Search Results

Search found 11897 results on 476 pages for 'dean rather'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 442/476 | < Previous Page | 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449  | Next Page >

  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

    - by contactmatt
    The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

    - by AndrewO
    I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

    Read the article

  • How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

    - by Schnapple
    One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

    Read the article

  • Alternative to Page_Load in ASP.NET (and a good WTF story)

    - by Jason
    Woo, I have a doozy of a problem (might even be one for the Daily WTF) and I'm hoping there's a solution. (My apologies for the long post...) I have been working on a website that I inherited about a month ago. One of the parts I have been working on is fixing one of the controls (essentially a dynamic header bar) so that it displays additional information as requested by my users. As part of doing this project, I created a Site.master file so that I wouldn't have to recode the header bar into every single page. When I first started doing this, it seemingly worked very well. All the pages I had developed looked great and the bar updated as it should displaying the information as it should. Well, when I dropped the Site.master (and this control) into older site pages (ones I did not specifically develop) I noticed that it looked bad on some of them, but not all of them. When I say it looked bad, basically, the control would left-align itself to the page rather than center as it should. I spent a couple hours debugging to no avail - CSS looked correct, the HTML appeared to be okay, I didn't see anything in the Javascript (although, I did miss something as I'll point out in a second), and even the old code looked correct (to the best that it could - it's not very well written). Another coworker took a look at the site and couldn't find anything at first, either. It wasn't until I just thought to look at the rendered source code of the page (I had been working in the developer view up to this point in IE8) that it became clear what was wrong. The original developer performs searches on many of the pages. To accomplish this, he queries the database for ALL the data and then loads them into Javascript arrays within the page so he can get access to them. This in itself is a huge problem because we're talking about thousands of items, and it obviously isn't scalable (and, yes, the site is slow). However, it finally clicked what was screwing up the Site.master - when he loads the data into the Javascript arrays, he writes out the data to the HTML upon Page_Load using numerous Response.Write(string) calls. The WTF (and what was messing me up) is that he inserts the Javascript before the DOCTYPE causing IE to go into quirks mode! So, because I need to at least get this release out (I'll fix the real problem later), I was wondering: is there a way I can force this Javascript to be inserted elsewhere into the HTML—after the DOCTYPE at the very least? Right now, all the Response.Write() calls are being done in the Page_Load method. I just need them to be inserted later.

    Read the article

  • Return only the new database items since last check in Rails

    - by Smith
    I'm fairly new to Ruby, and currently trying to implement an AJAX style commenting system. When the user views a topic, all the current comments on that topic will be displayed. The user can post a comment on the page of a topic and it should automatically display without having to refresh the page, along with any new comments that have been posted since the last comment currently displayed to the user. The comments should also automatically refresh at a specified frequency. I currently have the following code: views/idea/view.html.erb <%= periodically_call_remote(:update => "div_chat", :frequency => 1, :position => "top", :url => {:controller => "comment", :action => :test_view, :idea_id => @idea.id } ) %> <div id="div_chat"> </div> views/comment/test_view.html.erb <% @comments.each do |c| %><div id="comment"> <%= c.comment %> </div> <% end %> controllers/comment_controller.rb class CommentController < ApplicationController before_filter :start_defs def add_comment @comment = Comment.new params[:comment] if @comment.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully commented." else flash[:notice] = "UnSuccessfully commented." end end def test_render @comments = Comment.find_all_by_idea_id(params[:idea_id], :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ["created_at > ?", @latest_time] ) @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at DESC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end def start_defs @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at ASC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end end The problem is that every time periodically_call_remote makes a call, it returns the entire list of comments for that topic. From what I can tell, the @latest_time gets constantly reset to the earliest created_at, rather than staying updated to the latest created_at after the comments have been retrieved. I'm also not sure how I should directly refresh the comments when a comment is posted. Is it possible to force a call to periodically_call_remote on a successful save?

    Read the article

  • C# Property Access vs Interface Implementation

    - by ehdv
    I'm writing a class to represent a Pivot Collection, the root object recognized by Pivot. A Collection has several attributes, a list of facet categories (each represented by a FacetCategory object) and a list of items (each represented by a PivotItem object). Therefore, an extremely simplified Collection reads: public class Collection { private List<FacetCategory> categories; private List<PivotItem> items; // other attributes } What I'm unsure of is how to properly grant access to those two lists. Because declaration order of both facet categories and items is visible to the user, I can't use sets, but the class also shouldn't allow duplicate categories or items. Furthermore, I'd like to make the Collection object as easy to use as possible. So my choices are: Have Collection implement IList<PivotItem> and have accessor methods for FacetCategory: In this case, one would add an item to Collection foo by writing foo.Add(bar). This works, but since a Collection is equally both kinds of list making it only pass as a list for one type (category or item) seems like a subpar solution. Create nested wrapper classes for List (CategoryList and ItemList). This has the advantage of making a consistent interface but the downside is that these properties would no longer be able to serve as lists (because I need to override the non-virtual Add method I have to implement IList rather than subclass List. Implicit casting wouldn't work because that would return the Add method to its normal behavior. Also, for reasons I can't figure out, IList is missing an AddRange method... public class Collection { private class CategoryList: IList<FacetCategory> { // ... } private readonly CategoryList categories = new CategoryList(); private readonly ItemList items = new ItemList(); public CategoryList FacetCategories { get { return categories; } set { categories.Clear(); categories.AddRange(value); } } public ItemList Items { get { return items; } set { items.Clear(); items.AddRange(value); } } } Finally, the third option is to combine options one and two, so that Collection implements IList<PivotItem> and has a property FacetCategories. Question: Which of these three is most appropriate, and why?

    Read the article

  • using '.each' method: how do I get the indexes of multiple ordered lists to each begin at [0]?

    - by shecky
    I've got multiple divs, each with an ordered list (various lengths). I'm using jquery to add a class to each list item according to its index (for the purpose of columnizing portions of each list). What I have so far ... <script type="text/javascript"> /* Objective: columnize list items from a single ul or ol in a pre-determined number of columns 1. get the index of each list item 2. assign column class according to li's index */ $(document).ready(function() { $('ol li').each(function(index){ // assign class according to li's index ... index = li number -1: 1-6 = 0-5; 7-12 = 6-11, etc. if ( index <= 5 ) { $(this).addClass('column-1'); } if ( index > 5 && index < 12 ) { $(this).addClass('column-2'); } if ( index > 11 ) { $(this).addClass('column-3'); } // add another class to the first list item in each column $('ol li').filter(function(index) { return index != 0 && index % 6 == 0; }).addClass('reset'); }); // closes li .each func }); // closes doc.ready.func </script> ... succeeds if there's only one list; when there are additional lists, the last column class ('column-3') is added to all remaining list items on the page. In other words, the script is presently indexing continuously through all subsequent lists/list items, rather than being re-set to [0] for each ordered list. Can someone please show me the proper method/syntax to correct/amend this, so that the script addresses/indexes each ordered list anew? many thanks in advance. shecky p.s. the markup is pretty straight-up: <div class="tertiary"> <h1>header</h1> <ol> <li><a href="#" title="a link">a link</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="a link">a link</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="a link">a link</a></li> </ol> </div><!-- END div class="tertiary" -->

    Read the article

  • Write PEM encoded certificate in file - java

    - by user1349407
    Good day. I recently create X.509 certificate by using bouncy castle API. I need to save the certificate result rather than display the result. I tried to use FileOutputStream, but it does not work. regards the result is like follows -----BEGIN CERTIFICATE----- MIICeTCCAeKgAwIBAgIGATs8OWsXMA0GCSqGSIb3DQEBCwUAMBsxGTAXBgNVBAMT... -----END CERTIFICATE----- The code is belows import java.io.FileOutputStream; //example of a basic CA public class PKCS10CertCreateExample { public static X509Certificate[] buildChain() throws Exception { //create the certification request KeyPair pair = chapter7.Utils.generateRSAKeyPair(); PKCS10CertificationRequest request = PKCS10ExtensionExample.generateRequest(pair); //create a root certificate KeyPair rootPair=chapter7.Utils.generateRSAKeyPair(); X509Certificate rootCert = X509V1CreateExample.generateV1Certificate (rootPair); //validate the certification request if(!request.verify("BC")) { System.out.println("request failed to verify!"); System.exit(1); } //create the certificate using the information in the request X509V3CertificateGenerator certGen = new X509V3CertificateGenerator(); certGen.setSerialNumber(BigInteger.valueOf(System.currentTimeMillis())); certGen.setIssuerDN(rootCert.getSubjectX500Principal()); certGen.setNotBefore(new Date(System.currentTimeMillis())); certGen.setNotAfter(new Date(System.currentTimeMillis()+50000)); certGen.setSubjectDN(request.getCertificationRequestInfo().getSubject()); certGen.setPublicKey(request.getPublicKey("BC")); certGen.setSignatureAlgorithm("SHA256WithRSAEncryption"); certGen.addExtension(X509Extensions.AuthorityKeyIdentifier, false, new AuthorityKeyIdentifierStructure(rootCert)); certGen.addExtension(X509Extensions.SubjectKeyIdentifier, false, new SubjectKeyIdentifierStructure(request.getPublicKey("BC"))); certGen.addExtension(X509Extensions.BasicConstraints, true, new BasicConstraints(false)); //certGen.addExtension(X509Extensions.KeyUsage, true, new BasicConstraints(false)); certGen.addExtension(X509Extensions.KeyUsage, true, new KeyUsage(KeyUsage.digitalSignature | KeyUsage.keyEncipherment)); certGen.addExtension(X509Extensions.ExtendedKeyUsage, true, new ExtendedKeyUsage(KeyPurposeId.id_kp_serverAuth)); //extract the extension request attribute ASN1Set attributes = request.getCertificationRequestInfo().getAttributes(); for(int i=0;i!=attributes.size();i++) { Attribute attr = Attribute.getInstance(attributes.getObjectAt(i)); //process extension request if(attr.getAttrType().equals(PKCSObjectIdentifiers.pkcs_9_at_extensionRequest)) { X509Extensions extensions = X509Extensions.getInstance(attr.getAttrValues().getObjectAt(0)); Enumeration<?> e = extensions.oids(); while(e.hasMoreElements()) { DERObjectIdentifier oid = (DERObjectIdentifier)e.nextElement(); X509Extension ext = extensions.getExtension(oid); certGen.addExtension(oid, ext.isCritical(), ext.getValue().getOctets()); } } } X509Certificate issuedCert = certGen.generateX509Certificate(rootPair.getPrivate()); return new X509Certificate[]{issuedCert, rootCert}; } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { X509Certificate[] chain = buildChain(); PEMWriter pemWrt = new PEMWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(System.out)); pemWrt.writeObject(chain[0]); //pemWrt.writeObject(chain[1]); pemWrt.close(); //write it out //FileOutputStream fOut = new FileOutputStream("pkcs10req.req"); //fOut.write(chain[0].toString()); //fOut.write() //System.out.println(chain[0].toString()); //fOut.close(); } }

    Read the article

  • using CSS to center FLOATED input elements wrapped in a DIV

    - by Tim
    There's no shortage of questions and answers about centering but I've not been able to get it to work given my specific circumstances, which involve floating. I want to center a container DIV that contains three floated input elements (split-button, text, checkbox), so that when my page is resized wider, they go from this: ||.....[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label .....|| to this ||......................[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label.......................|| They float fine, but when the page is made wider, they stay to the left: ||.....[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label .......................................|| If I remove the float so that the input elements are stacked rather than side-by-side: [ ][v] [ ] [ ] label then they DO center correctly when the page is resized. SO it is the float being applied to the elements of the DIV#hbox inside the container that is messing up the centering. Is what I want to do impossible because of the way float is designed to work? Here is my DOCTYPE, and the markup does validate at w3c: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> Here is my markup: <div id="term1-container"> <div class="hbox"> <div> <button id="operator1" class="operator-split-button">equals</button> <button id="operator1drop">show all operators</button> </div> <div><input type="text" id="term1"></input></div> <div><input type="checkbox" id="meta2"></input><label for="meta2" class="tinylabel">meta</label></div> </div> </div> And here's the (not-working) CSS: #term1-container {text-align: center} .hbox {margin: 0 auto;} .hbox div {float:left; } I have also tried applying display: inline-block to the floated button, text-input, and checkbox; and even though I think it applies only to text, I've also tried applying white-space: nowrap to the #term1-container DIV, based on posts I've seen here on SO. And just to be a little more complete, here's the jQuery that creates the split-button: $(".operator-split-button").button().click( function() { alert( "foo" ); }).next().button( { text: false, icons: { primary: "ui-icon-triangle-1-s" } }).click( function(){positionOperatorsMenu();} ) })

    Read the article

  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

    Read the article

  • iPhone Image Resources, ICO vs PNG, app bundle filesize

    - by Jasarien
    My application has a collection of around 1940 icons that are used throughout. They're currently in ICO and new images provided to me come in ICO format too. I have noticed that they contain a 16x16 and 32x32 representation of each icon in one file. Each file is roughly 4KB in filesize (as reported by finder, but ls reports that they vary from being ~1000 bytes to 5000 bytes) A very small number of these icons only contain the 32x32 representation, and as a result are only around 700 bytes in size. Currently I am bundling these icons with my application and they are inflating the size of the app a bit more than I would like. Altogether, the images total just about 25.5MB. Xcode must do some kind of compression because the resulting app bundle is about 12.4MB. Compressing this further into a ZIP (as it would be when submitted to the App Store), results in a final file of 5.8MB. I'm aware that the maximum limit for over the air App Store downloads has been raised to 20MB since the introduction of the iPad (I'm not sure if that extends to iPhone apps as well as iPad apps though, if not the limit would be 10MB). My worry is that new icons are going to be added (sometimes up to 10 icons per week), and will continue to inflate the app bundle over time. What is the best way to distribute these icons with my app? Things I've tried and not had much success with: Converting the icons from ICO to PNG: I tried this in the hopes that the pngcrush utility would help out with the filesize. But it appears that it doesn't make much of a difference between a normal PNG and a crushed png (I believe it just optimises the image for display on the iPhone's GPU rather than compress it's size). Also in going from ICO to PNG actually increased the size of the icon file... Zipping the images, and then uncompressing them on first run. While this did reduce the overall image sizes, I found that the effort needed to unzip them, copy them to the documents folder and ensure that duplication doesn't happen on upgrades was too much hassle to be worth the benefit. Also, on original and 3G iPhones unzipping and copying around 25MB of images takes too long and creates a bad experience... Things I've considered but not yet tried: Instead of distributing the icons within the app bundle, host them online, and download each icon on demand (it depends on the user's data as to which icons will actually be displayed and when). Issues with this is that bandwidth costs money, and image downloads will be bandwidth intensive. However, my app currently has a small userbase of around 5,500 users (of which I estimate around 1500 to be active based on Flurry stats), and I have a huge unused bandwidth allowance with my current hosting package. So I'm open to thoughts on how to solve this tricky issue.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

    Read the article

  • Floated DIVs not flowing properly

    - by NightMICU
    Hi everyone, I am working on a photo gallery, each thumbnail is in its own DIV and floated to the left in a containing DIV. It has been displaying properly up until vertical thumbnails entered the equation. Now, when the next row should start, the first item of the following row is to the left of the last vertical DIV (thumbnail), rather than flush to the left of the containing DIV. Here is the CSS: #galleryBox { width: 650px; background: #fff; margin: auto; padding: 10px; text-align: center; overflow: auto; } .item { display: block; margin: 10px; padding: 20px 5px 5px 5px; float: left; background: url('/images/content_bottom.png') repeat-x scroll bottom #828282; } and the HTML: <div id="galleryBox" class="ui-corner-all"> <div id="file" class="ui-corner-all"> <form name="uploadPhoto" id="uploadPhoto" method="post" action="" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <p><label for="photo">Photo:</label><input type="file" name="photo" id="photo"/></p> <p><label for="caption">Caption: <small>Optional</small></label><input type="text" id="caption" name="caption"/></p> <p align="center"><input type="submit" value="Upload" name="send" id="send" class="addButton ui-state-default ui-corner-all"/></p> </form> <a name="thumbs"></a> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <a href="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/201004211802.jpg" class="lightbox" title="test1"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/thumbs/201004211802_thumb.jpg" alt="test1"/></a><br/> <p><span class="label">test1</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <a href="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/201004211803.jpg" class="lightbox" title="test3"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/thumbs/201004211803_thumb.jpg" alt="test3"/></a><br/> <p><span class="label">test3</span></p> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • IE browser caching and the jQuery Form Plugin

    - by Harfleur
    Like so many lost souls before me, I'm floundering in the snake pit that is Ajax form submission and IE browser caching. I'm trying to write a simple script using the jQuery Form Plugin to Ajaxify Wordpress comments. It's working fine in Firefox, Chrome, Safari, et. al., but in IE, the response text is cached with the result that Ajax is pulling in the wrong comment. jQuery(this).ajaxSubmit({ success: function(data) { var response = $("<ol>"+data+"</ol>"); response.find('.commentlist li:last').hide().appendTo(jQuery('.commentlist')).slideDown('slow'); } }); ajaxSubmit sends the comment to wp-comments-post.php, which inelegantly spits back the entire page as a response. So, despite the fact that it's ugly as toads, I'm sticking the response text in a variable, using :last to isolate the most recent comment, and sliding it down in its place. IE, however, is returning the cached version of the page, which doesn't include the new comment. So ".commentlist li:last" selects the previous comment, a duplicate of which then uselessly slides down beneath the original. I've tried setting "cache: false" in the ajaxSubmit options, but it has no effect. I've tried setting a url option and tacking on a random number or timestamp, but it winds up being attached to the POST that submits the comment to the server rather than the GET that returns the response, and so has no effect. I'm not sure what else to try. Everything works fine in IE if I turn off browser caching, but that's obviously not something I can expect anyone viewing the page to do. Any help will be hugely appreciated. Thanks in advance! EDIT WITH A PROGRESS REPORT: A couple of people have suggested using PHP headers to prevent caching, and this does indeed work. The trouble is that wp-comments-post is spitting back the entire page when a new comment is submitted, and the only way I can see to add headers is to put them in the Wordpress post template, which disables caching on all posts at all times--not quite the behavior I'm looking for. Is there a way to set a php conditional--"if is_ajax" or something like that--that would keep the headers from being applied during regular pageloads, but plug them in if the page was called by an Ajax GET?

    Read the article

  • cflock do not throw timeout for same url called in same browser

    - by Pritesh Patel
    I am trying lock block on page test.cfm and below is code written on page. <cfscript> writeOutput("Before lock at #now()#"); lock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive" { writeOutput("<br/>started at #now()#"); thread action="sleep" duration="10000"; writeOutput("<br/>ended at #now()#"); } writeOutput("<br/>After lock at #now()#"); </cfscript> assuming my url for page is http://localhost.local/test.cfm and running it on browser in two different tabs. I was expecting one of the url will throw timeout error after 3 second since another url lock it atleast for 10 seconds due to thread sleep. Surprisingly I do not get any timeout error rather second page call run after 10 seconds as first call finish execution. But I am appending some url parameter (e.g. http://localhost.local/test.cfm?q=1) will throw error. Also I am calling same url in different browser then one of the call will throw timeout issue. Is lock based on session and url? Update Here is output for two different cases: Case 1: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:35'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:55'} Case 2: TAB1 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} started at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:18'} ended at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} After lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:28'} TAB2 Url: http://localhost.local/test/test.cfm? (Added ? at the end) Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:27:20'} A timeout occurred while attempting to lock threadlock. The error occurred in C:/inetpub/wwwroot/test/test.cfm: line 13 11 : 12 : <cfoutput>Before lock at #now()#</cfoutput> 13 : <cflock name="threadlock" timeout="3" type="exclusive"> 14 : <cfoutput><br/>started at #now()#</cfoutput> 15 : <cfthread action="sleep" duration="10000"/> ... Result for case 2 as expected. For case 1, strange thing I just noticed is tab 2 output "Before lock at {ts '2013-10-18 09:21:45'} indicates that whole request start after 10 seconds (means after the complete execution of first tab) when I have fired it in second URL just after 2 seconds of first tabs.

    Read the article

  • Need a fast programming language that can drive two printers

    - by Pete
    I have a rather unusual application that isn't working the way I need, and I hope someone here will have some suggestions or at least a direction to investigate. We have a museum exhibit that has a computer at the entrance driving two small receipt printers. There are two buttons on a console, wired to the left and right buttons of a disemboweled mouse. The two printers and associated buttons are for girls and boys, each button does a random selection from a database of names and prints a small ticket on the appropriate printer with a graphic image, a few words about the exhibit and the randomly chosen name. Conceptually all is well, but it hangs quite often. I got the project at the last minute, because the original designer got bogged down and couldn't deliver, so the exhibit's author asked me the day before opening, whether I could write something that would work. I did it in Word, since I am an experienced VBA programmer. Several other avenues I attempted first all lead to dead ends - one couldn't do graphics, another couldn't handle two printers, yet another couldn't change fonts and so on. The problem is that it simply isn't fast enough - Word can only drive one printer at a time and changing the active printer takes a long time. Not by office standards, where a second or two of delay before a printer starts working on your document is not an issue, but here I need more or less instant response. If kids press a button and nothing happens, they press it over and over until something does happen, resulting in maybe half a dozen commands being sent before the printer starts reacting. Sometimes it jams the program completely, since boys and girls will be pressing the two buttons simultaneously and Word locks up, and even when it doesn't jam, the printers then spit out a stream of tickets, making a mess. The kids start squabbling over which ticket is whose, pulling them out of the printers, snarling the paper tape, jamming the printer and generally making a mess of the whole affair, often necessitating the exhibit caretakers having to restart the computer and clear torn bits of paper out the printers. What I need is some sort of fast programming language that can drive two printers *-simultaneously-*, not the MSOffice claptrap of having to switch the active printer, that can react to both left and right mouse button click events, can print a small graphic image and can print in different font sizes and styles and. I don't need many, but it's not all in one typeface. Can anyone suggest what I might use for this? I don't even know if it's possible at all under Windows, whether the "single active printer" garbage is an Office artifact, or a Windows restriction. My little Commodore-64 twenty-five years ago had two printers attached to it and drove both simultaneously with no difficulties - it doesn't seem to me it should be such an impossible requirement today.

    Read the article

  • Implementing Skip List in C++

    - by trikker
    [SOLVED] So I decided to try and create a sorted doubly linked skip list... I'm pretty sure I have a good grasp of how it works. When you insert x the program searches the base list for the appropriate place to put x (since it is sorted), (conceptually) flips a coin, and if the "coin" lands on a then that element is added to the list above it(or a new list is created with element in it), linked to the element below it, and the coin is flipped again, etc. If the "coin" lands on b at anytime then the insertion is over. You must also have a -infinite stored in every list as the starting point so that it isn't possible to insert a value that is less than the starting point (meaning that it could never be found.) To search for x, you start at the "top-left" (highest list lowest value) and "move right" to the next element. If the value is less than x than you continue to the next element, etc. until you have "gone too far" and the value is greater than x. In this case you go back to the last element and move down a level, continuing this chain until you either find x or x is never found. To delete x you simply search x and delete it every time it comes up in the lists. For now, I'm simply going to make a skip list that stores numbers. I don't think there is anything in the STL that can assist me, so I will need to create a class List that holds an integer value and has member functions, search, delete, and insert. The problem I'm having is dealing with links. I'm pretty sure I could create a class to handle the "horizontal" links with a pointer to the previous element and the element in front, but I'm not sure how to deal with the "vertical" links (point to corresponding element in other list?) If any of my logic is flawed please tell me, but my main questions are: How to deal with vertical links and whether my link idea is correct Now that I read my class List idea I'm thinking that a List should hold a vector of integers rather than a single integer. In fact I'm pretty positive, but would just like some validation. I'm assuming the coin flip would simply call int function where rand()%2 returns a value of 0 or 1 and if it's 0 then a the value "levels up" and if it's 0 then the insert is over. Is this incorrect? How to store a value similar to -infinite? Edit: I've started writing some code and am considering how to handle the List constructor....I'm guessing that on its construction, the "-infinite" value should be stored in the vectorname[0] element and I can just call insert on it after its creation to put the x in the appropriate place.

    Read the article

  • Matching array elements to get an array element at another index

    - by bccarlso
    I have a PHP array that I'm using to generate an HTML form. The PHP array is this: <?php $vdb = array ( array( "Alabama", 275), array( "Alaska", 197), array( "Arizona", 3322)); ?> The PHP to generate the HTML form is below. I need to have the value be the name of the state, because there is some AJAX I'm using to display which states a user has chosen. <?php echo "<table border='1'><thead><tr><th></th><th>State</th><th>Contacts</th><th>Email</th></tr></thead>"; for ($row = 0; $row < 42; $row++) { echo "<tr><td class='input_button'><input type='checkbox' name='vdb[]' value='".$vdb[$row][0]."' title='".$vdb[$row][1]."' /></td>"; echo "<td>".$vdb[$row][0]."</td>"; echo "<td>".$vdb[$row][1]."</td>"; } echo "</table>"; ?> What I'm trying to do is, on submission of the form, with the states the user selected, loop through the PHP array and total the numbers from the selected states. So if I checked Alabama and Alaska, I'd want to add 275 + 197. This is what I thought would have worked, but it's not: <?php $vendors = array(); if (isset($_POST["vdb"])) { $vendors = $_POST["vdb"]; } $ven_i = 0; $ven_j = 0; $ven_total = 0; foreach ($vendors as $value) { foreach ($vdb as $vdb_value) { if ($vendors[$ven_i] == $vdb[$ven_j][0]) { $ven_total += $vdb[$ven_j][1]; } $ven_j++; } $ven_i++; } ?> and then $ven_total should be the total I'm looking for. However, $ven_total just ends up being the first checkbox selected, and it ignores the rest. I am doing this correctly with the AJAX, displaying the total on the front end, but I don't know how to pass that on to the form submission. I'd rather not using GET and URL variables, because a user could type something into the URL and modify the count. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, or a better way to approach this that I would be able to understand? (Very much a novice programmer.)

    Read the article

  • How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

    - by Gonan
    I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

    Read the article

  • Approach for authentication and storing user details.

    - by cappuccino
    Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

    Read the article

  • Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449  | Next Page >