Name); } static void DoLambdaStuff<TObject, TValue>(TObject obj, Expression<Func<TObject, TValue>> expression) { // Set up and test "getter"... Func<TObject, TValue> getValue = expression.Compile(); TValue stuff = getValue(obj); // Set up and test "setter"... ParameterExpression objectParameterExpression = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TObject)), valueParameterExpression = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TValue)); Expression<Action<TObject, TValue>> setValueExpression = Expression.Lambda<Action<TObject, TValue>>( Expression.Block( Expression.Assign(Expression.Property(objectParameterExpression, ((MemberExpression)expression.Body).Member.Name), valueParameterExpression) ), objectParameterExpression, valueParameterExpression ); Action<TObject, TValue> setValue = setValueExpression.Compile(); setValue(obj, stuff); } } class Foo { public Bar Bar { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class Bar { public string Name { get; set; } } The call to DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Name) works ok because I am accessing a shallow property, however the call to DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Bar.Name) fails - although the creation of the getValue function works fine, the creation of the setValueExpression fails because I am attempting to access a deep property of the object. Can anybody please help me to modify this so that I can create the setValueExpression for deep properties as well as shallow? Thanks.

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  • How to implement IEquatable<T> when mutable fields are part of the equality - Problem with GetHashCo

    - by Shimmy
    Hello! I am using Entity Framework in my application. I implemented with the partial class of an entity the IEquatable<T> interface: Partial Class Address : Implements IEquatable(Of Address) 'Other part generated Public Overloads Function Equals(ByVal other As Address) As Boolean _ Implements System.IEquatable(Of Address).Equals If ReferenceEquals(Me, other) Then Return True Return AddressId = other.AddressId End Function Public Overrides Function Equals(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean If obj Is Nothing Then Return MyBase.Equals(obj) If TypeOf obj Is Address Then Return Equals(DirectCast(obj, Address)) Else Return False End Function Public Overrides Function GetHashCode() As Integer Return AddressId.GetHashCode End Function End Class Now in my code I use it this way: Sub Main() Using e As New CompleteKitchenEntities Dim job = e.Job.FirstOrDefault Dim address As New Address() job.Addresses.Add(address) Dim contains1 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'True e.SaveChanges() Dim contains2 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'False 'The problem is that I can't remove it: Dim removed = job.Addresses.Remoeve(address) 'False End Using End Sub Note (I checked in the debugger visualizer) that the EntityCollection class stores its entities in HashSet so it has to do with the GetHashCode function, I want it to depend on the ID so entities are compared by their IDs. The problem is that when I hit save, the ID changes from 0 to its db value. So the question is how can I have an equatable object, being properly hashed. Please help me find what's wrong in the GetHashCode function (by ID) and what can I change to make it work. Thanks a lot.

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  • Extension methods in class library project

    - by Mostafa
    I've implemented some extension methods and put those in separate Class Library project. Imagine I have a simple extension method like this in class library called MD.Utility: namespace MD.Utility { public static class ExtenMethods { public static bool IsValidEmailAddress(this string s) { Regex regex = new Regex(@"^[\w-\.]+@([\w-]+\.)+[\w-]{2,4}$"); return regex.IsMatch(s); } } } But nowhere in WebApp like App_code folder or WebFroms code-behind page I can't use this Extension method. If I do like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using MD.Utility; public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string email = "[email protected]"; if (email.IsValidEmailAddress()) { //To do } } } The compiler doesn't recognize IsValidEmailAddress() and even no intellisense support. While if I put my extension method in App_Code folder it's ok for using in another cs file in App_code Folder or Web Form code-behind pages.

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  • Java inheritance question

    - by Milos
    I have an abstract class Airplane, and two classes PassengerAirplane and CargoAirplane, which extend class Airplane. I also have an interface Measurable, and two classes that implement it - People and Containers. So, Airplane can do many things on its own, and there is a method which allows measurable things to be added to the airplane (called addAMeasurableThing). The only difference between PassengerAirplane/CargoAirplane and just an Airplane is that addAMeasurableThing should only accept People / Containers, and not any kind Measurable things. How do I implement this? I tried doing: Airplane class: public abstract Airplane addAMeasurableThing (Measurable m, int position); PassengerAirplane class: public Airplane addAMeasurableThing (Measurable m, int position) { if (m instanceof People)... CargoAirplane class: public Airplane addAMeasurableThing (Measurable m, int position) { if (m instanceof Containers)... But when I was debugging it, I've noticed that addAMeasurableThing in the CargoAirplane class never gets called, because both methods have the same signature. So how can the appropriate PassengerAirplane/CargoAirplane's addAMeasurableThing be called, depending on the type of Measurable thing that is being passed on? Thanks!

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  • How to unit test this simple ASP.NET MVC controller

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Lets say I have a simple controller for ASP.NET MVC I want to test. I want to test that a controller action (Foo, in this case) simply returns a link to another action (Bar, in this case). How would you test this? (either the first or second link) My implementation has the same link twice. One passes the url throw ViewData[]. This seems more testable to me, as I can check the ViewData collection returned from Foo(). Even this way though, I don't know how to validate the url itself without making dependencies on routing. The controller: public class TestController : Controller { public ActionResult Foo() { ViewData["Link2"] = Url.Action("Bar"); return View("Foo"); } public ActionResult Bar() { return View("Bar"); } } the "Foo" view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master"%> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <%= Html.ActionLink("link 1", "Bar") %> <a href="<%= ViewData["Link2"]%>">link 2</a> </asp:Content>

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  • Handling dependencies with IoC that change within a single function call

    - by Jess
    We are trying to figure out how to setup Dependency Injection for situations where service classes can have different dependencies based on how they are used. In our specific case, we have a web app where 95% of the time the connection string is the same for the entire Request (this is a web application), but sometimes it can change. For example, we might have 2 classes with the following dependencies (simplified version - service actually has 4 dependencies): public LoginService (IUserRepository userRep) { } public UserRepository (IContext dbContext) { } In our IoC container, most of our dependencies are auto-wired except the Context for which I have something like this (not actual code, it's from memory ... this is StructureMap): x.ForRequestedType().Use() .WithCtorArg("connectionString").EqualTo(Session["ConnString"]); For 95% of our web application, this works perfectly. However, we have some admin-type functions that must operate across thousands of databases (one per client). Basically, we'd want to do this: public CreateUserList(IList<string> connStrings) { foreach (connString in connStrings) { //first create dependency graph using new connection string ???? //then call service method on new database _loginService.GetReportDataForAllUsers(); } } My question is: How do we create that new dependency graph for each time through the loop, while maintaining something that can easily be tested?

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  • C# naming convention for enum and matching property

    - by Serge - appTranslator
    Hi All, I often find myself implementing a class maintaining some kind of own status property as an enum: I have a Status enum and ONE Status property of Status type. How should I solve this name conflict? public class Car { public enum Status { Off, Starting, Moving }; Status status = Status.Off; public Status Status // <===== Won't compile ===== { get { return status; } set { status = value; DoSomething(); } } } If the Status enum were common to different types, I'd put it outside the class and the problem would be solved. But Status applies to Car only hence it doesn't make sense to declare the enum outside the class. What naming convention do you use in this case? NB: This question was partially debated in comments of an answer of this question. Since it wasn't the main question, it didn't get much visibility. EDIT: Filip Ekberg suggests an IMO excellent workaround for the specific case of 'Status'. Yet I'd be interesting to read about solutions where the name of the enum/property is different, as in Michael Prewecki's answer. EDIT2 (May 2010): My favorite solution is to pluralize the enum type name, as suggested by Chris S. According to MS guidelines, this should be used for flag enums only. But I've come to like it more and more. I now use it for regular enums as well.

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  • Adding time zone hours difference to time

    - by Hwang
    I know there's a much better and correct way to do it, but i need a temporarily solutions. I need to add in extra hours to the time, and the day will change automatically too. How should I change the code below? package { public class getTime { private var today:Date=new Date(); private var hour:uint=today.getHours(); private var minute:uint=today.getMinutes(); private var month:uint=today.getMonth(); private var monthArray:Array=new Array('January','February','March','April','May','June','July','August','September','October','November','December'); private var time:String = getUSClockTime(today.getHours(), today.getMinutes()); public var dateNtime:String=(time+", " +today.getDate()+" "+monthArray[month]+" "+today.getFullYear());; public function getTime() { } private function getUSClockTime(hrs:uint, mins:uint):String { var modifier:String="PM"; var minLabel:String=doubleDigitFormat(mins); if (hrs>12) { hrs=hrs-12; } else if (hrs == 0) { modifier="AM"; hrs=12; } else if (hrs < 12) { modifier="AM"; } return (doubleDigitFormat(hrs) + ":" + minLabel + " " + modifier); } private function doubleDigitFormat(num):String { if (num<10) { return ("0" + num); } return num; } } }

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  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

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