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  • Django inlineformset validation and delete

    - by Andrew Gee
    Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

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  • Can not call web service with basic authentication using WCF

    - by RexM
    I've been given a web service written in Java that I'm not able to make any changes to. It requires the user authenticate with basic authentication to access any of the methods. The suggested way to interact with this service in .NET is by using Visual Studio 2005 with WSE 3.0 installed. This is an issue, since the project is already using Visual Studio 2008 (targeting .NET 2.0). I could do it in VS2005, however I do not want to tie the project to VS2005 or do it by creating an assembly in VS2005 and including that in the VS2008 solution (which basically ties the project to 2005 anyway for any future changes to the assembly). I think that either of these options would make things complicated for new developers by forcing them to install WSE 3.0 and keep the project from being able to use 2008 and features in .NET 3.5 in the future... ie, I truly believe using WCF is the way to go. I've been looking into using WCF for this, however I'm unsure how to get the WCF service to understand that it needs to send the authentication headers along with each request. I'm getting 401 errors when I attempt to do anything with the web service. This is what my code looks like: WebHttpBinding webBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); ChannelFactory<MyService> factory = new ChannelFactory<MyService>(webBinding, new EndpointAddress( "http://127.0.0.1:80/Service/Service/")); factory.Endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); factory.Credentials.UserName.UserName = "username"; factory.Credentials.UserName.Password = "password"; MyService proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); proxy.postSubmission(_postSubmission); This will run and throw the following exception: "The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm=realm'." And this has an inner exception of: "The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized." Any thoughts about what might be causing this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Why my Google endpoint is always the same?

    - by joetsuihk
    always: https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud i got wordpress openid ok. so i think is is just discovery phase got some probelms.. <?php $ch = curl_init(); $url = 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id'; $url = $url.'?'; $url = $url.'openid.mode=checkid_setup'; $url = $url.'&openid.ns=http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0'; $url = $url.'&openid.claimed_id=http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select'; $url = $url.'&openid.identity=http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select'; $url = $url.'&openid.return_to='.site_url().'/user/openid/login_callback'; $url = $url.'&openid.realm=http://www.example.com/'; // set url curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); //return the transfer as a string curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER,array("Accept: */*")); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); // $output contains the output string $xdr = curl_exec($ch); if (!$xdr) { die(curl_error($ch)); } // close curl resource to free up system resources curl_close($ch); $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($xdr); $url = $xml->XRD->Service->URI; $request = $connection->begin($url); $request always null...

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  • Unable to run WCAT against DotNetNuke with NTLM authentication

    - by David Neale
    I have a ubr file setup to stress test an internal DotNetNuke site with WCAT: transaction { id = "Intranet Home Page"; weight = 1000; cookies{clear = true;} sleep{delay = rand("1","500");} request { url = "/"; statuscode = 401; } request { url = "/"; authentication = ntlm; username = "mydomain\\accountname"; password = "password"; statuscode = 200; } close{ method = reset;} } When running this (wcat.wsf -run -clients localhost -s myserver -t test.ubr -f settings.ubr -x) I simply get lots of error 500s: 2010-03-08 10:29:31 192.168.11.239 GET / - 80 - 192.168.52.139 - 401 2 2148074254 2010-03-08 10:29:31 192.168.11.239 GET / - 80 - 192.168.52.139 - 401 1 0 2010-03-08 10:29:31 192.168.11.239 GET /Default.aspx - 80 mydomain\myaccount 192.168.52.139 - 500 0 0 DNN is reporting these errors as: AssemblyVersion: 5.2.3 PortalID: 0 PortalName: My Company UserID: -1 UserName: ActiveTabID: 39 ActiveTabName: Home RawURL: /Default.aspx AbsoluteURL: /Default.aspx AbsoluteURLReferrer: UserAgent: DefaultDataProvider: DotNetNuke.Data.SqlDataProvider, DotNetNuke.SqlDataProvider ExceptionGUID: 28d8821f-1ef2-41db-8a65-d33e97a69130 InnerException: *Unhandled Error:* FileName: FileLineNumber: 0 FileColumnNumber: 0 Method: DotNetNuke.Authentication.ActiveDirectory.HttpModules.AuthenticationModule.OnAuthenticateRequest StackTrace: Message: System.Exception: Unhandled Error: --- System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at DotNetNuke.Authentication.ActiveDirectory.HttpModules.AuthenticationModule.OnAuthenticateRequest(Object s, EventArgs e) at System.Web.HttpApplication.SyncEventExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Source: Server Name: MYSERVER It seems to be losing the username somehow.

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  • php: how to return an HTTP 500 code on any error, no matter what

    - by Jake
    Hi guys. I'm writing an authentication script in PHP, to be called as an API, that needs to return 200 only in the case that it approves the request, and 403 (Forbidden) or 500 otherwise. The problem I'm running into is that php returns 200 in the case of error conditions, outputting the error as html instead. How can I make absolutely sure that php will return an HTTP 500 code unless I explicitly return the HTTP 200 or HTTP 403 myself? In other words, I want to turn any and all warning or error conditions into 500s, no exceptions, so that the default case is rejecting the authentication request, and the exception is approving it with a 200 code. I've fiddled with set_error_handler() and error_reporting(), but so far no luck. For example, if the code outputs something before I send the HTTP response code, PHP naturally reports that you can't modify header information after outputting anything. However, this is reported by PHP as a 200 response code with html explaining the problem. I need even this kind of thing to be turned into a 500 code. Is this possible in PHP? Or do I need to do this at a higher level like using mod_rewrite somehow? If that's the case, any idea how I'd set that up? Thanks for any help. Jake

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  • Cookies not present after using XMLHttpRequest

    - by Joe B
    I'm trying to make a bookmarklet to download videos off of YouTube, but I've come across a little problem. To detect the highest quality video available, I use a sort of brute force method, in which I make requests using the XMLHttpRequest object until a 404 isn't returned (I can't do it until a 200 ok is returned because YouTube redirects to a different server if the video is available, and the cross-domain policy won't allow me to access any of that data). Once a working URL is found, I simply set window.location to the URL and the download should start, right? Wrong. A request is made, but for reasons unknown to me, the cookies are stripped and YouTube returns a 403 access denied. This does not happen if the XML requests aren't made before it, i.e. if I just set the window.location to the URL everything works fine, it's when I do the XMLHttpRequest that the cookies aren't sent. It's hard to explain so here's the script: var formats = ["37", "22", "35", "34", "18", ""]; var url = "/get_video?video_id=" + yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['video_id'] + "&t=" + (unescape(yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['t'])) + "&fmt="; for (var i = 0; i < formats.length; i++) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest; xmlhttp.open("HEAD", url + formats[i], false); xmlhttp.send(null); if (xmlhttp.status != 404) { document.location = url + formats[i]; break } } That script does not send the cookies after setting the document.location and thus does not work. However, simply doing this: document.location = /get_video?video_id=" + yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['video_id'] + "&t=" + (unescape(yt.getConfig('SWF_ARGS')['t'])) DOES send the cookies along with the request, and does work. The only downside is I can't automatically detect the highest quality, I just have to try every "fmt" parameter manually until I get it right. So my question is: why is the XMLHttpRequest object removing cookies from subsequent requests? This is the first time I've ever done anything in JS by the way, so please, go easy on me. ;)

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  • ASP.NET trace level

    - by axk
    This question is related to my another question. With trace enabled I can get the following(not quite verbose) trace of a page request: [2488] aspx.page: Begin PreInit [2488] aspx.page: End PreInit [2488] aspx.page: Begin Init [2488] aspx.page: End Init [2488] aspx.page: Begin InitComplete [2488] aspx.page: End InitComplete [2488] aspx.page: Begin PreLoad [2488] aspx.page: End PreLoad [2488] aspx.page: Begin Load [2488] aspx.page: End Load [2488] aspx.page: Begin LoadComplete [2488] aspx.page: End LoadComplete [2488] aspx.page: Begin PreRender [2488] aspx.page: End PreRender [2488] aspx.page: Begin PreRenderComplete [2488] aspx.page: End PreRenderComplete [2488] aspx.page: Begin SaveState [2488] aspx.page: End SaveState [2488] aspx.page: Begin SaveStateComplete [2488] aspx.page: End SaveStateComplete [2488] aspx.page: Begin Render [2488] aspx.page: End Render Reflector shows that System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain method which I suppose does the main part of request processing has more conditional trace messges. For example: if (context.TraceIsEnabled) { this.Trace.Write("aspx.page", "Begin PreInit"); } if (EtwTrace.IsTraceEnabled(5, 4)) { EtwTrace.Trace(EtwTraceType.ETW_TYPE_PAGE_PRE_INIT_ENTER, this._context.WorkerRequest); } this.PerformPreInit(); if (EtwTrace.IsTraceEnabled(5, 4)) { EtwTrace.Trace(EtwTraceType.ETW_TYPE_PAGE_PRE_INIT_LEAVE, this._context.WorkerRequest); } if (context.TraceIsEnabled) { this.Trace.Write("aspx.page", "End PreInit"); } if (context.TraceIsEnabled) { this.Trace.Write("aspx.page", "Begin Init"); } if (EtwTrace.IsTraceEnabled(5, 4)) { EtwTrace.Trace(EtwTraceType.ETW_TYPE_PAGE_INIT_ENTER, this._context.WorkerRequest); } this.InitRecursive(null); So there are these EwtTrace.Trace messages which I don't see I the trace. Going deeper with Reflector shows that EtwTrace.IsTraceEnabled is checking if the appropriate tracelevel set: internal static bool IsTraceEnabled(int level, int flag) { return ((level < _traceLevel) && ((flag & _traceFlags) != 0)); } So the question is how do I control these _traceLevel and _traceFlags and where should these trace messages ( EtwTrace.Trace ) go? The code I'm looking at is of .net framework 2.0 @Edit: I guess I should start with ETW Tracing MSDN entry.

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  • SSL certificates: No Client certificate key exhange

    - by user334246
    I am trying to access a WCF web service, that is using two way SSL encryption. When I try to call the service I get a System.ServiceModel.Security.SecurityNegotiationException: Could not establish secure channel for SSL/TLS with authority 'XXX.xx'. --- System.Net.WebException: The request was aborted: Could not create SSL/TLS secure channel. I have tried activating wire shark, to see what is sent to and from the server: I see a client hello and a server hello. But there is no client response to the server hello. I was expecting a "Certificate. Client key exchange. Change cipher. Encrypted handshake Message" package, but none is sent. I'm thinking it is a problem with the certificate sent by the server, that somehow my client server does not trusy it. Here is what I have already tried: I have created the certificate, through the proper authority, though I could have made a mistake in the certificate request without knowing it. I have added the two root certificates to: trusted root certificates, trusted publishers and trusted people. I have also added the client certificate to trusted people. My colleague has succeded in establishing connection on a win 2008 server (i'm using a 2003, because it is necessary for some odd reason - don't ask). I can't see any differences in our approach, so i'm a bit lost. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Calling methods or functions with Jquery

    - by Ross
    So I can call a php page using jquery $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "refresh_news_image.php", data: "name=" + name, success: function(html) { alert(html) $('div.imageHolder').html(html); } }); However this getting a bit messy, I have a few .php files that only really preform very simple tasks. If I want to call a method $images-refresh_image(); is this possible. Failing that I could just create a big file with lots of functions in it? Thanks, Ross

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  • What is the best way to route a static controller in Rails?

    - by yuval
    I have a static_controller that is in charge of all the static pages in the site and works as follows in routes.rb: map.connect ':id', :controller => 'static', :action => 'show' I have a static page called about that among other information, has a contact form. I currently have a contacts_controller that is in charge of inserting the contact information to the database. Inside my routes.rb file, I have: map.resources :contacts My contact form (simplified) looks like this: <% form_for @contact do |f| %> <p class="errors"><%= f.error_messages %></p> <p> <%= f.label :first_name %> <%= f.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p class="buttons"><%= f.submit %></p> <% end %> Which in turn submits to the create action of my contacts_controller. My create action looks like this: def create @contact = Contact.new(params[:contact]) if @contact.save flash[:notice] = "Email delivered successfully." end redirect_to "about" end The problem is, is the that when I redirect back to my about page the error_messages for the form get lost (since the error_messages for the form only exist for one request, and that request ends upon redirect). How would I go about preserving the error_messages and still linking the users back to the about static url? Would a session/flash be sufficient (if so, what code would I use to pass error messages) or am I going about this whole thing wrong? Thanks!

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  • Could CouchDB benefit significantly from the use of BERT instead of JSON?

    - by Victor Rodrigues
    I appreciate a lot CouchDB attempt to use universal web formats in everything it does: RESTFUL HTTP methods in every interaction, JSON objects, javascript code to customize database and documents. CouchDB seems to scale pretty well, but the individual cost to make a request usually makes 'relational' people afraid of. Many small business applications should deal with only one machine and that's all. In this case the scalability talk doesn't say too much, we need more performance per request, or people will not use it. BERT (Binary ERlang Term http://bert-rpc.org/ ) has proven to be a faster and lighter format than JSON and it is native for Erlang, the language in which CouchDB is written. Could we benefit from that, using BERT documents instead of JSON ones? I'm not saying just for retrieving in views, but for everything CouchDB does, including syncing. And, as a consequence of it, use Erlang functions instead of javascript ones. This would modify some original CouchDB principles, because today it is very web oriented. Considering I imagine few people would make their database API public and usually its data is accessed by the users through an application, it would be a good deal to have the ability to configure CouchDB for working faster. HTTP+JSON calls could still be handled by CouchDB, considering an extra cost in these cases because of parsing.

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  • Is there any way to test server side code using JSTestDriver?

    - by dhackner
    I'm new to JS unit testing and I like what I've read about JSTestDriver. The idea of have the suite run every time you save is pretty cool. JSTestDriver runs Javascript in a browser sandbox and PHP runs on the server. If the browser slaves can serve from an arbitrary server is there any reason that you couldn't test it via AJAX? It this a misuse/misunderstanding of what the framework is for? Any clarifications are appreciated.

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  • Getting error detail from WCF REST

    - by Keith
    I have a REST service consumed by a .Net WCF client. When an error is encountered the REST service returns an HTTP 400 Bad Request with the response body containing JSON serialised details. If I execute the request using Fiddler, Javascript or directly from C# I can easily access the response body when an error occurs. However, I'm using a WCF ChannelFactory with 6 quite complex interfaces. The exception thrown by this proxy is always a ProtocolException, with no useful details. Is there any way to get the response body when I get this error? Update I realise that there are a load of different ways to do this using .Net and that there are other ways to get the error response. They're useful to know but don't answer this question. The REST services we're using will change and when they do the complex interfaces get updated. Using the ChannelFactory with the new interfaces means that we'll get compile time (rather than run time) exceptions and make these a lot easier to maintain and update the code. Is there any way to get the response body for an error HTTP status when using WCF Channels?

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  • justin.tv jquery get some data

    - by Petter Thowsen
    I've been reading for hours on this json stuff and the justin.tv API documenation but still unable to get the number of viewers currently viewing my stream. Here's a json script I tried, nothing happens. var url = "http://api.justin.tv/api/stream/list.json"; $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: 'jsonp', data: { channel: "dreamvoid"}, success: function(data) { $('#result').text(JSON.stringify(data.stream_count)); }, jsonp: 'jsonp' });

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  • NSMutableArray to NSString and Passing NSString to Another View IOS5.1

    - by Space Dust
    I have an NSMutableArray of names. I want the pass the data (selected name) inside of NSMutableArray as text to another view's label. FriendsController.m: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; arrayOfNames=[[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; arrayOfIDs=[[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; userName=[[NSString alloc] init]; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { long long fbid = [[arrayOfIDs objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]longLongValue]; NSString *user=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%llu/picture",fbid]; [facebook requestWithGraphPath:user andDelegate:self]; userName=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[arrayOfNames objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; FriendDetail *profileDetailName = [[FriendDetail alloc] initWithNibName: @"FriendDetail" bundle: nil]; profileDetailName.nameString=userName; [profileDetailName release]; } - (void)request:(FBRequest *)request didLoad:(id)result { if ([result isKindOfClass:[NSData class]]) { transferImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData: result]; FriendDetail *profileDetailPicture = [[FriendDetail alloc] initWithNibName: @"FriendDetail" bundle: nil]; [profileDetailPicture view]; profileDetailPicture.profileImage.image= transferImage; profileDetailPicture.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:profileDetailPicture animated:YES]; [profileDetailPicture release]; } } In FriendDetail.h NSString nameString; IBOutlet UILabel *profileName; @property (nonatomic, retain) UILabel *profileName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *nameString; In FriendDetail.m - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; profileName.text=nameString; } nameString in second controller(FriendDetail) returns nil. When i set a breakpoint in firstcontroller I see the string inside of nameString is correct but after that it returns to nil somehow.

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  • Active Record Validations : uniqueness of

    - by Elliot
    Hey guys, I'm using http://ar.rubyonrails.org/classes/ActiveRecord/Validations/ClassMethods.html#M000086 to validate records. My form is currently a remote form, using RJS. My question, is how to I return the :message (for errors) to the page through ajax (and I assume the create.rjs file)? Best, Elliot

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  • Google App Engine application instance recycling and response times...

    - by Konrad
    Hi, I posted this on GAE for Java group, but I hope to get some answers here quicker :) I decided to do some long-run performance tests on my application. I created some small client hitting app every 5-30 minutes and I run 3-5 of threads with such client. I noticed huge differenced in response times and started to investigate issue. I found reason very quick. I am experiencing same issues as described in following topics: Uneven response time between connection to server to first byte sent Application instances seem to be too aggressively recycled Getting 'Request was aborted after waiting too long to attempt to service your request.' after application idle I am using Springframework, it tkes around 18-20s to start app instance, which is causing response times to take from 1s (when requests hits running app - very rare) to 22s when fresh application is created. Is there any solution for this? I was thinking about creating most basic servlet performing critical tasks (serving API call) and leave UI as is. But then I would loose all benefits of Springframework. Is there any solution for this? After solving (hacking) numerous constrains of App Engine which I hit while developing my app that is the one I think will make me move out of App Engine... that's simply to much to all the time think how to win with GAE problems than how to solve my application problems... Any help? Regards Konrad

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  • Django - provide additional information in template

    - by Ninefingers
    Hi all, I am building an app to learn Django and have started with a Contact system that currently stores Contacts and Addresses. C's are a many to many relationship with A's, but rather than use Django's models.ManyToManyField() I've created my own link-table providing additional information about the link, such as what the address type is to the that contact (home, work etc). What I'm trying to do is pass this information out to a view, so in my full view of a contact I can do this: def contact_view_full(request, contact_id): c = get_object_or_404(Contact, id=contact_id) a = [] links = ContactAddressLink.objects.filter(ContactID=c.id) for link in links: b = Address.objects.get(id=link.AddressID_id) a.append(b) return render_to_response('contact_full.html', {'contact_item': c, 'addresses' : a }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And so I can do the equivalent of c.Addresses.all() or however the ManyToManyField works. What I'm interested to know is how can I pass out information about the link in the link object with the 'addresses' : a information, so that when my template does this: {% for address in addresses %} <!-- ... --> {% endfor %} and properly associate the correct link object data with the address. So what's the best way to achieve this? I'm thinking a union of two objects might be an idea but I haven't enough experience with Django to know if that's considered the best way of doing it. Suggestions? Thanks in advance. Nf

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  • How to I get the value of a custom soap header in WCF

    - by Jason Coyne
    I have created a custom soap header, and added it into my message via IClientMessageInspector public object BeforeSendRequest(ref System.ServiceModel.Channels.Message request, System.ServiceModel.IClientChannel channel) { var header = new MessageHeader<AuthHeader>(); header.Content = new AuthHeader(Key); header.Actor = "Anyone"; var header2 = header.GetUntypedHeader("Auth", "xWow"); request.Headers.Add(header2); return null; } [DataContract(Name="Auth")] public class AuthHeader { public AuthHeader(string key) { this.Key = key; } [DataMember] public string Key { get; set; } } I also have an IDispatchMessageInspector, and I can find the correct header in the list. However, there is no value. I know that the value went across the wire correctly, because the message string is correct <s:Envelope xmlns:s=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\r\n <s:Header>\r\n <Auth s:actor=\"Anyone\" xmlns=\"xWow\" xmlns:i=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\">\r\n <Key xmlns=\"http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/xWow.Lib\">HERE IS MY KEY VALUE!!!!</Key>\r\n </Auth>\r\n <To s:mustUnderstand=\"1\" xmlns=\"http://schemas.microsoft.com/ws/2005/05/addressing/none\">http://localhost:26443/AuthService.svc</To>\r\n <Action s:mustUnderstand=\"1\" xmlns=\"http://schemas.microsoft.com/ws/2005/05/addressing/none\">http://tempuri.org/IAuthService/GetPayload</Action>\r\n </s:Header>\r\n <s:Body>\r\n <GetPayload xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\" />\r\n </s:Body>\r\n</s:Envelope>" But there does not seem to be any property to retrieve this value. The MessageHeaderInfo class has Actor, etc, but nothing else useful I can find. On the client side I had to convert between Header and Untyped header, is there an equivalent operation on the server?

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  • How to deploy on a remote machine using hudson's WAS Builder Plugin?

    - by Peter Schuetze
    I have a hudson build server (Windows) that does not have Websphere installed. I created a Hudson node that I connect to via SSH. I also installed the WAS Builder Plugin to run jython scripts on the AIX machine. The job that uses the WAS Builder Plugin is tied to the AIX box. I run into errors. Does anybody know, whether that setup might work or if a different setup will work for the WAS Builder Plugin? EDIT: I get following Error Message: [test] $ cmd /c call /tmp/hudson9035964108103168395.bat FATAL: command execution failed java.io.IOException: cmd: not found at java.lang.UNIXProcess.fullPath(UNIXProcess.java:372) at java.lang.UNIXProcess.<init>(UNIXProcess.java:178) at java.lang.ProcessImpl.start(ProcessImpl.java:114) at java.lang.ProcessBuilder.start(ProcessBuilder.java:466) at hudson.Proc$LocalProc.<init>(Proc.java:149) at hudson.Proc$LocalProc.<init>(Proc.java:121) at hudson.Launcher$LocalLauncher.launch(Launcher.java:633) at hudson.Launcher$ProcStarter.start(Launcher.java:268) at hudson.Launcher$RemoteLaunchCallable.call(Launcher.java:778) at hudson.Launcher$RemoteLaunchCallable.call(Launcher.java:754) at hudson.remoting.UserRequest.perform(UserRequest.java:114) at hudson.remoting.UserRequest.perform(UserRequest.java:48) at hudson.remoting.Request$2.run(Request.java:270) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$RunnableAdapter.call(Executors.java:432) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:284) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:138) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:665) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:690) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:810) Finished: FAILURE I am wondering whether that plugin can be executed on a slave, especially in my case where the master is on Windows and the slave on AIX.

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  • Flash Security Error Accessing URL with crossdomain.xml

    - by user163757
    Hello, I recently deployed a Flash application to a server, and am now experiencing errors when making HTTPService requests. I have put what I believe to be the most permissive crossdomain.xml possible in the wwwroot folder, and still get the errors. Interestingly enough, the error only seems to occur when the request is made from a direct user interaction (i.e. button click). The application makes other requests that are initiated by other means(i.e creationComplete) , and they seem to work as expected. Anyone see anything wrong with the crossdomain.xml, or have any other suggestions? ERROR MESSAGE [RPC Fault faultString="Security error accessing url" faultCode="Channel.Security.Error" faultDetail="Destination: DefaultHTTP"] at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal%3A%3AfaultHandler() at mx.rpc::Responder/fault() at mx.rpc::AsyncRequest/fault() at DirectHTTPMessageResponder/securityErrorHandler() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at flash.net::URLLoader/redirectEvent() <!DOCTYPE cross-domain-policy SYSTEM "http://www.macromedia.com/xml/dtds/cross-domain-policy.dtd"> <cross-domain-policy> <site-control permitted-cross-domain-policies="all" /> <allow-access-from domain="*" secure="false" /> <allow-http-request-headers-from domain="*" headers="*" secure="false" /> </cross-domain-policy>

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  • Unmanaged DLL in C# Web Service

    - by Telis
    Hi Guys, please help µe as I am new into accessing an unmanaged DLL from C#.. I have a large unmanaged DLL in C++ and I am trying to access the DLL's classes and functions from a C# Web Service. I have seen many examples how to use DLLImport, but for some reason I am stuck with my very first wrapper method spending many hours with no luck.. What should I do to return an object in my 'Marshaled' [DllImport..] function? I would like to do something like that: [DllImport("unmanaged.dll")] public static extern MyClass MyFunction(); Here is the definition of my C++ class and the function that I want to access: class __declspec(dllexport) TPDate { public: TPDate(); TPDate(const TPDate& rhs); ... //today's date. static TPDate AsOfDate(void); ... } In my Web service I have declared the following StructLayout: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public class TPDate { public TPDate(TPDate d) { _tpDate = d; } public TPDate _tpDate; } and here's where I think that I'm not doing something right: class WrapperTPDate { [DllImport("TPTools.dll", ExactSpelling=false, EntryPoint = "?AsOfDate@TPDate@@SA?AV1@XZ", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Struct)] **public static extern TPDate AsOfDate();**// HERE THERE IS PROBLEM }; I am calling the wrapper as follows from my WebMethod: [WebMethod] public void ConstructModel() { TPDate date1 = WrapperTPDate.AsOfDate();// Here I get exception TPDate date = new TPDate(date1); } The exception i am getting is: System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server was unable to process request. ---> System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalDirectiveException: Cannot marshal 'return value': Invalid managed/unmanaged type combination (this type must be paired with LPStruct or Interface). If I change it to LPSTRUCT, I am getting another exception: System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server was unable to process request. ---> System.AccessViolationException: Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt Could you please tell me where I'm doing wrong here Thanks

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  • Spring MVC and Weblogic integration

    - by Jeune
    I get this error whenever I try to view my tutorial app in the browser WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/HelloWorld.Web] in DispatcherServlet with name 'dispatcher' That just means the request is being received by the dispatcher servlet but it can't forward it to a controller. But I can't seem to know where the problem is. I think I've mapped this correctly: <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/HelloWorld.Web">indexController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="indexController" class="com.helloworld.controller.IndexController"> <property name="artistDao" ref="artistDao"/> <property name="methodNameResolver"> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.multiaction.PropertiesMethodNameResolver"> <property name="alwaysUseFullPath" value="true"/> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/HelloWorld.Web">getAllArtists</prop> </props> </property> </bean> </property> </bean> I am using Spring 2.5.6 and Bea Weblogic Server 9.2

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  • Why can't I send SOAP requests to Ebay finding API with this php?

    - by Jay
    This is my code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); //new instance of soapClient pointing to Ebay finding api $client = new SoapClient("http://developer.ebay.com/webservices/finding/latest/FindingService.wsdl"); //attach required parameters to soap message header $header_arr = array(); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-MESSAGE-PROTOCOL", "SOAP11"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-SERVICE-NAME", "FindingService"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-OPERATION-NAME", "findItemsByKeywords"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-SERVICE-VERSION", "1.0.0"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-GLOBAL-ID", "EBAY-GB"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-SECURITY-APPNAME", "REMOVED"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-REQUEST-DATA-FORMAT", "XML"); $header_arr[] = new SoapHeader("X-EBAY-SOA-MESSAGE-PROTOCOL", "XML"); $test = $client->__setSoapHeaders($header_arr); $client->__setLocation("http://svcs.ebay.com/services/search/FindingService/v1");//endpoint $FindItemsByKeywordsRequest = array( "keywords" => "potter" ); $result = $client->__soapCall("findItemsByKeywords", $FindItemsByKeywordsRequest); //print_r($client->__getFunctions()); //print_r($client->__getTypes()); //print_r($result); ? And this is the error I receive: Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [axis2ns2:Server] Missing SOA operation name header in C:\xampplite\htdocs\OOP\newfile.php:25 Stack trace: #0 C:\xampplite\htdocs\OOP\newfile.php(25): SoapClient-__soapCall('findItemsByKeyw...', Array) #1 {main} thrown in C:\xampplite\htdocs\OOP\newfile.php on line 25 It doesnt make sense, I have already set the operation name in the header of the request... Does anyone know what is wrong here?

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  • PHP doesn't properly URL-decode POST values, or is the bug somewhere else?

    - by Vilx-
    I have a PHP website that integrates with PayPal. As part of it's normal operation it sends a POST request to a user defined URL about every transaction (and some other events). It's called IPN for those who know. All was/is working just fine, until we moved to a new hosting provider last week. This naturally resulted in downtime, changing DNS entries, PHP misconfigurations, etc. In short - PayPal was unable to send the notifications for a few days. Now, this is not that bad, because there is an option just for that - you can log into PayPal, go to the appropriate menu item, and have it resend the failed notifications. Which we did, and it resulted in over 400 error emails. The problem is that normally the email of the receiver ($_POST['business']) is received by PHP as [email protected], but when resending it comes out as my%40business.com. And the request validation goes crazy. Obviously either something somewhere is missing a call to urldecode() or something is doing one too many urlencode(). But who? Is this a bug in PHP? I've never had such a problem before, not with any POST data ever. Perhaps PayPal has a bug? Wouldn't be surprising, but then this should have been caught ages ago. Or perhaps I'm doing something wrong and I should really be calling the urldecode() myself?

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