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• My project is no longer used - how should I feel?

  - by flybywire

  For the last two years I have been developing and supporting an important project for a big customer. The project included mining data from the customer's existing systems, processing, and displaying and updating in the customer's public home page. The project was defined as crucial by the customer and I was payed good money and flown at the customer's expense to meet key employees. Some months ago, when the project was finished and in maintainance mode, I informed the customer that I am no longer interested in doing it as I had a new opportunity that would not be compatible with my existing customer. I was payed to train one of their employees, flown to meet him, make sure everything works and that he can be safely left in charge of the project. We finished in good terms after I complied with all my obligations and they payed me all they owed me. Some days ago, just out of curiosity, I entered to their website to see how the data continues to be updated and much to my dismay I discovered that the day after my contract was finished my system was "turned off" and it ceased to feed data to the public website. Let's put it clear, there is no issue of money or broken contract here. They are in they full right to do whatever they want with my software. But it is an issue of broken "programmer's ego". Should I feel bad about it (I do). Should I care and check out with my customer if they need some help? Or is it none of my matters?

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• Debug website on host from virtual machine

  - by Luchaguate

  I have a Windows 7 machine hosting a Windows 7 virtual machine. I am developing a web application using visual studio 2010 on my host machine. I want to run the application in debug mode and access my localhost server from a browser on the virtual machine. (The purpose of this is to be able to debug an application that uses Windows Authentication using different users without having to log off and on for different users on my host machine...) I am using a bridged connection for the virtual machine. I googled how to solve this problem and most of the threads that I found said that if I was using a bridged connection, I could access the server on the host machine by just entering the IP address of my host machine into the url in the browser of the virtual machine. I have tried some different urls using the IP but none of them have worked. As an example, suppose I run my web application in visual studio on my host machine and its url is http://localhost:62789/MyPage.aspx Assume also that I ran ipconfig in CommandPrompt on my host machine and found out that the IP address for my host machine is xxx.xxx.xxx.x. What url should I enter on the virtual machine to access my web application? Thanks in advance.

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• Database source control with Oracle

  - by borjab

  I have been looking during hours for a way to check in a database into source control. My first idea was a program for calculating database diffs and ask all the developers to imlement their changes as new diff scripts. Now, I find that if I can dump a database into a file I cound check it in and use it as just antother type of file. The main conditions are: Works for Oracle 9R2 Human readable so we can use diff to see the diferences. (.dmp files doesn't seem readable) All tables in a batch. We have more than 200 tables. It stores BOTH STRUCTURE AND DATA It supports CLOB and RAW Types. It stores Procedures, Packages and its bodies, functions, tables, views, indexes, contraints, Secuences and synonims. It can be turned into an executable script to rebuild the database into a clean machine. Not limitated to really small databases (Supports least 200.000 rows) It is not easy. I have downloaded a lot of demos that does fail in one way or another. EDIT: I wouldn't mind alternatives aproaches provided that they allows us to check a working system against our release DATABASE STRUCTURE AND OBJECTS + DATA in a bath mode. By the way. Our project has been developed for years. Some aproaches can be easily implemented when you make a fresh start but seem hard at this point. EDIT: To understand better the problem let's say that some users can sometimes do changes to the config data in the production eviroment. Or developers might create a new field or alter a view without notice in the realease branch. I need to be aware of this changes or it will be complicated to merge the changes into production.

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• Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

  - by Monte

  Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

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• asp.net gridview bind dateformat not working with update

  - by Brabbeldas

  I have a GridView with a TemplateField column which shows a DateTime from a DataSource. <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Start Date"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDateStart" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'</asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Displaying the date in the correct format works as it should. Note that the format starts with DAY followed by MONTH. When I switch to edit mode, change the date in the TextBox to '31-01-2013' and press the GridView's update-link i get an error: Cannot convert value of parameter 'dtDateStart' from 'System.String' to 'System.DateTime' The error is generated by the GridView not my own code. It happens before the UpdateMethod of my DataSource is called. When i type '01-31-2012' the data is processed correctly and the value is updated into the database. Somehow when the date is displayed it uses format dd-MM-yyyy (just as I need it to) But when it reads the new value form the TextBox it uses MM-dd-yyyy Can somebody please help me?

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• C++, Ifstream opens local file but not file on HTTP Server

  - by fammi

  Hi, I am using ifstream to open a file and then read from it. My program works fine when i give location of the local file on my system. for eg /root/Desktop/abc.xxx works fine But once the location is on the http server the file fails to open. for eg http://192.168.0.10/abc.xxx fails to open. Is there any alternate for ifstream when using a URL address? thanks. part of the code where having problem: bool readTillEof = (endIndex == -1) ? true : false; // Open the file in binary mode and seek to the end to determine file size ifstream file ( fileName.c_str ( ), ios::in|ios::ate|ios::binary ); if ( file.is_open ( ) ) { long size = (long) file.tellg ( ); long numBytesRead; if ( readTillEof ) { numBytesRead = size - startIndex; } else { numBytesRead = endIndex - startIndex + 1; } // Allocate a new buffer ptr to read in the file data BufferSptr buf (new Buffer ( numBytesRead ) ); mpStreamingClientEngine->SetResponseBuffer ( nextRequest, buf ); // Seek to the start index of the byte range // and read the data file.seekg ( startIndex, ios::beg ); file.read ( (char *)buf->GetData(), numBytesRead ); // Pass on the data to the SCE // and signal completion of request mpStreamingClientEngine->HandleDataReceived( nextRequest, numBytesRead); mpStreamingClientEngine->MarkRequestCompleted( nextRequest ); // Close the file file.close ( ); } else { // Report error to the Streaming Client Engine // as unable to open file AHS_ERROR ( ConnectionManager, " Error while opening file \"%s\"\n", fileName.c_str ( ) ); mpStreamingClientEngine->HandleRequestFailed( nextRequest, CONNECTION_FAILED ); } }

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• Sharepoint Active directory forms authentication

  - by Sushant

  Hi, I am devloping a sharepoint website in Forms authentication mode. I am trying to authenticate myself/ my company users against company's active directory. The ldap path I received from my technical team is LDAP://infinmumcfac.inf.com OU=Infotech,DC=inf,DC=com I got this piece of code from microsoft site. <membership defaultProvider="LdapMembershipProvider"> <providers> <add name="LdapMembership" type="Microsoft.Office.Server.Security.LDAPMembershipProvider, Microsoft.Office.Server, Version=12.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71E9BCE111E9429C" server="DC" port="389" useSSL="false" userDNAttribute="distinguishedName" userNameAttribute="sAMAccountName" userContainer="CN=Users,DC=userName,DC=local" userObjectClass="person" userFilter="(|(ObjectCategory=group)(ObjectClass=person))" scope="Subtree" otherRequiredUserAttributes="sn,givenname,cn" /> </providers> </membership> The site asked me to change the Server and Usercontainer attribute. I have modified the code to <membership defaultProvider="LdapMembershipProvider"> <providers> <add name="LdapMembership" type="Microsoft.Office.Server.Security.LDAPMembershipProvider, Microsoft.Office.Server, Version=12.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71E9BCE111E9429C" server=” infinmumcfac.inf.com” port="389" useSSL="false" userDNAttribute="distinguishedName" userNameAttribute="sAMAccountName" userContainer=" OU=Infotech,DC=inf,DC=com " userObjectClass="person" userFilter="(|(ObjectCategory=group)(ObjectClass=person))" scope="Subtree" otherRequiredUserAttributes="sn,givenname,cn" /> </providers> </membership> I placed this code in web.config file of central administration site and my sharepoint website . I am still facing login issues. Any help or insight would be highly grateful.Thanking in anticipation.

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• Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

  - by WraithNath

  I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

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• Executing a process in windows server 2003 and ii6 from code - permissions error

  - by kurupt_89

  I have a problem executing a process from our testing server. On my localhost using windows XP and iis5.1 I changed the machine.config file to have the line - I then changed the login for iis to log on as local system account and allow server to interact with desktop. This fixed my problem executing a process from code in xp. When using the same method on windows server 2003 (using iis6 isolation mode) the process does not get executed. Here is the code to execute the process (I have tested the inputs to iecapt through the command line and an image is generated) - public static void GenerateImageToDisk(string ieCaptPath, string url, string path, int delay) { url = FixUrl(url); ieCaptPath = FixPath(ieCaptPath); string arguments = @"--url=""{0}"" --out=""{1}"" --min-width=0 --delay={2}"; arguments = string.Format(arguments, url, path, delay); ProcessStartInfo ieCaptProcessStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(ieCaptPath + "IECapt.exe"); ieCaptProcessStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.Arguments = arguments; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WorkingDirectory = ieCaptPath; Process ieCaptProcess = Process.Start(ieCaptProcessStartInfo); ieCaptProcess.WaitForExit(600000); ieCaptProcess.Close(); }

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• std::stringstream GCC Abnormal Behavior

  - by FlorianZ

  I have a very interesting problem with compiling a short little program on a Mac (GCC 4.2). The function below would only stream chars or strings into the stringstream, but not anything else (int, double, float, etc.) In fact, the fail flag is set if I attempt to convert for example an int into a string. However, removing the preprocessor flag: _GLIBCXX_DEBUG=1, which is set by default in XCode for the debug mode, will yield the desired results / correct behavior. Here is the simple function I am talking about. value is template variable of type T. Tested for int, double, float (not working), char and strings (working). template < typename T > const std::string Attribute<T>::getValueAsString() const { std::ostringstream stringValue; stringValue << value; return stringValue.str(); } Any ideas what I am doing wrong, why this doesn't work, or what the preprocessor flag does to make this not work anymore? Thanks!

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• In Firefox, how to bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript f

  - by brahn

  I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body> Background: I am re-asking this question specifically for Google Chrome, as I think I my code solves the problem at least for other modern browsers and IE8. If there is a preferred etiquette for doing so, please let me know.

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• Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

  - by Raghu Dodda

  There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• HTTP post using php and curl failing

  - by user2916484

  I am trying to send an XML file to an external system. I am using the below code for doing so, which I got over the internet. But I observed that when i put an echo on the xml variable, it does not show me the XML as a string, but it is parsing the xml and showing me the values. Same is happening when I am sending this to external system. Which is failing. Can you please tell me a way, in which the XML is not parsed and I can send the entire XML text as a string to external system? My code is below. <?php $xml = '<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding="UTF-8" ?><shiporder><orderID>1234</orderID> <orderperson>John Smith</orderperson></shiporder>'; $xml2 = ''; $headers = array( "Content-type: text/xml", "Content-length: " . strlen($xml), "Connection: close", ); // give the path of the Third party site $url = "http://<server>:<port>/XMII/Illuminator?service=WSMessageListener&mode=WSMessageListenerServer&NAME=shiporder&IllumLoginName=<name>&IllumLoginPassword=<pswd>"; echo $xml; echo $url; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_MUTE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch); ?> Regards, Gita

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• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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• AIX specific socket programming query

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, Question 1 From SUSE man pages, I get the below details for socket connect options If the initiating socket is connection-mode, then connect() shall attempt to establish a connection to the address specified by the address argument. If the connection cannot be established immediately and O_NONBLOCK is not set for the file descriptor for the socket, connect() shall block for up to an unspecified timeout interval until the connection is established. If the timeout interval expires before the connection is established, connect() shall fail and the connection attempt shall be aborted. If connect() is interrupted by a signal that is caught while blocked waiting to establish a connection, connect() shall fail and set errno to [EINTR], but the connection request shall not be aborted, and the connection shall be established asynchronously. Question : Is the above contents valid for AIX OS (especially the connection time-out, timed wait ...etc)?Because I do not see it in AIX man pages (5.1 and 5.3) Question 2 I have a client socket whose attributes are a. SO_RCVTIMEO ,SO_SNDTIMEO are set for 5 seconds. b. AF_INET and SOCK_STREAM. c. SO_LINGER with linger on and time is 5 seconds. d. SO_REUSEADDR is set. Note that the client socket is not O_NONBLOCK. Question : Now since O_NONBLOCK is not set and SO_RCVTIMEO and SO_SNDTIMEO is set for 5 seconds, does it mean a. connect in NON Blocking or Blocking? b. If blocking, is it timed blocking or "infinite" time blocking? c. If it is infinite, How do I establish a "connect" system call which is O_BLOCKING with timeout to t secs. Sorry if the questions are be very naive. Thanks in advance for your input.

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• WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

  - by Mark

  I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

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• Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

  - by Sotirios Delimanolis

  I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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• How combine TabBar + Navigation with XCode

  - by mamcx

  I'm triying to combine a TabBar + Navigation app. I have 5 tab bars, 4 are listing of stuff and drill down to details views. I try to follow this tutorial: http://www.iphonedevforums.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/124-view-controller-problem.html But always get a blank view. This is what I do, with a clean project: I start with a TabBar template app. I put 5 tab bar buttons. I create a controller like: @interface FirstViewController : UINavigationController { } I put the main window.xib on tree mode & change the selected first view to FirstViewController I select the TabBar Controller in Interface builder, go to TabBar Attributes & change the class to navigation controler. Select the fist view & put the nib name "SecondView" In response, I get a blank screen. I must add that I wanna navigate from the details views, no from the main windows. i.e in the main window tab bar 1 is the list of people. I select a person then wanna navigate to the detail window.

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• WinRT 8.1 Phone - ListView reordering

  - by Jan Kratochvil

  I need to create a reorderable ListView in a Windows Phone 8.1 app created using WinRT. The XAML is the following (it binds to an ObservableDictionary in the codebehind): <Grid Margin="24"> <ListView x:Name="MainListView" CanDragItems="True" CanReorderItems="True" AllowDrop="True" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" > <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border Padding="24" Margin="16" Background="CadetBlue"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" /> </Border> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> </Grid> The ListView does nothing when I try to reorder the items (it looks like the "reordering mode" is not activated). When I run this sample in Windows 8.1 (the XAML is shared) it works as expected. According to the documentation Windows Phone 8.1 should be supported. Is this functionality supported on the phone (and the documentation wrong) or do I need to do something special for the phone?

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• Problem consuming a dataset via a .NET web service from Flex-ActionScript

  - by DEH

  Hi, I am returning a .NET dataset to Flex Actionscript via a web service. Actionscript snippet as follows: var websvc:WebService = new WebService(); websvc.useProxy=false; websvc.wsdl = "http://localhost:13229/test/mysvc.asmx?WSDL"; websvc.loadWSDL(); var operation:Operation = new Operation(null, "GetData"); operation.arguments.command="xx_gethierdata_"+mode+"_"+identifier; operation.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, onResultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, onFaultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.resultFormat="object"; websvc.operations = [operation]; operation.send(); Once in the onResultHandler function I have access to the datatable - I then want to grab the column names. The following code outputs my column names: for each (var tcolumn:Object in datatable.Columns){trace('Column:'+tcolumn);} This works ok, but the column names are encoded, so a column name that is actually "1-9" is output as "_x005B_1-9_x005D_" Anyone know the best way to decode the column name? I could replace all the encoding strings, but surely there is a better way? Thanks

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• Display Consistent Value of an Item using MVVM and WPF

  - by Blake Blackwell

  In my list view control (or any other WPF control that will fit the situation), I would like to have one TextBlock that stays consistent for all items while another TextBlock that changes based on the value in the ObservableCollection. Here is how my code is currently laid out: XAML <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock x:Name="StrVal" Text="{Binding StrVal}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ConstVal" Text="{Binding MyVM.ConstVal}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> Model public class MyItem { public string StrVal { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyVM { public MyVM() { ObservableCollection<MyItem> myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); for (int i = 0 ; i < 10; i++) myItems.Add(new MyItem { StrVal = i.ToString()}); MyItems = myItems; ConstVal = "1"; } public string ConstVal { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get; set; } } Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyVM(); The StrVal property repeats correctly in the ListView, but the ConstVal TextBlock does not show the ConstVal that is contained in the VM. I would guess that this is because the ItemsSource of the ListView is MyItems and I can't reference other variables outside of what is contained in the MyItems. My question is: How do I get ConstVal to show the value in the ViewModel for all listviewitems that will be controlled by the Observable Collection of MyItems.

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• Does tableViewController behave incorrectly when hosted by a popoverController?

  - by dugla

  I have made countless test examples of a tableViewController hosted by a popoverController and I have come to the following conclusion: It does not appear possible to pre-select a tableView cell. It is possible to do pre-selection when a tableViewController is hosted by a splitviewController. I am using the exact same tableViewController code. Here is the relevant tableViewController view lifecycle method that is misbehaving: static BOOL firstTime = YES; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Root ViewController - view Did Appear"); [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if (firstTime == YES) { firstTime = NO; NSIndexPath *preselectedCell = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:5 inSection:0]; [self.tableView selectRowAtIndexPath:preselectedCell animated:NO scrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionTop]; detailViewController.detailItem = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Row %d", preselectedCell.row]; } // if (firstTime == YES) } The above code correctly preselects a tableView cell the first time the tableView is unfurled in the splitViewController case (device in portrait mode). Can someone please, please, explain what I am doing wrong. I am completely stumped. Thanks, Doug

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• IE6: Height "1em minus 1px"

  - by chris_l

  I need a div with a height of exactly 1em minus 1px. This can be achieved in most browsers like this: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <style type="text/css"> .helper { /* background-color: black; */ position: absolute; top: 5em; left: 5em; width: 2em; height: 1em; } .target { background-color: #89f; position: absolute; top: 0; bottom: 1px; width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="helper"> <div class="target"></div> </div> </body> </html> The "target" div has the desired height. The problem is, that this doesn't work in IE6, because it ignores the bottom attribute, when top is set (a well known problem). Is there a workaround for IE6 (maybe with multiple nested divs, with borders/paddings/margins/whatever), or will JavaScript be the only solution? Please note, that I can't use Quirks Mode.

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• C++ MFC server app with sockets crashes and I cannot find the fault, help!

  - by usermeister

  My program has one dialog and two sockets. Both sockets are derived from CAsyncSocket, one is for listening, other is for receiving data from client. My program crashes when client tries to connect to server application and server needs to initialize receiving socket. This is my MFC dialog class. class CFileTransferServerDlg : public CDialog { ... ListeningSocket ListenSock; ReceivingSocket* RecvSock; void OnAccept(); // called when ListenSock gets connection attempt ... }; This is my derived socket class for receiving data that calls parent dialogs method when event is signaled. class ReceivingSocket : public CAsyncSocket { CFileTransferServerDlg* m_pDlg; // for accessing parent dialogs controls virtual void OnReceive(int nErrorCode); } ReceivingSocket::ReceivingSocket() { } This is dialogs function that handles incoming connection attempt when listening socket gets event notification. This is where the crash happens. void CFileTransferServerDlg::OnAccept() { RecvSock = new ReceivingSocket; /* CRASH */ } OR void CFileTransferServerDlg::OnAccept() { ReceivingSocket* tmpSock = new ReceivingSocket; tmpSock->SetParentDlg(this); CString message; if( ListenSock.Accept(*tmpSock) ) /* CRASH */ { message.LoadStringW(IDS_CLIENT_CONNECTED); m_txtStatus.SetWindowTextW(message); RecvSock = tmpSock; } } My program crashes when I try to create a socket for receiving file sent from client application. OnAccept starts when Listening socket signals incoming connection attempt, but my application then crashes. I've tried running it on another computer and connection attempt was succesful. What could be wrong? Error in debug mode: Unhandled exception at 0x009c30e1 in FileTransferServer.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xccccce58.

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