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  • SqlBackup from my client app

    - by Robbert Dam
    I have an client app that runs on several machines, and connects to a single SQL database. On the client app, the user has the possiblity to use a local SQL (CE) database or connect to a remote SQL database. There is also a box where a backup location can be set. For the backup of the remote SQL database I use the following code: var bdi = new BackupDeviceItem(backupFile, DeviceType.File); var backup = new Backup { Database = "AppDb", Initialize = true }; backup.Devices.Add(bdi); var server = new Server(connection); backup.SqlBackup(server); When developing my application, I wasn't aware that the given backupFile is written on the machine where the SQL server runs! And not on the client machine. What I want is "dump" all the data from my database to a local file. (Why? Because users may enter a network location in the "backup location" box, and backing up SQL immediately to a network location fails. So need to write local first and then copy to the network in that case.) I there an alternative to the method above?

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  • Apply a recursive CTE on grouped table rows (SQL server 2005).

    - by Evan V.
    Hi all, I have a table (ROOMUSAGE) containing the times people check in and out of rooms grouped by PERSONKEY and ROOMKEY. It looks like this: PERSONKEY | ROOMKEY | CHECKIN | CHECKOUT | ROW ---------------------------------------------------------------- 1 | 8 | 13-4-2010 10:00 | 13-4-2010 11:00 | 1 1 | 8 | 13-4-2010 08:00 | 13-4-2010 09:00 | 2 1 | 1 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 13-4-2010 16:00 | 1 1 | 1 | 13-4-2010 14:00 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 2 1 | 1 | 13-4-2010 13:00 | 13-4-2010 14:00 | 3 13 | 2 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 13-4-2010 16:00 | 1 13 | 2 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 13-4-2010 16:00 | 2 I want to select just the consecutive rows for each PERSONKEY, ROOMKEY grouping. So the desired resulting table is: PERSONKEY | ROOMKEY | CHECKIN | CHECKOUT | ROW ---------------------------------------------------------------- 1 | 8 | 13-4-2010 10:00 | 13-4-2010 11:00 | 1 1 | 1 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 13-4-2010 16:00 | 1 1 | 1 | 13-4-2010 14:00 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 2 1 | 1 | 13-4-2010 13:00 | 13-4-2010 14:00 | 3 13 | 2 | 13-4-2010 15:00 | 13-4-2010 16:00 | 1 I want to avoid using cursors so I thought I would use a recursive CTE. Here is what I came up with: ;with CTE (PERSONKEY, ROOMKEY, CHECKIN, CHECKOUT, ROW) as (select RU.PERSONKEY, RU.ROOMKEY, RU.CHECKIN, RU.CHECKOUT, RU.ROW from ROOMUSAGE RU where RU.ROW = 1 union all select RU.PERSONKEY, RU.ROOMKEY, RU.CHECKIN, RU.CHECKOUT, RU.ROW from ROOMUSAGE RU inner join CTE on RU.ROWNUM = CTE.ROWNUM + 1 where CTE.CHECKIN = RU.CHECKOUT and CTE.PERSONKEY = RU.PERSONKEY and CTE.ROOMKEY = RU.ROOMKEY) This worked OK for very small datasets (under 100 records) but it's unusable on large datasets. I'm thinking that I should somehow apply the cte recursevely on each PERSONKEY, ROOMKEY grouping on my ROOMUSAGE table but I am not sure how to do that. Any help would be much appreciated, Cheers!

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  • How can I dump my SQL Server Database Schema to a human readable & printable format?

    - by Kyle West
    I want to generate something like the following: LineItems Id ItemId OrderId Price Orders Id CustomerId DateCreated Customers Id FirstName LastName Email I don't need all the relationships, the diagram that will never print correctly, the metadata, anything. Just a list of the tables and their columns in a simple text format. Has anyone done this before? Is there a simple solution? Thanks, Kyle

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  • Can I check wheter Linq 2 SQL's DataContext is tracking entities?

    - by Thomas Jespersen
    We want to throw an exception, if a user calls DataContext.SubmitChanges() and the DataContext is not tracking anything. That is... it is OK to call SubmitChanges if there are no inserts, updates or deletes. But we want to ensure that the developer didn't forget to attach the entity to the DataContext. Even better... is it possible to get a collection of all entities that the DataContext is tracking (including those that are not changed)? PS: The last question I asked were answered with: "do it this way instead"... please don't :-)

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  • Testing system where App-level and Request-level IoC containers exist

    - by Bobby
    My team is in the process of developing a system where we're using Unity as our IoC container; and to provide NHibernate ISessions (Units of work) over each HTTP Request, we're using Unity's ChildContainer feature to create a child container for each request, and sticking the ISession in there. We arrived at this approach after trying others (including defining per-request lifetimes in the container, but there are issues there) and are now trying to decide on a unit testing strategy. Right now, the application-level container itself is living in the HttpApplication, and the Request container lives in the HttpContext.Current. Obviously, neither exist during testing. The pain increases when we decided to use Service Location from our Domain layer, to "lazily" resolve dependencies from the container. So now we have more components wanting to talk to the container. We are also using MSTest, which presents some concurrency dilemmas during testing as well. So we're wondering, what do the bright folks out there in the SO community do to tackle this predicament? How does one setup an application that, during "real" runtime, relies on HTTP objects to hold the containers, but during test has the flexibility to build-up and tear-down the containers consistently, and have the ServiceLocation bits get to those precise containers. I hope the question is clear, thanks!

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  • sql-server: how can I list distinct value of table in a single row, separated by comma

    - by RedsDevils
    I have the following Table: CREATE TABLE TEMP (ID INT,SEGMENT CHAR(1),SEGOFF INT,CHECKED SMALLDATETIME) INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (1,'A',0,'2009-05-01') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (2,'B',1,'2009-05-01') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (3,'C',0,'2009-05-01') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (4,'A',0,'2009-05-02') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (5,'B',2,'2009-05-02') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (6,'C',1,'2009-05-02') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (7,'A',1,'2009-05-03') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (8,'B',0,'2009-05-03') INSERT INTO TEMP VALUES (9,'C',2,'2009-05-03') I would like to show Distinct SEGEMENT in Single row separated by comma (e.g: A,B,C) I try as Follow: DECLARE @SEGMENTList varchar(100) SELECT @SEGMENTList = COALESCE(@SEGMENTList + ', ', '') + SEGMENT FROM TEST SELECT @SEGMENTList It shows A, B, C, A, B, C, A, B, C What do I need to change my query? Thanks all!

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  • Extending EF4 SQL Generation

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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  • Passing constructor arguments when using StructureMap

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I'm using StructureMap for my DI. Imagine I have a class that takes 1 argument like: public class ProductProvider : IProductProvider { public ProductProvider(string connectionString) { .... } } I need to specify the "connectionString at run-time when I get an instance of IProductProvider. I have configured StructureMap as follows: ForRequestedType<IProductProvider>.TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<ProductProvider>(). WithCtorArgument("connectionString"); However, I don't want to call EqualTo("something...") method here as I need some facility to dynamically specify this value at run-time. My question is: how can I get an instance of IProductProvider by using ObjectFactory? Currently, I have something like: ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IProductProvider>(); But as you know, this doesn't work... Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • Using ninject/autofac for a given scenario

    - by sandesh247
    I have some providers, say - <Providers> <Provider Type="Providers.IM" Name="Im"/> <Provider Type="Providers.Web" Name="Web"/> ... </Provider> Each of these providers can give me a session : <Sessions> <Session Name="GoogleIM" Provider="Im" URL="..." /> <Session Name="YahooIM" Provider="Im" URL="..." /> <Session Name="YahooWeb" Provider="Web" URL="..." /> ... </Session> Currently, I instantiate "named" sessions by looking at the provider, instantiating the type, and injecting the URL (manually). I could use a session factory, which would probably have to understand the url and return a proper session. Is there a way to handle this more elegantly/simply with ninject/autofac?

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  • Apache attack on compromised server, iframe injected by string replace

    - by Quang-Tuan Luong
    My server has been compromised recently. This morning, I have discovered that the intruder is injecting an iframe into each of my HTML pages. After testing, I have found out that the way he does that is by getting Apache (?) to replace every instance of <body> by <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> For example if I browse a file residing on the server consisting of: </body> </body> Then my browser sees a file consisting of: <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> I have immediately stopped Apache to protect my visitors, but so far I have not been able to find what the intruder has changed on the server to perform the attack. I presume he has modified an Apache config file, but I have no idea which one. In particular, I have looked for recently modified files by time-stamp, but did not find anything noteworthy. Thanks for any help. Tuan. PS: I am in the process of rebuilding a new server from scratch, but in the while, I would like to keep the old one running, since this is a business site.

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  • Finding a 3rd party QWidget with injected code & QWidget::find(hwnd)

    - by David Menard
    Hey, I have a Qt Dll wich I inject into a third-party Application using windows detours library: if(!DetourCreateProcessWithDll( Path, NULL, NULL, NULL, TRUE, CREATE_DEFAULT_ERROR_MODE | CREATE_SUSPENDED, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi, "C:\\Program Files\\Microsoft Research\\Detours Express 2.1\\bin\\detoured.dll", "C:\\Users\\Dave\\Documents\\Visual Studio 2008\\Projects\\XOR\\Debug\\XOR.dll", NULL)) and then I set a system-wide hook to intercept window creation: HHOOK h_hook = ::SetWindowsHookEx(WH_CBT, (HOOKPROC)CBTProc, Status::getInstance()->getXORInstance(), 0); Where XOR is my programs name, and Status::getInstance() is a Singleton where I keep globals. In my CBTProc callback, I want to intercept all windows that are QWidgets: HWND hwnd= FindWindow(L"QWidget", NULL); which works well, since I get a corresponding HWND (I checked with Spy++) Then, I want to get a pointer to the QWidget, so I can use its functions: QWidget* q = QWidget::find(hwnd); but here's the problem, the returned pointer is always 0. Am I not injecting my code into the process properly? Or am I not using QWidget::find() as I should? Thanks, Dave EDIT:If i change the QWidget::find() function to an exported function of my DLL, after setting the hooks (so I can set and catch a breakpoint), QWidgetPrivate::mapper is NULL.

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  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

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  • T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Fileters in the where clause versus the on clause.

    - by Greg Potter
    I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4)

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