Search Results

Search found 47245 results on 1890 pages for 'class members'.

Page 434/1890 | < Previous Page | 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441  | Next Page >

  • How to override the attr_protected?

    - by KandadaBoggu
    I have STI implementation as follows: class Automobile < ActiveRecord::Base end class Car < Automobile end class Truck < Automobile end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :automobiles accepts_nested_attributes_for :automobiles end I am creating a list of automobiles for a user. For each automobile, the UI sets the type field and the properties associated with the automobile.While form submission, the type field is ignored as it is a protected attribute. How do I work around this issue? Is there a declarative way to unprotect a protected attribute?

    Read the article

  • Bootstrap inline button dropdown within <p> jumbotron

    - by C.B.
    Currently I have a jumbotron setup with some paragraph text, and I would like to stick a button dropdown inline with the text. Dropdown button <span class="btn-group"> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default dropdown-toggle" data-toggle="dropdown"> Button... <span class="caret"></span> </button> <ul class="dropdown-menu" role="menu"> <li><a href="#">Opt 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Opt 2</a></li> </ul> </span> Jumbotron <div class="jumbotron"> <h1>Hello!</h1> <p>Welcome</p> <p>Another paragraph <!-- dropdown is here --> </p> </div> <!-- jumbotron --> If the dropdown is within the <p> tag, it does not "dropdown" (but renders). If it is outside of the <p> tag it functions fine, but I would like it to be inline with the text and need the text to be in the <p> tag to get the style. Any ideas? Things to note -- If I replace the <span> tags with <div> tags, it will work fine within the <p> tags, but won't be inline.

    Read the article

  • jQuery validate plugin radio with optional text

    - by timborden
    I'm trying to figure out how to validate a form element with a mix of radio inputs and a text input: <label>Question?</label> <input type="radio" class="mandatory" name="questions[1][]" value="1" />answer 1<br/> <input type="radio" class="mandatory" name="questions[1][]" value="2" />answer 2<br/> <input class="ignore" type="radio" id="questions[1][]" />Other (please specify)<br/> <input class="optional mandatory" type="text" name="questions[1][]" value="" /> I've figured out how to get the form to behave as expected (select and unselect) with the following code: $("input.optional").focus(function () { var this_name = $(this).attr("name"); $("input:radio").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('name') == this_name; }).attr('checked', false); $("input").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('id') == this_name; }).attr('checked', true); }); $(':radio').click(function () { var this_name = $(this).attr("name"); $("input").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('id') == this_name; }).attr('checked', false); $("input.optional").filter(function() {return $(this).attr('name') == this_name; }).val(''); }); I was hoping I could use the class "mandatory" to validate the mix of radio and text inputs: $("form .manditory").each(function () { $(this).rules("add", {required: true}); }); But it's not working as expected. With the radio (id="questions[1][]") selected, and the text input containing content, the form element is still flagged as invalid. Suggestions...maybe a better approach? Thanks in advance. UPDATE Sorry, I should have clarified that I'm using the validate plugin: $("form").validate({ ... });

    Read the article

  • How do I correct feature envy in this case?

    - by RMorrisey
    I have some code that looks like: class Parent { private Intermediate intermediateContainer; public Intermediate getIntermediate(); } class Intermediate { private Child child; public Child getChild() {...} public void intermediateOp(); } class Child { public void something(); public void somethingElse(); } class Client { private Parent parent; public void something() { parent.getIntermediate().getChild().something(); } public void somethingElse() { parent.getIntermediate().getChild().somethingElse(); } public void intermediate() { parent.getIntermediate().intermediateOp(); } } I understand that is an example of the "feature envy" code smell. The question is, what's the best way to fix it? My first instinct is to put the three methods on parent: parent.something(); parent.somethingElse(); parent.intermediateOp(); ...but I feel like this duplicates code, and clutters the API of the Parent class (which is already rather busy). Do I want to store the result of getIntermediate(), and/or getChild(), and keep my own references to these objects?

    Read the article

  • What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

    - by Churk
    So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

    Read the article

  • moving EDMX file System.Data.MetadataException: Unable to load the specified metadata resource.

    - by Dani
    I have a ASP.NET MVC 2 project. I've created edmx file on the class library project that holds the model. now I've created another class library called it shared and moved the edmx file over there. resolved some issues, everything compiles, but it can't find the connection string resource at runtime. I've copied the ConnectionString part of the Web.Config to the main file, the old class library app.config file and the new class library app.config file. Still get this error: System.Data.MetadataException: Unable to load the specified metadata resource. Line 75: public myProjdb() : base("name=myProjdb", "MyProjdb") in the MyProj.Designer.cs file. Any Idea how to resolve this issue ? Is there a better way to store connection string data ?

    Read the article

  • Creating a new object destroys an older object with different name in C++

    - by Mikael
    First question here! So, I am having some problems with pointers in Visual C++ 2008. I'm writing a program which will control six cameras and do some processing on them so to clean things up I have created a Camera Manager class. This class handles all operations which will be carried out on all the cameras. Below this is a Camera class which interacts with each individual camera driver and does some basic image processing. Now, the idea is that when the manager is initialised it creates two cameras and adds them to a vector so that I can access them later. The catch here is that when I create the second camera (camera2) the first camera's destructor is called for some reason, which then disconnects the camera. Normally I'd assume that the problem is somewhere in the Camera class, but in this case everything works perfectly as long as I don't create the camera2 object. What's gone wrong? CameraManager.h: #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include "Camera.h" class CameraManager{ std::vector<Camera> cameras; public: CameraManager(); ~CameraManager(); void CaptureAll(); void ShowAll(); }; CameraManager.cpp: #include "stdafx.h" #include "CameraManager.h" CameraManager::CameraManager() { printf("Camera Manager: Initializing\n"); [...] Camera *camera1 = new Camera(NodeInfo,1, -44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera1); // Adding the following two lines causes camera1's destructor to be called. Why? Camera *camera2 = new Camera(NodeInfo,0, 44,0,0); cameras.push_back(*camera2); printf("Camera Manager: Ready\n"); }

    Read the article

  • C++ CRTP(template pattern) question

    - by aaa
    following piece of code does not compile, the problem is in T::rank not be inaccessible (I think) or uninitialized in parent template. Can you tell me exactly what the problem is? is passing rank explicitly the only way? or is there a way to query tensor class directly? Thank you #include <boost/utility/enable_if.hpp> template<class T, // size_t N, class enable = void> struct tensor_operator; // template<class T, size_t N> template<class T> struct tensor_operator<T, typename boost::enable_if_c< T::rank == 4>::type > { tensor_operator(T &tensor) : tensor_(tensor) {} T& operator()(int i,int j,int k,int l) { return tensor_.layout.element_at(i, j, k, l); } T &tensor_; }; template<size_t N, typename T = double> // struct tensor : tensor_operator<tensor<N,T>, N> { struct tensor : tensor_operator<tensor<N,T> > { static const size_t rank = N; }; I know the workaround, however am interested in mechanics of template instantiation for self-education

    Read the article

  • A general declaration for all inherited classes

    - by Soham
    Consider, there is a class called SuperClass from which, ClassA, ClassB, ClassC is derived. From each one of those derived Classes, there are further more two classes are derived each called ChildClassAA and ChildClassAB[AB stands for Bth Child class from the Ath Class.Lets not really pull our hair on this nomenclature]. Now, ideally, I want to declare a general type as a private member of another Class say IndependentClass which can be initialized during run time as either of the objects of type ClassAor ClassB or ClassC and even the derived classes like ClassAA or ClassAB. Is there a possible way to do it?

    Read the article

  • how does serializable work in java?

    - by Karl Trumstedt
    If I have an instance of a class that I store in a session I need to make it serializable. This class has a static variable, will this be serialized in every instance stored? The static variable is a reference to a cache containing a lot of data in the background. Will all of this data be serialized? If so, it seems preferable to make this variable transient and re-fetch the cache instance each time the instance is restored. Maybe not store the cache instance at all in the class. Will the constructor execute when a class is restored from a serialized state? if not is there any other method I can use to re-instate a transient variable?

    Read the article

  • Most proper way to use inherited classes with shared scopes in Mongo?

    - by Trip
    I have the TestVisual class that is inherited by the Game class : class TestVisual < Game include MongoMapper::Document end class Game include MongoMapper::Document belongs_to :maestra key :incorrect, Integer key :correct, Integer key :time_to_complete, Integer key :maestra_id, ObjectId timestamps! end As you can see it belongs to Maestra. So I can do Maestra.first.games But I can not to Maestra.first.test_visuals Since I'm working specifically with TestVisuals, that is ideally what I would like to pull. Is this possible with Mongo. If it isn't or if it isn't necessary, is there any other better way to reach the TestVisual object from Maestra and still have it inherit Game ?

    Read the article

  • Am I doing AS3 reference cleanup correctly?

    - by Ólafur Waage
    In one frame of my fla file (let's call it frame 2), I load a few xml files, then send that data into a class that is initialized in that frame, this class creates a few timers and listeners. Then when this class is done doing it's work. I call a dispatchEvent and move to frame 3. This frame does some things as well, it's initialized and creates a few event listeners and timers. When it's done, I move to frame 2 again. This is supposed to repeat as often as I need so I need to clean up the references correctly and I'm wondering if I'm doing it correctly. For sprites I do this. world.removeChild(Background); // world is the parent stage Background = null; For instances of other classes I do this. Players[i].cleanUp(world); // do any cleanup within the instanced class world.removeChild(PlayersSelect[i]); For event listeners I do this. if(Background != null) { Background.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, deSelectPlayer); } For timers I do this. if(Timeout != null) { Timeout.stop(); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, queueHandler); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, queueCompleted); Timeout = null; } And for library images I do this if(_libImage!= null) { s.removeChild(Images._libImage); // s is the stage _libImage= null; } And for the class itself in the main timeline, I do this Frame2.removeEventListener("Done", IAmDone); Frame2.cleanUp(); // the cleanup() does all the stuff above Frame2= null; Even if I do all this, when I get to frame 2 for the 2nd time, it runs for 1-2 seconds and then I get a lot of null reference errors because the cleanup function is called prematurely. Am I doing the cleanup correctly? What can cause events to fire prematurely?

    Read the article

  • AngularJS not validating email field in form

    - by idipous
    I have the html below where I have a form that I want to submit to the AngularJS Controller. <div class="newsletter color-1" id="subscribe" data-ng-controller="RegisterController"> <form name="registerForm"> <div class="col-md-6"> <input type="email" placeholder="[email protected]" data-ng-model="userEmail" required class="subscribe"> </div> <div class="col-md-2"> <button data-ng-click="register()" class="btn btn-primary pull-right btn-block">Subsbcribe</button> </div> </form> </div> And the controller is below app.controller('RegisterController', function ($scope,dataFactory) { $scope.users = dataFactory.getUsers(); $scope.register = function () { var userEmail = $scope.userEmail; dataFactory.insertUser(userEmail); $scope.userEmail = null; $scope.ThankYou = "Thank You!"; } }); The problem is that no validation is taking place when I click the button. It is always routed to the controller although I do not supply a correct email. So every time I click the button I get the {{ThankYou}} variable displayed. Maybe I do not understand something.

    Read the article

  • How can I disable a model field in a django form

    - by jammon
    I have a model like this: class MyModel(models.Model): REGULAR = 1 PREMIUM = 2 STATUS_CHOICES = ((REGULAR, "regular"), (PREMIUM, "premium")) name = models.CharField(max_length=30) status = models.IntegerField(choices = STATUS_CHOICES, default = REGULAR) class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = models.MyModel In a view I initialize one field and try to make it non-editable: myform = MyForm(initial = {'status': requested_status}) myform.fields['status'].editable = False But the user can still change that field. What's the real way to accomplish what I'm after?

    Read the article

  • Access-specifiers are not foolproof?

    - by Nawaz
    If I've a class like this, class Sample { private: int X; }; Then we cannot access X from outside, so this is illegal, Sample s; s.X = 10; // error - private access But we can make it accessible without editing the class! All we need to do is this, #define private public //note this define! class Sample { private: int X; }; //outside code Sample s; s.X = 10; //no error! Working code at ideone : http://www.ideone.com/FaGpZ That means, we can change the access-specifiers by defining such macros just before the class definition, or before #include <headerfile.h>, #define public private //make public private //or #define protected private //make protected private //or #define so on Isn't it a problem with C++ (Macros/access-specifiers/whatever)? Anyway, the point of this topic is: Using macros, we can easily violate encapsulation. Access-specifiers are not foolproof! Am I right?

    Read the article

  • why can't I call .update on a MessageDigest instance

    - by Arthur Ulfeldt
    when i run this from the repl: (def md (MessageDigest/getInstance "SHA-1")) (. md update (into-array [(byte 1) (byte 2) (byte 3)])) I get: No matching method found: update for class java.security.MessageDigest$Delegate the Java 6 docs for MessageDigest show: update(byte[] input) Updates the digest using the specified array of bytes. and the class of (class (into-array [(byte 1) (byte 2) (byte 3)])) is [Ljava.lang.Byte; Am I missing something in the definition of update? Not creating the class I think I am? Not passing it the type I think I am?

    Read the article

  • How do I extract this value using PHP Dom

    - by mathew
    Hello I do have html file this is just a prt of it though... <div id="result" > <div class="res_item" id="1" h="63c2c439b62a096eb3387f88465d36d0"> <div class="res_main"> <h2 class="res_main_top"> <img src="/ff/gigablast.com.png" alt="favicon for gigablast.com" width=16 height=16 />&nbsp; <a href="http://www.gigablast.com/" rel="nofollow" > Gigablast </a> <div class="res_main"> <h2 class="res_main_top"> <img src="/ff/ask.com.png" alt="favicon for ask.com" width=16 height=16 />&nbsp; <a href="http://ask.com/" rel="nofollow" > Ask.com - What&#039;s Your Question? </a>.... I want extract only url address (for example: http://www.gigablast.com and http://ask.com/ - there are atleast 10 urls in that html) from above using PHP Dom Document..I know up to this but dont know how to move ahead?? $doc = new DomDocument; $doc->loadHTMLFile('urllist.html'); $data = $doc->getElementById('result'); then what?? this is inside tag hence I cant use $data->getElementsByTagName() here!! any help??

    Read the article

  • When I change templates in Netbeans, why doesn't anything happen?

    - by Matthew
    I want to modify the "Java class" template, so that the class javadoc comment includes more than just the author. In Netbeans 6.8., I go to Tools Templates Java Java Class, and modify the template. However, nothing seems to change. I tried restarting Netbeans, just in case, but the old template is still used. How do I get Netbeans to recognize changes to the template for Java Classes?

    Read the article

  • Is there a performance gain from defining routes in app.yaml versus one large mapping in a WSGIAppli

    - by jgeewax
    Scenario 1 This involves using one "gateway" route in app.yaml and then choosing the RequestHandler in the WSGIApplication. app.yaml - url: /.* script: main.py main.py from google.appengine.ext import webapp class Page1(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write("Page 1") class Page2(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write("Page 2") application = webapp.WSGIApplication([ ('/page1/', Page1), ('/page2/', Page2), ], debug=True) def main(): wsgiref.handlers.CGIHandler().run(application) if __name__ == '__main__': main() Scenario 2: This involves defining two routes in app.yaml and then two separate scripts for each (page1.py and page2.py). app.yaml - url: /page1/ script: page1.py - url: /page2/ script: page2.py page1.py from google.appengine.ext import webapp class Page1(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write("Page 1") application = webapp.WSGIApplication([ ('/page1/', Page1), ], debug=True) def main(): wsgiref.handlers.CGIHandler().run(application) if __name__ == '__main__': main() page2.py from google.appengine.ext import webapp class Page2(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write("Page 2") application = webapp.WSGIApplication([ ('/page2/', Page2), ], debug=True) def main(): wsgiref.handlers.CGIHandler().run(application) if __name__ == '__main__': main() Question What are the benefits and drawbacks of each pattern? Is one much faster than the other?

    Read the article

  • Rails nested form for belongs_to

    - by user1232533
    I'm new to rails and have some troubles with creating a nested form. My models: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company accepts_nested_attributes_for :company, :reject_if => :all_blank end class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users end Now i would like to create a new company from the user sign_up page (i use Devise btw) by given only a company name. And have a relation between the new User and new Company. In the console i can create a company for a existing User like this: @company = User.first.build_company(:name => "name of company") @company.save That works, but i can't make this happen for a new user, in my new user sign_up form i tried this (i know its wrong by creating a new User fist but im trying to get something working here..): <%= simple_form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :html => { :class => 'form-horizontal' }, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| %> <%= f.error_notification %> <div class="inputs"> <% @user = User.new company = @user.build_company() %> <% f.fields_for company do |builder| %> <%= builder.input :name, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <% end %> <%= f.input :email, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <%= f.input :password, :required => true %> <%= f.input :password_confirmation, :required => true %> </div> <div class="form-actions"> <%= f.button :submit, :class => 'btn-primary', :value => 'Sign up' %> </div> I did my best to google for a solution/ example.. found some nested form examples but it's just not clear to me how to do this. Really hope somebody can help me with this. Any help on this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! Greets, Daniel

    Read the article

  • Is it OK to write a constructor which does nothing?

    - by Roman
    To use methods of a class I need to instantiate a class. At the moment the class has not constructor (so I want to write it). But than I have realized that the constructor should do nothing (I do need to specify values of fields). In this context I have a question if it is OK to write constructor which does nothing. For example: public Point() { }

    Read the article

  • c++ templates: problem with member specialization

    - by ChAoS
    I am attempting to create a template "AutoClass" that create an arbitrary class with an arbitrary set of members, such as: AutoClass<int,int,double,double> a; a.set(1,1); a.set(0,2); a.set(3,99.7); std::cout << "Hello world! " << a.get(0) << " " << a.get(1) << " " << a.get(3) << std::endl; By now I have an AutoClass with a working "set" member: class nothing {}; template < typename T1 = nothing, typename T2 = nothing, typename T3 = nothing, typename T4 = nothing, typename T5 = nothing, typename T6 = nothing> class AutoClass; template <> class AutoClass<nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing> { public: template <typename U> void set(int n,U v){} }; template < typename T1, typename T2, typename T3, typename T4, typename T5, typename T6> class AutoClass: AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6> { public: T1 V; template <typename U> void set(int n,U v) { if (n <= 0) V = v; else AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::set(n-1,v); } }; and I started to have problems implementing the corresponding "get". This approach doesn't compile: template < typename T1, typename T2, typename T3, typename T4, typename T5, typename T6> class AutoClass: AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6> { public: T1 V; template <typename U> void set(int n,U v) { if (n <= 0) V = v; else AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::set(n-1,v); } template <typename W> W get(int n) { if (n <= 0) return V; else return AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::get(n-1); } template <> T1 get(int n) { if (n <= 0) return V; else return AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::get(n-1); } }; Besides, it seems I need to implement get for the <nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing> specialization. Any Idea on how to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Help decoding MSDN Dynamic Data Article

    - by davemackey
    I'm trying to run through this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd723645.aspx One of the steps is: In the class file for the page, change the base class from UserControl to EntityTemplateUserControl. Nowhere is it made clear what page is being referenced. Can someone help me? I don't see any relevant class in the pages I have, so I assumed maybe they were talking about the ascx and didn't really mean page, but I'm not seeing an option there either.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441  | Next Page >