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• Qt moc failure without an error message

  - by Robert Parker

  So I'm pretty new to Qt, and I've just inherited a project from someone else who is also new to Qt. He isn't around this week btw. We are using Visual Studio 2008, and have the latest version of Qt installed(4.6.2). The project builds on my coworker's machine fine, and I can get the project from svn and build it directly. But under any other circumstances it refuses to build on my machine, and it doesn't give me much of an explanation why. Even if I just do a 'build clean' and then a 'build' it doesn't work. Any slight modification will make it fail. When I try to build the entire project I get the error message: 1Moc'ing MatrixTypeInterface.h... 1moc: Cannot create .\GeneratedFiles\Debug\moc_MatrixTypeInterface.cpp;.\GeneratedFiles\Debug\moc_matrixtypeinterface.cpp 1Project : error PRJ0019: A tool returned an error code from "Moc'ing MatrixTypeInterface.h..." The moc tool doesn't give any sort of error message as to why it isn't working, and I wasted most of yesterday trying to figure out why. I got the command that VS was using to call moc, and I entered in the command line myself. It didn't write anything to the screen. Any ideas?

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• How to prevent parallel builds per build configuration across multiple Build Agents

  - by vanslly

  I have many build configurations in TeamCity, each servicing a large project. In the past if a build is kicked off the Build Agent could be busy for up to 20min! In order to improve throughput I installed a second Build Agent on the same machine such that if a build run is kicked off by say Build Agent 1 and it is busy for 20min and someone from another project makes a change then Build Agent 2 can do the build for the other project without needing to wait on the current build run to finish. All was well until two successive check-ins resulted in both Build Agents running a build for a single build configuration in parallel. Since some resources are shared, IIS directories & databases, I don't want a single build configuration to run on both Build Agents in parallel. How can I ensure a build isn't triggered if a build is currently running for that build configuration on a different build agent? One way seems to involve environmental variables and ensuring a 50/50 split by Build Agent in terms of build configuration compatibility, but that seems a little clunky.

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• Architecture Guidance Needed?

  - by vijay

  We are about to automate number of process for our reporting team. (The reports are like daily reports, weekly reports, monthly reports, etc..) Mostly the process is like pulling some data from the oracle and then fill them in particular excel template files. Each reports and so their templates are different from each other. Except the excel file manipulation, there are hardly any business logic behind these. Client wanted an integrated tool and all the automated processes are placed as menus/submenus. Right now roughly there are around 30 process waiting to be automated. And we are expecting more new reports in the next quarter. I am nowhere to near having any practical experience when comes to architecuring. Already i have been maintaining two or three systems(they are more than 4yrs old.) for this prestegious client.The possiblity of the above mentioned tool will be manintained for another 3 yrs is very likely. From my past experience i've been through the pain of implmenting change requests to the rigd & undocumented code base resulting in the break down of the system and then eventually myself. So My main and top most concern is the maintainablity. When i was searching for these i came across this link, Smart Clients Using CAB and SCSF is the above link appropriate for my requirement? Also Should i place each automated processes in separate forms under a single project, or place them in separate projects under a single solution.. Please correct me if have missed any other important information. Thx.

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• VS2008 - Find and Replace - Searches too many files.

  - by Pam Bullock

  I've used VS2008 a lot and have never had this problem. However, I started a new job and am using a new machine. Ever since I've gotten here the VS Find feature has been acting funny. I first noticed it when I did a replace all for "All Open Files". The project wouldn't build because the values had actually been replaced in other files within the solution that were not open and didn't even open after I pressed replace all. I have found that I can never use replace all on this machine because I never know what it is going to do. Even if I just do a find on "Current Document", once it's done with the document and I should get that message that says "No more matches found" it actually OPENS another random file from my solution where there is a match and keeps on going. It seems to never make any difference what "Look in" option I've chosen. My coworker has an install off the same disk and claims to not be experiencing this. We're in the middle of a stressful, huge project with a close deadline so I know my boss won't let me do a reinstall. Has anyone else ever had this happen? Anyone know a fix?? Thanks, Pam

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• Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

  - by user30997

  I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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• What is the best database structure for this scenario?

  - by Ricketts

  I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

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• Cleaning up a sparsebundle with a script

  - by nickg

  I'm using time machine to backup some servers to a sparse disk image bundle and I'd like to have a script to clean up the old back ups and re-size the image once space has been freed up. I'm fairly certain the data is protected because if I delete the old backups by right clicking, I have to enter a password to be able to delete them. To allow my script to be able to delete them, I've been running it as root. For some reason, it just won't run and every file it tries to delete I get rm: /file/: Operation not permitted Here is what I have as my script: #!/bin/bash for server in servername; do /usr/bin/hdiutil attach -mountpoint /path/to/mountpoint /path/to/sparsebundle/$server.sparsebundle/; /bin/sleep 10; /usr/bin/find /path/to/mountpoint -type d -mtime +7 -exec /bin/rm -rf {} \; /usr/bin/hdiutil unmount /path/to/mountpoint; /bin/sleep 10; /usr/bin/hdiutil compact /path/to/sparsebundle/$server.sparsebundle/; done exit; One of the problems I thought was causing this was it needed to have a mountpoint specified since the default mount was to /Volumes/Time\ Machine\ Backups/ that's why I created a mountpoint. I also thought that it was trying to delete the files to quickly after mounting and it wasn't actually mounted yet, that's why I added the sleep. I've also tried using the -delete option for find instead of -exec, but it didn't make any difference. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated because I'm out of ideas as to why this won't work.

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• WPF deployment strategy dilemma.clickonce(limited customization)+autoupdate vs installer(unlimited c

  - by black sensei

  Hello Experts!!! I've been facing a deployment problem.I've built a WPF application with visual studio 2008 and created an installer(msi) which works fine.But then it's pain to add automatic update to it. i've seen this article at windowsclient.net but it seems to be pretty old but could have been the perfect thing for me.Then i looked at the .Net Application updater block v2.0 which uses enterprise library june 2005 and for some reason it's not installing on my machine. I thought i will need to use a more recent Enterprise library so i installed and compiled Enterprise 4.1(october 2008) but nothing better happened.To i decided to give a try to CLickonce deployment.After struggling with it, it was almost perfect.I realized that when i was testing the updates provided by the clickonce on my machine which is XP i didn't notice the need of having sqlite dll in the GAC. surely it was already there.I noticed it when i moved to vista that there is a problem.After checking the net i know it's impossible to add a dll to the Global Assembly Cache. Now i'm stuck, i think i've hit a wall.Can any one share some of his experience? I'm willing to try the updater block if i can get help. Thanks for reading this!!

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• How to allow the user to select an input file for my SQL AdventureWorks web application?

  - by salvationishere

  I have a SQL and VS 2008 web application that I need to capture the full file path (directories and file name) from the selected file on the client computer. So user selects a file and then clicks on one of the buttons which transfers control to my code for processing. So how do I get its file path? I can get the file name, but not the path. Maybe problem is that while testing this web app, I am using the server instead of client machine. And I learned that on a server you cannot read the full file path due to security concerns. Is this true? If I just want this to work on client machine, which method/class do you recommend? And then how can I test it? My web app allows the user to select an input file and then map columns from the input .MDF file with columns from the selected Adventureworks table. Finally, after they click on the "Append" button, it adds rows from the input file to that table. So I want to capture the path info after they click this button.

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• Playing wave file ends immediatly (C++, Windows)

  - by TyBoer

  I've got a following situation. On a machine there is a Fritz ISDN card. There is a process that is responsible for playing a certain wave file on this device's wave out (ISDN connection is made at startup and made persistent). The scenario is easy, whenever needed the process calls waveOutWrite() on the previously opened wave device (everything initialized without any problems of course) and a callback function waits for MMWOMDONE msg to know that the playback has been finished. Since a few days however (nothing changed neither in the process nor the machine) the MMWOMDONE message comes immediately after calling waveOutWrite() even though the wave lasts a couple of seconds. Again no error is reported, it looks like the file was played but had zero length (which is not the case). I am also sure that waveOutReset() was not called by my process (it would also trigger sending the mentioned message). I already used to have some strange problems in the past that where solved simply by reinstalling TAPI drivers. This time for some reason it is problematic form me to perform that once again and am trying more analytical approach :). Any suggestions what might cause such a behavior? Maybe sth on the other end of the ISDN line?

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• Trouble getting $.ajax() to work in PhoneGap against a locally hosted server

  - by David Gutierrez

  Currently trying to make an ajax post request to an IIS Express hosted MVC 4 Web API end point from an android VM (Bluestacks) on my machine. Here are the snippets of code that I am trying, and cannot get to work: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://10.0.2.2:28434/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); Whenever I run this request I always get back a textStatus of 'error'. After hours of trying different things, I pushed my End Point to an actual server, and was able to actually get responses back in PhoneGap if I built up an XMLHttpRequest by hand, like so: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST", "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", true); request.onreadystatechange = function(){//Call a function when the state changes. console.log("state = " + request.readyState); console.log("status = " + request.status); if (request.readyState == 4) { if (request.status == 200 || request.status == 0) { console.log("*" + request.responseText + "*"); } } } request.send("{EncryptedPassword:1234,UserName:test,DeviceToken:d234}"); Unfortunately, if I try to use $.ajax() against the same end point in the snippet above I still get a status text that says 'error', here is that snippet for reference: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); So really, there are a couple of questions here. 1) Why can't I get any ajax calls (post or get) to successfully hit my End Point when it's hosted via IIS Express on the same machine that the Android VM is running? 2) When my end point is hosted on an actual server, through IIS and served through port 80, why can't I get post requests to be successful when I use jquery's ajax calls? (Even though I can get it to work by manually creating an XMLHttpRequest) Thanks

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• Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

  - by Adam

  I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

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• Codeigniter common templates

  - by Darthg8r

  Let's say that I have a website that has 100 different pages. Each page uses a common header and footer. Inside the header is some dynamic content that comes from a database. I'd like to avoid having to have code in every single controller and action that passes this common code into the view. function index() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "This is the index page"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("main_view", data); } function comments() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "Comment list"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("comment_view", data); } I realize that I could refactor the code so that the common parts are in a single function and the function is called by the action. Doing so would reduce SOME of the pain, but it still doesn't feel right since I'd still have to make a call to that function every time. What's the correct way to handle this?

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• Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

  - by nafe

  I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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• How to program critical section for reader-writer systems?

  - by Srinivas Nayak

  Hi, Lets say, I have a reader-writer system where reader and writer are concurrently running. 'a' and 'b' are two shared variables, which are related to each other, so modification to them needs to be an atomic operation. A reader-writer system can be of the following types: rr ww r-w r-ww rr-w rr-ww where [ r : single reader rr: multiple reader w : single writer ww: multiple writer ] Now, We can have a read method for a reader and a write method for a writer as follows. I have written them system type wise. rr read_method { read a; read b; } ww write_method { lock(m); write a; write b; unlock(m); } r-w r-ww rr-w rr-ww read_method { lock(m); read a; read b; unlock(m); } write_method { lock(m); write a; write b; unlock(m); } For multiple reader system, shared variable access doesn't need to be atomic. For multiple writer system, shared variable access need to be atomic, so locked with 'm'. But, for system types 3 to 6, is my read_method and write_method correct? How can I improve? Sincerely, Srinivas Nayak

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• Cutting Ubuntu to the bone for Virtualbox VM

  - by Monty

  I've been looking around for a Linux variant which will install only the software I need rather than everything Ubuntu (for example) puts in by default. This is to create a virtual machine in Virtualbox which has bash, apache, python, perl, SQLite, openssh and a few other programs but nothing else. I'd prefer to go with Ubuntu if possible but another modern distro would do as well (I like using apt-get and yum rather than downloading/compiling etc). So far, I've tried: SuseStudio.com, which is probably the best so far. Pressing F4 to get the boot options on Ubuntu 9.10, but there is no minimal installation (I think there was once). Arch Linux, slightly confusing install procedure but I might go back and try again. Gentoo, started well but fairly soon the HD on the virtual machine went to 2Gb, even before the installation had started in earnest (I'd partitioned the disks is all). I realise there are various "small" Linuxes around like Puppy, Feather, DSL, etc, but they seem to be aimed at desktop users or as a techie's toolkit, and I want a small-as-possible server distro which can be managed with tools like apt or yum or similar. TIA for any advice you can offer! -- Monty

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• Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

  - by Jay Stevens

  We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

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• Rails NoMethodError in loop when method exists

  - by Kevin Whitaker

  Good day all. I'm running into a bit of a problem getting a script running on my production environment, even though it works just fine on my dev box. I've verified that all the requisite gems and such are the same version. I should mention that the script is intended to be run with the script/runner command. Here is a super-condensed version of what I'm trying to do, centered around the part that's broken: def currentDeal marketTime = self.convertToTimeZone(Time.new) deal = Deal.find(:first, :conditions = ["start_time ? AND market_id = ? AND published = ?", marketTime, marketTime, self.id, 1]) return deal end markets = Market.find(all) markets.each do |market| deal = market.currentDeal puts deal.subject end Now convertToTimeZone is a method attached to the model. So, this code works just fine on my dev machine, as stated. However, attempting to run it on my production machine results in: undefined method `subject' for nil:NilClass (NoMethodError) If, however, I go into the console on the production box and do this: def currentDeal marketTime = self.convertToTimeZone(Time.new) deal = Deal.find(:first, :conditions = ["start_time ? AND market_id = ? AND published = ?", marketTime, marketTime, self.id, 1]) return deal end market = Market.find(1) deal = market.currentDeal puts deal.subject It returns the correct value, no problem. So what is going on? This is on rails v 2.3.5, on both machines. Thanks for any help

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• Does posting data with a textarea automatically add slashes to (escape) the text?

  - by animuson

  Ok, so I'm having a problem with a simple textarea. I'm using a kind of hidden page to easily encode some data using JSON. However, all of my text input is automatically being escaped somewhere and I don't know where. All of my $_POST variables are automatically run through the htmlentities() function when the script starts up, as seen below: $ani->i->post = $this->clean($_POST, true); function clean($values, $unset = false) { if (is_array($values)) { foreach ($values as $key => $value) { $newkey = strtolower($key); $return[$newkey] = $this->clean($value); unset($values[$key]); } return $return; } return htmlentities($values); } I keep getting \' for all of my single quotes when I put the value back into the textarea. I can't find anywhere where it would be adding slashes and I don't remember it being a feature that they were automatically added when you submit from a textarea, and if that was so, why would they not be returning back to a single quote when put back into the textarea? Do I really need to run variables through stripslashes() to get them back to their original form? Edit: My 'test.php' file is as follows: <h1>To Be Encoded:</h1> <form action="/test" method="post"> <textarea name="encode" rows="20" cols="50"><?= html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode']) ?></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Encode It!" /> </form> <h1>Encoded By JSON:</h1> <textarea name="encoded" rows="20" cols="50"><?= json_encode(html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode'])) ?></textarea> <?php die(); ?> P.S. The die() is just there for compatibility with my framework.

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• Steps to Investigate Cause of Web.Config Duplicate Section

  - by pauly

  Symptoms In IIS Dot Net 2.0 Integrated app pool: double clicking to view any web.config section results in a the following error dialog. "There was an error while performing this operation.... Fielname... web.config... Error: There is a duplicate..." Browsing to the URL displays: "Http 500.19" internal server error.. There is a duplicate... 'system.web.extensions/scripting/scriptResourceHandler' section defined...." Running the app from VS 2008 an "Unable to start debugging on the web server..." dialog is displayed. Things Tried Looked at other application directories on same IIS server. No problem view web.config contents or serving up the app. Removed and re-added the application in IIS. Checked out a new version of the source code. Reverted to prior versions of the web.config file. Looked for web.config files that might have duplicate sections in: Inetpub root. "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config" The "Views" subfolder of the ASP.Net MVC app. Checked out source code to another dev machine. Setup IIS 7 app folder. No problem with Web.config. Question If the reason for this error is another web.config file where else should I look? Are there other reasons for these symptoms?

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• How to get current datetime on windows command line, in a suitable format for using in a filename?

  - by Rory

  What's a windows command line statement(s) I can use to get the current datetime in a format that I can put into a filename? I want to have a .bat file that zips up a directory into an archive with the current date & time as part of the name, eg "Code_2008-10-14_2257.zip". Is there any easy way I can do this, independent of the regional settings of the machine? I don't really mind about the date format, ideally it'd be yyyy-mm-dd but anything simple is fine. So far I've got this, which on my machine gives me "Tue_10_14_2008_230050_91" rem Get the datetime in a format that can go in a filename. set _my_datetime=%date%_%time% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime: =_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime::=% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:/=_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:.=_% rem now use the timestamp by in a new zip file name "d:\Program Files\7-Zip\7z.exe" a -r Code_%_my_datetime%.zip Code I can live with this but it seems a bit clunky. Ideally it'd be briefer and have the format mentioned earlier. I'm using Windows Server 2003 and Win XP Pro. I don't want to install additional utilities to achieve this (although I realise there are some that will do nice date formatting).

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• SSRS2005 timeout error

  - by jaspernygaard

  Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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• transactions and delete using fluent nhibernate

  - by Will I Am

  I am starting to play with (Fluent) nHibernate and I am wondering if someone can help with the following. I'm sure it's a total noob question. I want to do: delete from TABX where name = 'abc' where table TABX is defined as: ID int name varchar(32) ... I build the code based on internet samples: using (ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("FROM TABX WHERE name = :uid") .SetString("uid", "abc"); session.Delete(query.List<Person>()[0]); transaction.Commit(); } but alas, it's generating two queries (one select and one delete). I want to do this in a single statement, as in my original SQL. What is the correct way of doing this? Also, I noticed that in most samples on the internet, people tend to always wrap all queries in transactions. Why is that? If I'm only running a single statement, that seems an overkill. Do people tend to just mindlessly cut and paste, or is there a reason beyond that? For example, in my query above, if I do manage it to get it from two queries down to one, i should be able to remove the begin/commit transaction, no? if it matters, I'm using PostgreSQL for experimenting.

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• How to access SQL CE 3.5 from VB6

  - by Masterfu

  We have a .NET 3.5 SP1 application written in C# that stores data in an SQL CE 3.5 Database. We also need to access (read only) this very data from a legacy VB6 application. I don't know if this is at all possible. There are several approaches to this problem that I can think of. 1) I have read about ADOCE Connections, but this seems to be an option for embedded Visual Basic only 2) I can't seem to get a connection working using ADODB.Connection Objects like so Dim MyConnObj As New ADODB.Connection ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.CE.OLEDB.3.5 ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.MOBILE.OLEDB.3.0 MyConnObj.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=c:\test.sdf" MyConnObj.Open Maybe this is just a bad choice of providers? I also tried the providers that appear as comments above and different connection strings, but to no avail. Both providers are not installed on my dev machine and won't be installed on my customer's machine. 3) Maybe there is a way to use a more generic approach like ODBC? But I believe this would result in setup / deployment work, right? Does anyone have any experience with this scenario? As you can see, I am really looking for some good starting points. I also accept answers like "This is drop dead simple and so are you" as long as they come with some guiding directions ;-)

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• My framework will utilise other frameworks, but I'd like this to be transparent to the end-user

  - by d11wtq

  I'm building a framework, which aims to provide a new development environment for the user, but I need to use things like RegexKit and almost certainly some other established frameworks in order to do this. Any functionality exposed from such frameworks would be abstracted through classes and methods in my own framework for maintenance reasons (allowing me to change my mind on which dependencies I want). In an ideal world I just want to ship a single .framework. However I'm aware that unlike with standard bundles and applications it is not possibile to embed a framework inside the framework bundle. Do I have any other option other than to tell the end user that they must also install RegexKit and any other dependencies? I have a feeling this lessens the appeal value of the easy to use embedded framework I'd envisaged building. Right now I'm feeling like I have some limited options: Force the user to install the dependencies. Write my own classes that provide the same functionality -- ugh! If at all possible, try to statically link the third party frameworks (is this possible??) My end-product is ideally a single .framework bundle that uses @rpath and so can be installed in the system or simply bundled with the app that uses it.

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