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• suggestions for a 3D graph rendering library?

  - by Sandro

  Hello coders! So I'm not sure how stackoverflow friendly this question is since it doesn't have a quick clear cut answer but here we go... I have a java program that generates data for a directed graph. Now I need to render this graph. The data needs to be laid out in 3D, and I want to be able to define which plane an edge lives in. (Each edge will only need to occupy 1 plane of the 3D space). I also need the ability to navigate around the graph. Since I know that this kind of stuff is hard, I'm going shopping. So far I've looked into (In no particular order): JUNG: lacks 3D support Cytoscape: not sure how much I'll be able to define edge drawing, haven't seen a non bio-informatics application of it yet JGraph: I didn't see any 3D applications yet Perfuse: looks promising, does anyone know anything else about it? Gephi: Documentation looks scarce Processing: does this play well with java? I'm also considering doing some combination of opengl + swing rendering to create a 3D graph from multiple 2D graphs. I am also not adverse to the idea of linking from another language Any Ideas? Thank you.

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• java heap allocation

  - by gurupriyan.e

  I tried to increase the heap size like the below C:\Data\Guru\Code\Got\adminservice\adminservice>java -Xms512m -Xmx512m Usage: java [-options] class [args...] (to execute a class) or java [-options] -jar jarfile [args...] (to execute a jar file) where options include: -client to select the "client" VM -server to select the "server" VM -hotspot is a synonym for the "client" VM [deprecated] The default VM is client. -cp <class search path of directories and zip/jar files> -classpath <class search path of directories and zip/jar files> A ; separated list of directories, JAR archives, and ZIP archives to search for class files. -D<name>=<value> set a system property -verbose[:class|gc|jni] enable verbose output -version print product version and exit -version:<value> require the specified version to run -showversion print product version and continue -jre-restrict-search | -jre-no-restrict-search include/exclude user private JREs in the version search -? -help print this help message -X print help on non-standard options -ea[:<packagename>...|:<classname>] -enableassertions[:<packagename>...|:<classname>] enable assertions -da[:<packagename>...|:<classname>] -disableassertions[:<packagename>...|:<classname>] disable assertions -esa | -enablesystemassertions enable system assertions -dsa | -disablesystemassertions disable system assertions -agentlib:<libname>[=<options>] load native agent library <libname>, e.g. -agentlib:hprof see also, -agentlib:jdwp=help and -agentlib:hprof=help -agentpath:<pathname>[=<options>] load native agent library by full pathname -javaagent:<jarpath>[=<options>] load Java programming language agent, see java.lang.instrument It gave the help message as above - Does it mean that it was allocated?

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• Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery on the same page?

  - by reprogrammer

  I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

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• Why can't I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

  - by Dr Dork

  I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

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• How to accurately parse smtp message status code (DSN)?

  - by Geo

  RFC1893 claims that status codes will come in the format below you can read more here. But our bounce management system is having a hard time parsing error status code from bounce messages. We are able to get the raw message, but depending on the email server the code will come in different places. Is there any rule on how to parse this type of messages to obtain better results. We are not looking for the 100% solution but at least 80%. This document defines a new set of status codes to report mail system conditions. These status codes are intended to be used for media and language independent status reporting. They are not intended for system specific diagnostics. The syntax of the new status codes is defined as: status-code = class "." subject "." detail class = "2"/"4"/"5" subject = 1*3digit detail = 1*3digit White-space characters and comments are NOT allowed within a status- code. Each numeric sub-code within the status-code MUST be expressed without leading zero digits. The quote above from the RFC tells one thing but then the text below from a leading tool on bounce management says something different, where I can get a good source of standard status codes: Return Code Description 0 UNDETERMINED - (ie. Recipient Reply) 10 HARD BOUNCE - (ie. User Unknown) 20 SOFT BOUNCE - General 21 SOFT BOUNCE - Dns Failure 22 SOFT BOUNCE - Mailbox Full 23 SOFT BOUNCE - Message Too Large 30 BOUNCE - NO EMAIL ADDRESS. VERY RARE! 40 GENERAL BOUNCE 50 MAIL BLOCK - General 51 MAIL BLOCK - Known Spammer 52 MAIL BLOCK - Spam Detected 53 MAIL BLOCK - Attachment Detected 54 MAIL BLOCK - Relay Denied 60 AUTO REPLY - (ie. Out Of Office) 70 TRANSIENT BOUNCE 80 SUBSCRIBE Request 90 UNSUBSCRIBE/REMOVE Request 100 CHALLENGE-RESPONSE

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• Parsing/Tokenizing a String Containing a SQL Command

  - by Alan Storm

  Are there any open source libraries (any language, python/PHP preferred) that will tokenize/parse an ANSI SQL string into its various components? That is, if I had the following string SELECT a.foo, b.baz, a.bar FROM TABLE_A a LEFT JOIN TABLE_B b ON a.id = b.id WHERE baz = 'snafu'; I'd get back a data structure/object something like //fake PHPish $results['select-columns'] = Array[a.foo,b.baz,a.bar]; $results['tables'] = Array[TABLE_A,TABLE_B]; $results['table-aliases'] = Array[a=TABLE_A, b=TABLE_B]; //etc... Restated, I'm looking for the code in a database package that teases the SQL command apart so that the engine knows what to do with it. Searching the internet turns up a lot of results on how to parse a string WITH SQL. That's not what I want. I realize I could glop through an open source database's code to find what I want, but I was hoping for something a little more ready made, (although if you know where in the MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQLite source to look, feel free to pass it along) Thanks!

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• Workaround for basic syntax not being parsed.

  - by Mark Tomlin

  I want to have a class property that allow for an expression to take place on the right side of the equals sign. All versions of PHP choke on the following code, but it is written in this way to allow for easier extendibility in the future. /* Example SDK Class */ class SDK { /* Runtime Option Flags */ // Strings # 0: Makes no change to the strings. var $STRING_NONE = (1 << 0); # 1: Removes color codes from the string. var $STRING_STRIP_COLOR = (1 << 1); # 2: Removes language codes from the string. var $STRING_STRIP_LANG = (1 << 2); # 3: Removes all formatting from the string. var $STRING_STRIP = SELF::STRING_STRIP_COLOR & SELF::STRING_STRIP_LANG; # 4: Converts color codes to HTML & UTF-8. var $STRING_HTML = (1 << 3); # 8: Converts color codes to ECMA-48 escape color codes & UTF-8. var $STRING_CONSOLE = (1 << 4); # 16: Changes player names only. var $STRING_NAMES = (1 << 5); # 32: Changes host names only. var $STRING_HOSTS = (1 << 6); function SDK($fString = SELF::STRING_HTML & SELF::STRING_NAMES & SELF_HOST) { // constructor code. } } $SDK &= new SDK(SDK::STRING_NONE); (1 << 0) seems like very basic syntax to me, and is not fathomable why PHP would not allow for such a thing. Can anyone think of a work around that would maintain readability and future expandability of the following code?

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• jQuery HOW TO?? pass additional parameters to success callback for $.ajax call ?

  - by dotnetgeek

  Hello jQuery Ninjas! I am trying, in vain it seems, to be able to pass additional parameters back to the success callback method that I have created for a successful ajax call. A little background. I have a page with a number of dynamically created textbox / selectbox pairs. Each pair having a dynamically assigned unique name such as name="unique-pair-1_txt-url" and name="unique-pair-1_selectBox" then the second pair has the same but the prefix is different. In an effort to reuse code, I have crafted the callback to take the data and a reference to the selectbox. However when the callback is fired the reference to the selectbox comes back as 'undefined'. I read here that it should be doable. I have even tried taking advantage of the 'context' option but still nothing. Here is the script block that I am trying to use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function getImages(urlValue, selectBox) { $j.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $j(urlValue).val(), dataType: "jsonp", context: selectBox, success:function(data){ loadImagesInSelect(data, $j(this)) } , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } function loadImagesInSelect(data, selectBox) { //var select = $j('[name=single_input.<?cs var:op_unique_name ?>.selImageList]'); var select = selectBox; select.empty(); $j(data).each(function() { var theValue = $j(this)[0]["@value"]; var theId = $j(this)[0]["@name"]; select.append("<option value='" + theId + "'>" + theValue + "</option>"); }); select.children(":first").attr("selected", true); } From what I have read, I feel I am close but I just cant put my finger on the missing link. Please help in your typical ninja stealthy ways. TIA

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• Internationalization & Localization issue

  - by Ahmad

  Hi all, My application supports internationalization and localization, each user can choose his preference language and the application will reflect it perfectly. the issue is when the first user selects English and the second one selects French the resource bundle for the first user will read from the French resource after refreshing his page. I am using the following code to change between the two languages: public void changeToEnglish() { FacesContext context = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); Locale currentLocale = context.getViewRoot().getLocale(); String locale = "en_US"; Locale newLocale = new Locale(locale); if(!currentLocale.equals(newLocale)) context.getViewRoot().setLocale(newLocale); } I have the following in my faces_config.xml: <locale-config> <default-locale>en</default-locale> <supported-locale>fr</supported-locale> </locale-config> the application respond very well to changing languages but I think when setting the locale from the FacesContext it reflects all the users locales. Please help me on this....

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• Comparing two collections for equality

  - by Crossbrowser

  I would like to compare two collections (in C#), but I'm not sure of the best way to implement this efficiently. I've read the other thread about Enumerable.SequenceEqual, but it's not exactly what I'm looking for. In my case, two collections would be equal if they both contain the same items (no matter the order). Example: collection1 = {1, 2, 3, 4}; collection2 = {2, 4, 1, 3}; collection1 == collection2; // true What I usually do is to loop through each item of one collection and see if it exists in the other collection, then loop through each item of the other collection and see if it exists in the first collection. (I start by comparing the lengths). if (collection1.Count != collection2.Count) return false; // the collections are not equal foreach (Item item in collection1) { if (!collection2.Contains(item)) return false; // the collections are not equal } foreach (Item item in collection2) { if (!collection1.Contains(item)) return false; // the collections are not equal } return true; // the collections are equal However, this is not entirely correct, and it's probably not the most efficient way to do compare two collections for equality. An example I can think of that would be wrong is: collection1 = {1, 2, 3, 3, 4} collection2 = {1, 2, 2, 3, 4} Which would be equal with my implementation. Should I just count the number of times each item is found and make sure the counts are equal in both collections? The examples are in some sort of C# (let's call it pseudo-C#), but give your answer in whatever language you wish, it does not matter. Note: I used integers in the examples for simplicity, but I want to be able to use reference-type objects too (they do not behave correctly as keys because only the reference of the object is compared, not the content).

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• Django: How can I delete a formset entry if one of it's data is blank?

  - by mkret

  Hi, I have the following scenario: I have a form with data that does not need translation and a formset with a textfield that should be translated into an undefined amount of languages. Both parts are bound to a model. Each translated text is kept in a model with a foreign key that binds it to the untranslatable data. Something like: class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=60) birth_date = models.DateField() class PersonBio(models.Model): person = models.ForeignKey(Person) locale = models.CharField(max_length=10) bio = models.TextField() Each form in the formset has 2 fields: A textfield (with the translated text) A locale field (with the language into which the text was translated) I've got it working with no problems until I tryed to change it's normal behaviour. I wanted to eliminate the need for the DELETE field by deleting an instance of the translated text if the textfield was left blank. I've googled quite a lot now and read the whole documentation for forms, formsets and model validation but had no luck. To be honest, I couldn't even think of a solution. Where should I implement this? On a Form clean() method? On the view? Somewhere in the Fieldset? Fieldset's save() method, maybe? I'll keep trying to find a way to do that, but any help/tip/clue is appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• Accessing Unicode telugu text from Ms-Access Database in Java

  - by Ravi Chandra

  I have an MS-Access database ( A English-telugu Dictionary database) which contains a table storing English words and telugu meanings. I am writing a dictionary program in Java which queries the database for a keyword entered by the user and display the telugu meaning. My Program is working fine till I get the data from the database, but when I displayed it on some component like JTextArea/JEditorPane/ etc... the telugu text is being displayed as '????'. Why is it happening?. I have seen the solution for "1467412/reading-unicode-data-from-an-access-database-using-jdbc" which provides some workaround for Hebrew language. But it is not working for telugu. i.e I included setCharset("UTF8")before querying from the database. but still I am getting all '?'s. As soon as I got data from Resultset I am checking the individual characters, all the telugu characters are being encoded by 63 only. This is my observation. I guess this must be some type of encoding problem. I would be very glad if somebody provides some solution for this. Thanks in advance.

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• PLPGSQL : How to return a record from function executed by INSERT/UPDATE rule?

  - by seas

  Do the following scheme for my database: create sequence data_sequence; create table data_table { id integer primary key; field varchar(100); }; create view data_view as select id, field from data_table; create function data_insert(_new data_view) returns data_view as $$declare _id integer; _result data_view%rowtype; begin _id := nextval('data_sequence'); insert into data_table(id, field) values(_id, _new.field); select * into _result from data_view where id = _id; return _result; end; $$ language plpgsql; create rule insert as on insert to data_view do instead select data_insert(new); Then type in psql: insert into data_view(field) values('abc'); Would like to see something like: id | field ----+--------- 1 | abc Instead see: data_insert ------------- (1, "abc") Is it possible to fix this somehow? Thanks for any ideas. Ultimate idea is to use this in other functions, so that I could obtain id of just inserted record without selecting for it from scratch. Something like: insert into data_view(field) values('abc') returning id into my_variable would be nice but doesn't work with error: ERROR: cannot perform INSERT RETURNING on relation "data_view" HINT: You need an unconditional ON INSERT DO INSTEAD rule with a RETURNING clause. I don't really understand that HINT. I use PostgreSQL 8.4.

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• Nonetype object has no attribute '__getitem__'

  - by adohertyd

  I am trying to use an API wrapper downloaded from the net to get results from the new azure Bing API. I'm trying to implement it as per the instructions but getting the runtime error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "bingwrapper.py", line 4, in <module> bingsearch.request("affirmative action") File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/bingsearch-0.1-py2.7.egg/bingsearch.py", line 8, in request return r.json['d']['results'] TypeError: 'NoneType' object has no attribute '__getitem__' This is the wrapper code: import requests URL = 'https://api.datamarket.azure.com/Data.ashx/Bing/SearchWeb/Web?Query=%(query)s&$top=50&$format=json' API_KEY = 'SECRET_API_KEY' def request(query, **params): r = requests.get(URL % {'query': query}, auth=('', API_KEY)) return r.json['d']['results'] The instructions are: >>> import bingsearch >>> bingsearch.API_KEY='Your-Api-Key-Here' >>> r = bingsearch.request("Python Software Foundation") >>> r.status_code 200 >>> r[0]['Description'] u'Python Software Foundation Home Page. The mission of the Python Software Foundation is to promote, protect, and advance the Python programming language, and to ...' >>> r[0]['Url'] u'http://www.python.org/psf/ This is my code that uses the wrapper (as per the instructions): import bingsearch bingsearch.API_KEY='abcdefghijklmnopqrstuv' r = bingsearch.request("affirmative+action")

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• (EXCEL)VBA Spin button which steps through in an sql databases date time

  - by Gulredy

  I have an sql Database table in MySQL which have lots of rows with varied date time values. For example: 2012-08-21 10:10:00 <-- with these date there are around 12 rows 2012-08-21 15:31:00 <-- with these date there are around 5 rows 2012-08-22 11:40:00 <-- with these date there are around 10 rows 2012-08-22 12:17:00 <-- with these date there are around 9 rows 2012-08-22 12:18:00 <-- with these date there are around 7 rows 2012-08-25 07:21:00 <-- with these date there are around 6 rows If the user clicks on the SpinButton1_SpinUp() or SpinButton1_SpinDown() button then it should do the following: The SpinButton1_SpinUp() button should filter out those data from an sql table which is the next after what we are currently on now. Example: We have currently selected: 2012-08-21 15:31:00. The user hits the SpinUp button then the program selects those date from the database, which is the next higher value like this one: 2012-08-22 11:40:00. So the user hits the SpinUp button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date: 2012-08-22 11:40:00 The SpinButton1_SpinDown() will do exactly the reverse of the SpinUp button. When the user hits the SpinDown button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date 2012-08-21 10:10:00 So I think the date which we are currently on, should be stored in a variable. But on button hit not every bigger or lower data should be selected in the database, only those which are the closest bigger or the closest lower date. How can I do this? I hope I described my problem understandable. My native language is not english, so misunderstandings can occur! Please ask if you don't understand something! Thank you for reading!

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• ActionScript 3.0: placing code on stage/MC timelines a la AS2 instead of in classes

  - by BoltClock

  I'm aware that ActionScript 3.0 is designed from the ground up to be a largely object-oriented language and using it means less or even no timeline code in Flash documents. I'm quite experienced with OOP and am comfortable writing classes. However, since I mostly use Flash for animations, I hardly ever need to write ActionScript code other than for preloaders, subtitles, quality controls, website links and so on. In fact, I still set my Flash movies to use AS2 to this day because I'm used to gotoAndPlay()/gotoAndStop(), AS2 preloaders, subtitles, quality controls and even getURL(). Of course, I really want to move on now that practically everyone's on Flash Player 9 or 10 and now that I've dabbled with other OO languages like Java, C# and Objective-C too. I'm a complete newcomer to AS3 and am not very learned with AS2 either. Considering my current use of ActionScript, are there any cases where it's still OK to use very simple AS3 code in the timeline instead of moving code to a class, especially since moving to a class might mean unnecessarily increasing the number of LOC from 4 to 40? (Heck, is the latter case ('instead of ...') even a valid concern at all?)

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• Two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and don't provide straight forward answers. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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• youtube embeded player: change video link with javascript, dinamically

  - by Anthony Koval'

  here is a part of html code (video urls marked with a django-template language variables): <div class="mainPlayer"> <object width="580" height="326"> <param name="movie" value="{{main_video.video_url}}"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="{{main_video.video_url}}" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="580" height="326"></embed> </object> </div> and JS-code (using jQuery 1.4.x) $(document).ready(function(){ ..... $(".activeMovie img").live("click", function(){ video_url = ($(this).parent().find('input').val()); $('.mainPlayer').find('param:eq(0)').val(video_url); $('.mainPlayer').find('embed').attr('src', video_url); }) ... }) such a algorithm works fine in ff 3.6.3, but any luck in chrome4 or opera 10.x., src and value are changed, but youtube player still shows an old video.

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• Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

  - by Nick Babcock

  I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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• Suggestions for a PHP programmer wanting to create a timer app for an internet cafe

  - by grokker

  Hi, I was asked by a friend to make a timer app for his small internet cafe. He wants to have timers on each client PCs. The timers indicate how much time has been spent by the customer. On the PC that he uses, there's another program that has the overview of all the timers and there's a button for each client PCs that allows him to blacken out the screen. It's not automatic hence the button. The problem is I haven't done any desktop apps before so that's why I'm asking you guys (the awesome people at SO) for suggestions/advice on what language/tool to use. A little info about me: I did Java but haven't tried Swing though. I know a bit about Python and Ruby too. I don't mind learning new languages as long as I get to finish or get a prototype up and running. He doesn't mind if I could show him a prototype, it's actually for me. It gives me satisfaction to see I'm progressing. I'm not planning on asking him to pay me for doing this. Whatever he gives me is fine. P.S. He's using Windows XP

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• How to change the margin of code's frame of showexpl.sty when numbers=none?

  - by suugaku

  Hi all, I want to align the code's frame with the formated text's frame. If the numbers=left,the mission is accomplished by configuring xleftmargin, xrightmargin, framesep, and numbersep. However, when I set numbers=none, I cannot accomplish my mission by configuring those properties. Regardless of the values set to those properties, the code's frame remains unchanged and expands beyond the \textwidth. Please see my code snippet below. Thank you in advance. \documentclass[a4paper,11pt,twoside,final,dvips]{book} \usepackage{xcolor} \usepackage{showexpl} \lstset{% breaklines=true, breakindent=0pt, basicstyle=\color{magenta}\ttfamily\tiny, keywordstyle=\color{blue}\sffamily\bfseries, identifierstyle=\color{black}, commentstyle=\color{cyan}\itshape, stringstyle=\rmfamily, showstringspaces=false, tabsize=2, %========== FRAME ========== frame=single, framerule=0.4pt, rulecolor=\color{red}, framesep=3pt, %========== MARGIN ========== xleftmargin=3.4pt, xrightmargin=3.4pt, %========== NUMBER ========== numbers=left, numberstyle=\color{red}\tiny, numbersep=6.4pt, explpreset={language={[LaTeX]TeX},pos=b}% } \usepackage{lipsum} \usepackage{printlen} %------------------------- MARKER ------------------------ \newlength{\halftextwidth} \setlength{\halftextwidth}{\textwidth*\real{0.5}} \newcommand*{\MARKER}% {% \uselengthunit{cm} \par\noindent\strut\vrule% \hrulefill~% {\color{red}\scriptsize half text area: \printlength{\halftextwidth}}% ~\hrulefill\vrule% \hrulefill~% {\color{red}\scriptsize half text area: \printlength{\halftextwidth}}% ~\hrulefill\vrule% \marginpar% {% \strut\vrule\hrulefill~% {\color{red}\scriptsize margin area: \rndprintlength{\marginparwidth}}% ~\hrulefill\vrule% }% \par% }% \begin{document} \chapter{I love \LaTeXe, but $\cdots$} \section{With numbers=left} \vfill \MARKER \begin{LTXexample} \lipsum[1-1] \end{LTXexample} \MARKER \vfill \pagebreak \section{With numbers=none} \vfill \MARKER % Any values that are assigned to xleftmargin or xrightmargin % have no effect on the margin of the code's frame. \begin{LTXexample}[numbers=none,xleftmargin=10.4pt,xrightmargin=10.4pt] \lipsum[1-1] \end{LTXexample} \MARKER \vfill \end{document}

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• .net Globalization and ResourceManager

  - by Andrew Bullock

  I've got a console app and i need to globalize some of the hardcoded message strings. I've got two assemblies: MyProgram.Console (Console app) MyProgram.Core (class lib) In MyProgram.Core I've made a Language.en-GB.resx and set it as an Embedded Resource. In the resource I've created a key/value pair: "SomeKey" : "SomeValue" When I build my application I get: bin/MyProgram.Console.exe bin/MyProgram.Core.dll bin/en-BG/MyProgram.Core.resources.dll How do I address these resource key/values? Currently I'm trying this from a class within MyProgram.Core: var mgr = new ResourceManager(GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); mgr.GetString("SomeKey", new Culture("en-GB")); But I keep getting: System.Resources.MissingManifestResourceException: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure "MyProgram.Core.resources" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly "MyProgram.Core" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. What am I doing wrong? I've tried every combination I can think of for the baseName argument to the ResourceManagers ctor. Thanks

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• Shutdown and WakeUp Script C#

  - by Stephen Murby

  Hiya I am very new to C#, infact this is basically my first task set by work whilst i learn the language. Yes i am also new to programming, be gentle :). Context: My script needs to query active directory, grab of OU's and put them to a combo box in a form. Next query ActDir for a list of machines in a selected OU (Done this in a vbscript already) Next query the machines in turn for there IP, and MAC addresses.(Done this in a vbscript already) Next needs to shut those machines down(Done this in a vbscript already) and dump all the machine and NIC info to a txt file The other half of the script grabs the info for the machines out of the text file and sends them a magic packet to wake them up. The shutdown section i have already written a VBscript for, but decided it wasn't future prrof, and i was learninc C# at home, so figured it was the best option to start over with. Im not looking for anyone to write this for me, but if anyone had any pointers on where to go for information etc. . . It would be more than appreciated :)

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• How to unit test this simple ASP.NET MVC controller

  - by Frank Schwieterman

  Lets say I have a simple controller for ASP.NET MVC I want to test. I want to test that a controller action (Foo, in this case) simply returns a link to another action (Bar, in this case). How would you test this? (either the first or second link) My implementation has the same link twice. One passes the url throw ViewData[]. This seems more testable to me, as I can check the ViewData collection returned from Foo(). Even this way though, I don't know how to validate the url itself without making dependencies on routing. The controller: public class TestController : Controller { public ActionResult Foo() { ViewData["Link2"] = Url.Action("Bar"); return View("Foo"); } public ActionResult Bar() { return View("Bar"); } } the "Foo" view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master"%> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <%= Html.ActionLink("link 1", "Bar") %> <a href="<%= ViewData["Link2"]%>">link 2</a> </asp:Content>

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• How is it that json serialization is so much faster than yaml serialization in python?

  - by guidoism

  I have code that relies heavily on yaml for cross-language serialization and while working on speeding some stuff up I noticed that yaml was insanely slow compared to other serialization methods (e.g., pickle, json). So what really blows my mind is that json is so much faster that yaml when the output is nearly identical. >>> import yaml, cjson; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}} >>> yaml.dump(d, Dumper=yaml.SafeDumper) 'foo: {bar: 1}\n' >>> cjson.encode(d) '{"foo": {"bar": 1}}' >>> import yaml, cjson; >>> timeit("yaml.dump(d, Dumper=yaml.SafeDumper)", setup="import yaml; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}}", number=10000) 44.506911039352417 >>> timeit("yaml.dump(d, Dumper=yaml.CSafeDumper)", setup="import yaml; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}}", number=10000) 16.852826118469238 >>> timeit("cjson.encode(d)", setup="import cjson; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}}", number=10000) 0.073784112930297852 PyYaml's CSafeDumper and cjson are both written in C so it's not like this is a C vs Python speed issue. I've even added some random data to it to see if cjson is doing any caching, but it's still way faster than PyYaml. I realize that yaml is a superset of json, but how could the yaml serializer be 2 orders of magnitude slower with such simple input?

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