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  • How to check results of LINQ to SQL query?

    - by rem
    In a WPF app I'd like to check if a return of a LINQ to SQL query contains some records, but my approach doesn't work: TdbDataContext context = new TdbDataContext(); var sh = from p in context.Items where p.Selected == true select p; if (sh == null) { MessageBox.Show("There are no Selected Items"); } Where am I wrong?

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  • In SQL Server 2005, how can I use database_b, do something, then use the old db database_a in TSQL?

    - by Yousui
    Hi guys, In SQL Server 2005, how can I use database_b, do something, then use the old db database_a in TSQL? The following is my code but there is some problem with it. Who can help me to identity the problem? Great thanks. DECLARE @old_database_name VARCHAR(200) SET @old_database_name = db_name() use mydatabase create table t1(id int identity(1,1)) use @old_database_name

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  • More efficient SQL than using "A UNION (B in A)"?

    - by machinatus
    Edit 1 (clarification): Thank you for the answers so far! The response is gratifying. I want to clarify the question a little because based on the answers I think I did not describe one aspect of the problem correctly (and I'm sure that's my fault as I was having a difficult time defining it even for myself). Here's the rub: The result set should contain ONLY the records with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09', AND the one record where the tstamp IS NULL for each order_num in the first set (there will always be one with null tstamp for each order_num). The answers given so far appear to include all records for a certain order_num if there are any with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. For example, if there were another record with order_num = 2 and tstamp = 2010-01-12 00:00:00 it should not be included in the result. Original question: Consider an orders table containing id (unique), order_num, tstamp (a timestamp), and item_id (the single item included in an order). tstamp is null, unless the order has been modified, in which case there is another record with identical order_num and tstamp then contains the timestamp of when the change occurred. Example... id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 0 1 100 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 3 3 113 4 4 124 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 8 6 100 9 6 2010-01-13 08:33:55 105 What is the most efficient SQL statement to retrieve all of the orders (based on order_num) which have been modified one or more times during a certain date range? In other words, for each order we need all of the records with the same order_num (including the one with NULL tstamp), for each order_num WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL AND tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. It's the "WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL" that I'm having difficulty with. The result set should look like this: id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 The SQL that I came up with is this, which is essentially "A UNION (B in A)", but it executes slowly and I hope there is a more efficient solution: SELECT history_orders.order_id, history_orders.tstamp, history_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09') AS history_orders UNION SELECT current_orders.order_id, current_orders.tstamp, current_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp IS NULL) AS current_orders WHERE current_orders.order_id IN (SELECT orders.order_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09');

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  • Pass variable to regular expression pattern string in jquery

    - by phil
    Is that possible to pass variable into regular expression pattern string in jquery ( or javascript)? For example, I want to validate a zip code input field every time while user type in a character by passing variable i to the regular expression pattern. How to do it right? $('#zip').keyup( function(){ var i=$('#zip').val().length for ( i; i<=5; i++){ var pattern=/^[0-9]{i}$/; if ( !pattern.test( $('#zip').val() ) ) {$('#zip_error').css('display','inline');} else {$('#zip_error').css('display','none');} } })

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  • jquery fullcalendar - viewDisplay to pass selected month to events (reload events per month)

    - by newbieToFullCalendar
    Hi, How can I pass the selected month from viewDisplay to the events function (which is a php call to the DB to load the events)? Only events for one month should get loaded at a time, but I'm afraid of what might happen if the user decides to click 'next' multiple times really quickly... My other option is to load 6 months forward and 6 months backwards of events so when the user moves between months, it would be seamless, but there are at least three events per day everyday so I'm guessing that would take some time to load. $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ theme: true, slotMinutes: 60, defaultView: 'month', lazyFetching: false, viewDisplay: function(view) { document.forms[0].elements['currentMonth'].value = view.title; alert('The new title of the view is ' + document.forms[0].elements['currentMonth'].value); }, events: <?php include('load_json_events.php'); ?> });

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  • user input of one php script pass to another php without modification in first php script

    - by ish12
    hi all.. Consider two php scripts(o.php & t.php) o.php contains both html and php. html here gets user input for eg:user name and password this information is passed to php using php-self. I want the user input of o.php passed to t.php without any modification in o.php. I ve used include and require in the t.php but the problem is it displays the output of o.php but i need only the user input values from o.php without displaying the output of o.php. Using functions or session in o.php we can pass user input but am in the situation tat i should not add or modify o.php. thanks in advance!!

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  • VSDBCMD returns "An unexpected failure occurred: Object reference not set to an instance of an objec

    - by Matt Wrock
    I have been succesfully using the command line database deployment tool VSDBCMD on my dev and test environments but the tool fails in our integration environmrnt. I am using the VS 2010 version of the tool. The servers have all of the prerequisites including: .net 4.0 sql server compact edition 3.5 sp1 (as well as the full edition of 2008) sql server 2008 server management objects sql server 2008 native client sql server system clr types msxml 6 all of the dependent DLLs included in: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5\desktop*.dll C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5*.dll C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VSTSDB\Deploy**. The only reference to this error that I have been able to find has to do with a bug in the VS 2008 edition when the HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0 key is missing. In my case the 10.0 version of the key exists. Has anyone else encountered this?

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  • Pass Dictionary of routeValues to ActionLink

    - by Graham
    All, Getting to grips with ASP.NET MVC. So far, so good, but this one is a little nuts. I have a view model that contains a dictionary of attributes for a hyperlink, used like this: menu = model variable Html.ActionLink(Html.Encode(menu.Name), Html.Encode(menu.Action), Html.Encode(menu.Controller), menu.Attributes, null) The problem is the position of "menu.Attributes" expects an object in the form: new { Name = "Fred", Age=24 } From what I can tell, this anonymous object is actually converted to a dictionary via reflection anyway BUT you can't pass a dictionary to it in the first place!!! The Html generated for the link simply shows the dictionary type. How on earth do I get round this? The whole point is that its general and the controller can have set the menu.Attributes previously....

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  • ASP.NET MVC Pass mutiple params from getJson to controller

    - by andyJ
    Hi, I am making a call to a controller action in javascript using the getJson method. I need to pass two parameters to my action method on the controller, but I am struggling to do so. I do not fully understand the routing tables and not sure if this is what I need to use to get this working. Please see example below of what I am trying to do. var action = "<%=Url.Content('~/Postcode/GetAddressResults/')%>" + $get("Premise").value + "/" + $get("SearchPostcode").value $.getJSON(action, null, function(data) { $("#AddressDropDown").fillSelect(data); }); This is my route which I don't understand how to make use of... routes.MapRoute( "postcode", "Postcode/GetAddressResults/{premise}/{postcode}", new { controller = "Motor", action = "GetAddressResults", premise = "", postcode = "" });

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  • R: Pass by reference

    - by Pierre
    Can you pass by reference with "R" ? for example, in the following code: setClass("MyClass", representation( name="character" )) instance1 <-new("MyClass",name="Hello1") instance2 <-new("MyClass",name="Hello2") array = c(instance1,instance2) instance1 array instance1@name="World!" instance1 array the output is > instance1 An object of class “MyClass” Slot "name": [1] "World!" > array [[1]] An object of class “MyClass” Slot "name": [1] "Hello1" [[2]] An object of class “MyClass” Slot "name": [1] "Hello2" but I wish it was > instance1 An object of class “MyClass” Slot "name": [1] "World!" > array [[1]] An object of class “MyClass” Slot "name": [1] "World!" [[2]] An object of class “MyClass” Slot "name": [1] "Hello2" is it possible ? Thanks Pierre

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  • CComPtr pass by reference

    - by Mahesh
    I have a situation where I need to pass a CComPtr<IXmlReader> to a function by reference. Does the called parameter takes the ownership from the callee parameter (or) the reference count is increased? void foo( CComPtr<IXmlReader> & pReader ) { // There is no reassignment of the CComPtr. // Just call the IXmlReader methods. } CComPtr<IXmlReader> pReader; foo( pReader ); // Is pReader still valid after the function return ? Thanks.

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  • Pass data to Master Page with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Brian David Berman
    I have a hybrid ASP.NET WebForms/MVC project. In my Master Page, I have a "menu" User Control and a "footer" User Control. Anyways. I need to pass some data (2 strings) to my "menu" User Control on my Master Page (to select the current tab in my menu navigation, etc.) My views are strongly-typed to my data model. How can I push data from my controller to my menu or at least allow my master page to access some data pre-defined in my controller? Note: I understand this violates pure ASP.NET MVC, but like I said, it is a hybrid project. The main purpose of my introduction to ASP.NET MVC into my project was to have more control over my UI for certain situations only.

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  • How do I pass credentials to a machine so I can use Microsoft.Win32.RegistryKey.OpenRemoteBaseKey()

    - by JCCyC
    This .NET API works OK if I'm trying to open the Registry in a machine that's in the same domain as I am (and my logged-on user has admin rights on the target machine). It gets tricky if it's an out-of-domain machine with a different, local administrative user (of whom I do have the password). I tried to use WNetUseConnection() (which has served me well in the past in situations where what I wanted was to read a remote disk file) prior to calling OpenRemoteBaseKey(), but no dice -- I get an access denied exception. Clearly, I must pass credentials some other way, but how?

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  • Pass by reference in Boost::Python

    - by Fabzter
    Hi everybody. Consider something like: struct Parameter { int a; Parameter(){a = 0} void setA(int newA){a = newA;} }; struct MyClass { void changeParameter(Parameter &p){ p.setA(-1);} }; Well, let's fast forward, and imagine I already wrapped those classes, exposing everything to python, and imagine also I instantiate an object of Parameter in the C++ code, which I pass to the python script, and that python script uses a MyClass object to modify the instance of Parameter I created at the beginning in the C++ code. After that code executes, in C++ Parameter instance is unchanged!!! This means it was passed by value (or something alike :S), not by reference. But I thought I declared it to be passed by reference... I can't seem to find Boost::Python documentation about passing by reference (although there seems to be enough doc about returning by reference...). Can anyone give some hint or pointer please?

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