Search Results

Search found 15376 results on 616 pages for 'once'.

Page 445/616 | < Previous Page | 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452  | Next Page >

• Caching a column in a polymorphic relationship

  - by Brendon Muir

  I have content management system application that uses a polymorphic tree table as the core of its arrangement. I've come into a problem where once the tree grows quite large, and because we have quite a few different modules (about 25), just doing :include = :instance doesn't cut the mustard. Instance is the name of our polymorphic relationship. The funny part is that in most cases when I want a large list of these items, all I really want is their name from the associated table (for the purposes of an index bar for example), all the rest is in the central table. So I thought that I should probably implement some sort of column cache for the name in the central table. (Like a counter cache that rails already does). I was just wondering if a plugin exists to manage this already? If not, I was just going to add a 'name' column to the central table and because all the polymorphic models inherit off a superclass, just add a callback that pushes the name across to the central table whenever the item is created or updated. I'd then just do a big migration to populate it in the first place? Any flaws to that design? I suppose to be more flexible the column could be some kind of serialised cache where I could store other things later on if need be? Gah! :D

  Read the article

• Animate UserControl in WPF?

  - by sanjeev40084

  I have two xaml file one is MainWindow.xaml and other is userControl EditTaskView.xaml. In MainWindow.xaml it consists of listbox and when double clicked any item of listbox, it displays other window (edit window) from EditView userControl. I am trying to animate this userControl everytime whenever any item from the listbox is double clicked. I added some animation in userControl however the animation only gets run once. How can i make my animation run everytime whenever any item from the listbox is clicked? <ListBox x:Name="lstBxTask" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxItems}" MouseDoubleClick="lstBxTask_MouseDoubleClick"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <Rectangle Style="{StaticResource LineBetweenListBox}"/> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Taskname}" Style="{StaticResource TextInListBox}"/> <Button Name="btnDelete" Style="{StaticResource DeleteButton}" Click="btnDelete_Click"/> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> <ToDoTask:EditTaskView x:Name="EditTask" Grid.Row="1" Grid.RowSpan="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Visibility="Collapsed"/> In the MainWindow code, there is mouse double click event, which changes the visibility of EditTaskView to Visible. Suggestions?

  Read the article

• Changing App.config at Runtime

  - by born to hula

  I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

  Read the article

• Linux Kernel - Red/Black Trees

  - by CodeRanger

  I'm trying to implement a red/black tree in Linux per task_struct using code from linux/rbtree.h. I can get a red/black tree inserting properly in a standalone space in the kernel such as a module but when I try to get the same code to function with the rb_root declared in either task_struct or task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT everytime I try an insert. Here's some code: In task_struct I create a rb_root struct for my tree (not a pointer). In init_task.h, macro INIT_TASK(tsk), I set this equal to RB_ROOT. To do an insert, I use this code: rb_insert(&(current-fd_tree), &rbnode); This is where the issue occurs. My insert command is the standard insert that is documented in all RBTree documentation for the kernel: int my_insert(struct rb_root *root, struct mytype *data) { struct rb_node **new = &(root->rb_node), *parent = NULL; /* Figure out where to put new node */ while (*new) { struct mytype *this = container_of(*new, struct mytype, node); int result = strcmp(data->keystring, this->keystring); parent = *new; if (result < 0) new = &((*new)->rb_left); else if (result > 0) new = &((*new)->rb_right); else return FALSE; } /* Add new node and rebalance tree. */ rb_link_node(&data->node, parent, new); rb_insert_color(&data->node, root); return TRUE; } Is there something I'm missing? Some reason this would work fine if I made a tree root outside of task_struct? If I make rb_root inside of a module this insert works fine. But once I put the actual tree root in the task_struct or even in the task_struct-files_struct, I get a SEGFAULT. Can a root node not be added in these structs? Any tips are greatly appreciated. I've tried nearly everything I can think of.

  Read the article

• ropemacs USAGE tutorial

  - by Headcrab

  There are many sites with instructions on installing ropemacs, but so far I couldn't find any with instructions on how to use it after it's already installed. I have it installed, or at least it seems so, Emacs has "Rope" menu in it's top menu bar. Now what? So far I could use only "Show documentation" (C-c d by default). An attempt to use code assist (which is auto-complete, I presume?) only causes Emacs to ask about "Rope project root folder" (what's that?) in the minibuffer and then showing nothing. So, once ropemacs is installed, what are the steps to see it in action on some simple python scripts? Something like "if you have this script in your emacs and put the blinking square here and press this, it does that" would be an answer. (I've been thinking if I should ask this or not for some time, because nobody else seem to have the same problem, so I thought asking this question will make me look somewhat retarded. But, after all, it's usually better to ask it and and look like a retard than not to ask it and do like a retard...)

  Read the article

• What Is The Proper Location For One-Offs In VCS Repos?

  - by Joe Clark

  I have recently started using Mercurial as our VCS. Over the years, I have used RCS, CVS, and - for the last 5 years - SVN. Back 13 years ago, when I primarily used CVS and RCS, large projects went into CVS and one-offs were edited in place on the specific server and stored in RCS. This worked well as the one-offs were usually specific to the server and the servers were backed up nightly. Jump forward a decade and a lot of the one-off scripts became less centralized - they might be needed on any server at some random time. This was also OK, because now I was a begrudging SVN user. Everything (except for docs) got dumped into one repo. Jump to 2010. Now I am using Mercurial and am putting large projects in their own repo again. But what to do with the one-offs? The options as I see them: A repo for each script. It seems a bit cluttered to create a repo for every one page script that might get ran once a year. RCS Not an option. There are many possible servers that might need a specific script. Continuing to use SVN just for one-offs. No. There no advantage I see over the next option. Create a repo in Mercurial named "one-offs". This seems the most workable. The last option seems the best to me - however; is there a best practice regarding this? You also might be wondering if these scripts are truly one-offs if they will be reused. Some of them may be reused 6 months or a year from now - some, never. However, nearly all of them involve several man-hours of work due to either complex logic or extensive error checking. Simply discarding them is not efficient.

  Read the article

• Multiple undo managers for a text view

  - by Rui Pacheco

  Hi, I've a text view that gets its content from an attributed string stored in a model object. I list several of these model objects in a drawer and when the user clicks on one the text view swaps its content. I now need to also swap the undo manager for the text view. I initialise an undo manager on my model object and use undoManagerForTextView to return it to the text view, but something's not quite right. Strategically placed logging statements show me that everything's working as planned: on startup a new model object is initialised correctly and a non-null undo manager is always pulled by the text view. But when it comes to actually doing undo, I just can't get the behaviour I want. I open a window, type something and press cmd+z, and undo works. I open a window, type something, select a new model on the table, type something, go back to the first model and try to undo and all I get is a beep. Something on the documentation made me raise an eyebrow, as it would mean that I can't have undo with several model objects: The default undo and redo behavior applies to text fields and text in cells as long as the field or cell is the first responder (that is, the focus of keyboard actions). Once the insertion point leaves the field or cell, prior operations cannot be undone.

  Read the article

• How do I properly handle rotation of a UIScrollView containing UIImageViews?

  - by bpapa

  I'm developing an image viewer, much like the Photos App. It's a UIScrollView with paging enabled with images loaded from the internet, so I've adapted portions of the LazyTableImages sample. The Scroll View and each ImageView inside of it have all of their autoresize mask flags set. When I first observed how resizes were happening during rotation, it looked good, but once I started trying to interact with the scroll view, I realized that I also had to programmatically change the size of the contentView. I did that by implementing didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation: in my view controller. [self.scrollView setContentSize:CGSizeMake(numberOfImages * portraitWidth, [scrollView bounds].size.height)]; With interaction behaving properly, I then discovered that, if I was viewing the second photo and rotated, portions of both the 1st and 2nd photos would be shown on the screen. I needed to change the contentOffset as well. I've tried to fix this two ways - both by using the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method of UIScrollView, as well as trying to set the contentOffset property directly. And I've experimented by putting this code in implementations of both the "one-step" and "two-step" responses to changes in Orientation. For example: -(void)didAnimateFirstHalfOfRotationToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation { [self.scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(currentlyViewedPhotoIndex * largeImageHeight,0) animated:YES]; In all cases though, it just looks janky as hell. Either I clearly see the scroll happen, or it just jumps. Uuuuuuuuuuugly! Is there a way to do this so that it behaves exactly like the Photos app does?

  Read the article

• storing and retrieving socket

  - by Trevor Newhook

  From what I can understand, once I create a socket, I can then create an array to store it with userArray[socket.nickname]=socket; I can then send a message to it with: io.sockets.socket(userArray[data.to]).emit('private message', tstamp(), socket.nickname, message); The basic logic is to store a copy of each socket in an object, identified by nickname. When I want to send a message to that socket, I use the copy of the socket, and send the message via io.sockets.socket(id).emit(). The entire server code is below: io.sockets.on('connection', function (socket) { socket.on('user message', function (msg) { socket.broadcast.emit('user message', tstamp(), socket.nickname, msg); updateLog('user message', socket.nickname, msg); }); socket.on('private message', function(data) { socket.get(data.nickname, function (err, name) { console.log('Chat message by ', name); }); updateLog('private message', socket.nickname, data.message); message=data.message; io.sockets.socket(userArray[data.to]).emit('private message', tstamp(), socket.nickname, message); }); socket.on('get log', function () { updateLog(); // Ensure old entries are cleared out before sending it. io.sockets.emit('chat log', log); }); socket.on('nickname', function (nick, fn) { var i = 1; var orignick = nick; while (nicknames[nick]) { nick = orignick+i; i++; } fn(nick); nicknames[nick] = socket.nickname = nick; userArray[socket.nickname]=socket; socket.set('nickname', nick, function () { socket.emit('ready'); }); socket.broadcast.emit('announcement', nick + ' connected'); // io.sockets.socket(userArray[nick]).emit('newID', 'Your name is: ' + nick, '. Your ID is: '+ userArray[nick]); io.sockets.emit('nicknames', nicknames); });

  Read the article

• codingBat separateThousands using regex (and unit testing how-to)

  - by polygenelubricants

  This question is a combination of regex practice and unit testing practice. Regex part I authored this problem separateThousands for personal practice: Given a number as a string, introduce commas to separate thousands. The number may contain an optional minus sign, and an optional decimal part. There will not be any superfluous leading zeroes. Here's my solution: String separateThousands(String s) { return s.replaceAll( String.format("(?:%s)|(?:%s)", "(?<=\\G\\d{3})(?=\\d)", "(?<=^-?\\d{1,3})(?=(?:\\d{3})+(?!\\d))" ), "," ); } The way it works is that it classifies two types of commas, the first, and the rest. In the above regex, the rest subpattern actually appears before the first. A match will always be zero-length, which will be replaceAll with ",". The rest basically looks behind to see if there was a match followed by 3 digits, and looks ahead to see if there's a digit. It's some sort of a chain reaction mechanism triggered by the previous match. The first basically looks behind for ^ anchor, followed by an optional minus sign, and between 1 to 3 digits. The rest of the string from that point must match triplets of digits, followed by a nondigit (which could either be $ or \.). My question for this part is: Can this regex be simplified? Can it be optimized further? Ordering rest before first is deliberate, since first is only needed once No capturing group Unit testing part As I've mentioned, I'm the author of this problem, so I'm also the one responsible for coming up with testcases for them. Here they are: INPUT, OUTPUT "1000", "1,000" "-12345", "-12,345" "-1234567890.1234567890", "-1,234,567,890.1234567890" "123.456", "123.456" ".666666", ".666666" "0", "0" "123456789", "123,456,789" "1234.5678", "1,234.5678" "-55555.55555", "-55,555.55555" "0.123456789", "0.123456789" "123456.789", "123,456.789" I haven't had much experience with industrial-strength unit testing, so I'm wondering if others can comment whether this is a good coverage, whether I've missed anything important, etc (I can always add more tests if there's a scenario I've missed).

  Read the article

• C# - Alternative to System.Time.Timer, to call a function at a specific time.

  - by Fábio Antunes

  Hello everybody. I want to call a specific function on my C# application at a specific time. At first i thought about using a Timer (System.Time.Timer), but that soon became impossible to use. Why? Simple. The Timer Class requires a Interval in milliseconds, but considering that i might want the function to be executed, lets says in a week that would mean: 7 Days = 168 hours; 168 Hours = 10,080 minutes; 10,080 Minutes = 6,048,000 seconds; 6,048,000 Seconds = 6,048,000,000 milliseconds; So the Interval would be 6,048,000,000; Now lets remember that the Interval accepted data type is int, and as we know int range goes from -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647. That makes Timer useless in this case once we cannot set a Interval bigger that 2,147,483,647 milliseconds. So i need a solution where i could specify when the function should be called. Something like this: solution.ExecuteAt = "30-04-2010 15:10:00"; solution.Function = "functionName"; solution.Start(); So when the System Time would reach "30-04-2010 15:10:00" the function would be executed in the application. How can this problem be solved? Thanks just by taking the time to read my question. But if you could provide me with some help i would be most grateful. Additional Info: What these functions will do? Getting climate information and based on that info: Starting / Shutting down other Applications (most of them Console Based); Sending custom Commands to those Console Applications; Power down, Rebooting, Sleep, Hibernate the computer; And if possible schedule the BIOS to Power Up the Computer;

  Read the article

• issue in property file

  - by devuser

  I want to load the property file when tomcat is starting.so I'm using servletContextListener to do that and i can get values of property file to my web application. But i want to keep the same value after changing the property file once log into web application.But when i change the value of property file and log into system again it change the value to new one.I want to keep the same value that loaded when tomcat was starting.how can i implement this? My coding is as below import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Properties; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.io.*; import java.util.ResourceBundle; public final class sysProperties implements javax.servlet.ServletContextListener { private static Properties props = new Properties(); private static String file_name = "com/util/contact.properties"; public addSystemProperties() { } public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Set a context attribute try { // props.load(servletContext.getResourceAsStream(file_name)); props.load(getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(file_name)); System.out.println(" Application X is starting"); servletContext.setAttribute("h1",props.getProperty("home.h1")); servletContext.setAttribute("h2",props.getProperty("home.h2")); System.out.println("h1"+servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println("h2"+ servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); ; } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(" Error setting context attribute: " + e.getMessage()); } } public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Output the context variable we set earlier System.out.println(" Application X is shutting down"); System.out.println(" Value of h1 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println(" Value of h2 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); // Clean up (not really necessary as the context is being destroyed, but let's be neat) servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h1")); servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h2")); } }

  Read the article

• Making HABTM relationships unique in CakePHP

  - by Andrea

  I have two models, called Book and Tag, which are in a HABTM relationship. I want a couple (book, tag) to be saved only once. In my models I have var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Tag' => array( 'className' => 'Tag', 'joinTable' => 'books_tags', 'foreignKey' => 'book_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'tag_id', 'unique' => true ) ); and viceversa, but the Unique flag does not help me; I can still save two times the same couple. How do I do this in CakePHP? Should I declare the couple (book, tag) unique in the database directly, or will this make CakePHP go nuts? Is there a Cakey way to handle this situation? EDIT: I tried making the couple unique with the query (I'm using MySQL) ALTER TABLE books_tags ADD UNIQUE (book_id,tag_id); but this does not work well. When I save more than one tag at a time, everything goes well if all the couples are new. If at least one of the couples is repeated, CakePHP fails to do the whole operation, so it does not save ANY new couple (not even the good ones).

  Read the article

• SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

  Read the article

• TDD vs. Unit testing

  - by Walter

  My company is fairly new to unit testing our code. I've been reading about TDD and unit testing for some time and am convinced of their value. I've attempted to convince our team that TDD is worth the effort of learning and changing our mindsets on how we program but it is a struggle. Which brings me to my question(s). There are many in the TDD community who are very religious about writing the test and then the code (and I'm with them), but for a team that is struggling with TDD does a compromise still bring added benefits? I can probably succeed in getting the team to write unit tests once the code is written (perhaps as a requirement for checking in code) and my assumption is that there is still value in writing those unit tests. What's the best way to bring a struggling team into TDD? And failing that is it still worth writing unit tests even if it is after the code is written? EDIT What I've taken away from this is that it is important for us to start unit testing, somewhere in the coding process. For those in the team who pickup the concept, start to move more towards TDD and testing first. Thanks for everyone's input. FOLLOW UP We recently started a new small project and a small portion of the team used TDD, the rest wrote unit tests after the code. After we wrapped up the coding portion of the project, those writing unit tests after the code were surprised to see the TDD coders already done and with more solid code. It was a good way to win over the skeptics. We still have a lot of growing pains ahead, but the battle of wills appears to be over. Thanks for everyone who offered advice!

  Read the article

• Efficient alternative to merge() when building dataframe from json files with R?

  - by Bryan

  I have written the following code which works, but is painfully slow once I start executing it over thousands of records: require("RJSONIO") people_data <- data.frame(person_id=numeric(0)) json_data <- fromJSON(json_file) n_people <- length(json_data) for(lender in 1:n_people) { person_dataframe <- as.data.frame(t(unlist(json_data[[person]]))) people_data <- merge(people_data, person_dataframe, all=TRUE) } output_file <- paste("people_data",".csv") write.csv(people_data, file=output_file) I am attempting to build a unified data table from a series of json-formated files. The fromJSON() function reads in the data as lists of lists. Each element of the list is a person, which then contains a list of the attributes for that person. For example: [[1]] person_id name gender hair_color [[2]] person_id name location gender height [[...]] structure(list(person_id = "Amy123", name = "Amy", gender = "F", hair_color = "brown"), .Names = c("person_id", "name", "gender", "hair_color")) structure(list(person_id = "matt53", name = "Matt", location = structure(c(47231, "IN"), .Names = c("zip_code", "state")), gender = "M", height = 172), .Names = c("person_id", "name", "location", "gender", "height")) The end result of the code above is matrix where the columns are every person-attribute that appears in the structure above, and the rows are the relevant values for each person. As you can see though, some data is missing for some of the people, so I need to ensure those show up as NA and make sure things end up in the right columns. Further, location itself is a vector with two components: state and zip_code, meaning it needs to be flattened to location.state and location.zip_code before it can be merged with another person record; this is what I use unlist() for. I then keep the running master table in people_data. The above code works, but do you know of a more efficient way to accomplish what I'm trying to do? It appears the merge() is slowing this to a crawl... I have hundreds of files with hundreds of people in each file. Thanks! Bryan

  Read the article

• how to fix gateway timeout error in php???

  - by developer

  Iam having a php file that sends text messages on mobile to all the users that i have in my database's particular table. Now the entries are like 2000 or so in number and this number will keep on increasing. On my page there is a small form that selects a list of the users to whom message is to be sent from a drop down and then user writes the text to be sent in a textarea and then on clicking the submit button php script stars sending the messages to mobile numbers. Now while trying to send messages my browser has shown gateway timeout error but the script kept on running and messages are sent to the mobiles but not once but 6 times. I checked my script my query and all the code is correct.This all happened coz of that gateway timeout. Now does this gateway timeout kepts the script running again and again till the browser is not closed?? is this was the reason that a single message was sent 6 times to mobile numbers?? I mean how can i escape my file from getting this gateway error so that one message is sent only one time to a number??

  Read the article

• How to catch a division by zero?

  - by Cristian Castiblanco

  I have a large mathematical expression that has to be created dinamically. So, for example, once I have parsed "something" the result will be a string like: "$foo+$bar/$baz";. So, for calculating the result of that expression I'm using the eval function... something like this: eval("\$result = $expresion;"); echo "The result is: $result"; The problem here is that sometimes I get errors that says there was a division by zero, and I don't know how to catch that Exception. I have tried things like: eval("try{\$result = $expresion;}catch(Exception \$e){\$result = 0;}"); echo "The result is: $result"; Or: try{ eval("\$result = $expresion;"); } catch(Exception $e){ $result = 0; } echo "The result is: $result"; But it does not work. So, how can I avoid that my application crashes when there is a division by zero?

  Read the article

• IIS, Web services, Time out error

  - by Eduard

  Hello, We’ve got problem with ASP.NET web application that uses web services of other system. I’ll describe our system architecture: we have web application and Windows services that uses the same web services. - Windows service works all the time and sends information to these web services once an hour. - Web application is designed for users to send the same information in manual behavior. The problem is when user sometimes tries to send information in manual behavior in the web application, .NET throws exception „The operation has timed out” (web?). At that time Windows service successfully sends all necessary information to these web services. IT stuff that supports these web services asserts that there was no any request from our web application at that time. Then we have restarted IIS (iisreset) and everything has started to work fine. This situation repeats all the time. There is no anti-virus or firewall on the server. My suggestion is that there is something wrong with IIS, patches, configuration or whatever? The only specific thing is that there are requests that can least 2 minutes (web service response wait time). We tried to reproduce this situation on our local test servers, but everything works fine. OS: Windows Server 2003 R2 .NET: 3.5

  Read the article

• Need to kill a session?

  - by rob - not a robber

  Really quick here... I think I have the answer, but just looking for some validation. I have a site with two "points of entry." One is for a standard user and one is for an admin account. In the real world, an admin could have a standard user account and try to login as an admin while already being under the standard user session. I have two separate front ends to facilitate login. The normal user one is frilly and has ads and the like, the admin one is strictly business, so any suggestion to have the two user types login through the same "door" is not on the table. Would you advise on the admin login page to destroy any active sessions? Once the admin is in, they'll only be tooling around in their admin area and not on the main site. Has anyone run into probs using this method and having an admin-type user try to log back in in a new window as a "user" to view changes from a logged in user's prespective? Thanks in advance. So many cans of worms :)

  Read the article

• Javascript: Controlling the order that event handlers / listeners are exeucted in

  - by LRE

  Once again the IE Monster has hit me with an odd problem. I'm writing some changes into an asp.net site I inherited a while back. One of the problems is that in some pages there are several controls that add javascript functions as handlers to the onload event (using YUI if that matters). Some of those event handlers assume certain other functions have been executed. This is well and good in Firefox and IE7 as the handlers seem to execute in order of registration. IE8 on the other hand does this backwards. I could go with some kind of double-checking approach but given the controls are present in several pages I feel that'd create even more dependencies. So I've started cooking up my own queue class that I push the functions to and can control their execution order. Then I'll register an onload handler that instructs the queue to execute in my preferred order. I'm part way through that and have started wondering 2 things: Am I going OTT? Am I reinventing the wheel? Anyone have any insights? Any clean solutions that allow me to easily enforce execution order?

  Read the article

• Odd behaviour with PHP's in_array function.

  - by animuson

  I have a function that checks multiple form items and returns either boolean(true) if the check passed or the name of the check that was run if it didn't pass. I built the function to run multiple checks at once, so it will return an array of these results (one result for each check that was run). When I run the function, I get this array result: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => password [2] => birthday ) // print_r array(3) { [0]=> bool(true) [1]=> string(8) "password" [2]=> string(8) "birthday" } // var_dump The 'username' check passed and the 'password' and 'birthday' checks both failed. Then I am using simple in_array statements to determine which ones failed, like so: $results = $ani->e->vld->simulate("register.php", $checks); die(var_dump($results)); // Added after to see what array was being returned if (in_array("username", $results)) // do something if (in_array("password", $results)) // do something if (in_array("birthday", $results)) // do something The problem I'm having is that the 'username' line is still executing, even those 'username' is not in the array. It executes all three statements as if they were all true for some reason. Why is this? I thought maybe that the bool(true) was automatically causing the function to return true for every result without checking the rest of the array, but I couldn't find any documentation that would suggest that very odd functionality.

  Read the article

• PostgreSQL: Auto-partition a table

  - by Adam Matan

  Hi, I have a huge database which holds pairs of numbers (A,B), each ranging from 0 to 10,000 and stored as floats. e.g., (1, 9984.4), (2143.44, 124.243), (0.55, 0), ... Since the PostgreSQL table which stores these pairs grew quite large, I have decided to partition it into inheriting sub-tables. I intend to create 100 such tables, each storing a range of 1000x1000. The problem is that these numbers tend to come in large chunks of nearby numbers. It means that in the future, some tables will be nearly empty and some will hold a very large portion of the database. Unfortunately, the distribution of future pairs is yet unknown. I am looking for a way to automatically repartition my table. That means that if a certain subtable holds more than a specific number of pairs, it will be automatically partitioned into four sub-sub tables, and so on. My questions are: Is recursive partitioning and inheritance possible in PostgreSQL 8.3? Will indexes and query plans understand it? What's the best way to split a subtable once it grew too large? I should point out that this isn't a live database, so a downtime of few hours every week is totally acceptable. Thanks in advance, Adam

  Read the article

• Routing audio from GSM module to a Bluetooth HandsFree device

  - by Shaihi

  I have a system with the following setup: I use: Windows CE 6 R3 Microsoft's Bluetooth stack including all profiles Motorola H500 The Audio Gateway service is up and running (checked through services list in cmd) GSM Module is functional - I am able to set outgoing calls and to answer calls. Bluetooth is functional - the A2DP profile plays music to Motorola headphones (can't remember the model right now) I want to hold a conversation using a headset device. I have included all Bluetooth components in the catalog. I pair the device using the Control Panel applet. When I press the button on the Motorla device to answer a call I get a print by the Audio Gateway: BTAGSVC: ConnectionEvent. BTAGSVC: SCOListenThread_Int - Connection Event. BTAGSVC: ConnectionEvent. BTAGSVC: SCOListenThread_Int - Connection Event. BTAGSVC: ConnectionEvent. BTAGSVC: A Bluetooth peer device has connected to the Audio Gateway. BTAGSVC: Could not open registry key for BT Addr: 2. BTAGSVC: The peer device was not accepted since the user has never confirmed it as a device to be used. So my questions are as follows: What do I need to do to pair the device with the Audio Gateway? Once my device is paired, do I need to set anything else up? (except for the GSM module of course)

  Read the article

• Spring @PostConstruct function in a @Repository called multiple times

  - by Seth

  I have a DAO that I'm trying to inject into a couple different places: @Repository public class FooDAO { @Autowired private HibernateManager sessionFactory; @PostConstruct public void doSomeDatabaseStuff() throws DataAccessException { ... } } And my application-context.xml is a fairly simple context:component-scan: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd" default-init-method="init" default-destroy-method="destroy"> <context:component-scan base-package="top.level"/> </beans> The DAO is accessed from a couple servlets in my application server through @Autowired properties. As far as I understand, anything annotated with @Repository should default to being a singleton and thus doSomeDatabaseStuff() should only be called once (as is my intention). The problem is that I'm seeing doSomeDatabaseStuff() called multiple times. What's going on here? Have I set something up incorrectly? I'm using spring 3.0.0. Thanks for the help.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452  | Next Page >