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  • Packaging ejb3 swing client

    - by soontobeared
    Hi, I get the "java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFac tory" error while running my packaged ejb3 swing client jar. Here's the stack trace. G:\Courses\OSUMC\Installables\June 5\New>java -jar MetaDB-Client.jar javax.naming.NoInitialContextException: Cannot instantiate class: org.jnp.interf aces.NamingContextFactory [Root exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: o rg.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory] at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getInitialContext(Unknown Source) at javax.naming.InitialContext.getDefaultInitCtx(Unknown Source) at javax.naming.InitialContext.init(Unknown Source) at javax.naming.InitialContext.<init>(Unknown Source) at net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.facade.BaseEJBFacade.getInitialContext(BaseE JBFacade.java:26) at net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.facade.UserManagerFacade.getUserManager(User ManagerFacade.java:24) at net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.facade.UserManagerFacade.isUserNameAvailable (UserManagerFacade.java:44) at net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.MainFrame.main(MainFrame.java:269) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFac tory at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) at com.sun.naming.internal.VersionHelper12.loadClass(Unknown Source) ... 8 more Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.facade.UserManagerFacade.isUserNameAvailable (UserManagerFacade.java:44) at net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.MainFrame.main(MainFrame.java:269) Here are my packaged swing client Jar contents:- MetaDB-Client.jar \lib - contains all jboss\client jars \net\.. - contains class files(from both client and server) META-INF MANIFEST.MF jndi.properties Here's my jndi.properties:- java.naming.factory.initial=org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory java.naming.factory.url.pkgs=org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces java.naming.provider.url=localhost:1099 Here's my MANIFEST.MF:- Manifest-Version: 1.0 Main-Class: net.massmatrix.metadb.ui.MainFrame Class-Path: lib/* Command used to create the jar:- jar cfm MetaDB-Client.jar MANIFEST.MF net\* lib\* jndi.properties What else am i missing ? Thanks.

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  • Accessing Attributes in a Many-to-Many

    - by tshauck
    Hi, I have a rails app and I'd like to be able to do something like task.labels.first.label_name to get the label name of a task. However, I get an undefined method label_name. I did a t = Task.first; t.labels.first.label_name in the console, and that worked so I'm not sure what's going on. Here's the models then the locations of the error: class Categorization < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :label belongs_to :task end class Label < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :label_name has_many :categorizations has_many :tasks, :through => :categorizations end class Task < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :task has_many :categorizations has_many :labels, :through => :categorizations end The error is in the index <% for task in @tasks %> <tr> <td><%= task.task %></td> <td><%= task.labels.first.label_name %></td> <td><%= link_to "Show", task %></td> <td><%= link_to "Edit", edit_task_path(task) %></td> <td><%= link_to "Destroy", task, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %></td> </tr> <% end %

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  • How to scroll programmetically to selected cover in coverflow view ?

    - by hib
    Hi all , I am using a coverflow component for my application . It is working nicely till now . But now I want to scroll to selected cover in coverflow . I am currently doing this : TKCoverView *cover = [self.coverflow coverAtIndex:currentIndex]; CGRect frame = cover.frame ; frame.origin.x = frame.origin.x * 1.2; // **main setting** [self.coverflow bringCoverAtIndexToFront:currentIndex animated:YES]; [self.coverflow scrollRectToVisible:frame animated:YES]; and the cover At index method - (TKCoverView*) coverflowView:(TKCoverflowView*)coverflowView coverAtIndex:(int)index{ TKCoverView *cover = [coverflowView dequeueReusableCoverView]; NSLog(@"Index value :%i",index); if(cover == nil){ cover = [[[TKCoverView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 224, 300)] autorelease]; // 224 cover.baseline = 224; cover.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder_2.png"]; cover.tag = index; }else { cover.image = ((object *)[array objectAtIndex:index]).appIconNormal; } return cover; and - (TKCoverView*) dequeueReusableCoverView{ if(yard == nil || [yard count] < 1) return nil; TKCoverView *v = [[[yard lastObject] retain] autorelease]; v.layer.transform = CATransform3DIdentity; [yard removeLastObject]; return v; } So can any one tell me what is the perfect and standard way of setting the frame for the scrollRectToVisibleRegion method .

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  • Jquery .html() function returns html out of nested order

    - by forcripesake
    I have a method which returns a persisted html template from a database. The template is of the format: <div id="item_collection"> <div id="item_x"> <p id="item_x_headline"><h2>Some Headline</h2></p> <p id="item_x_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> <div id="item_x+1"> <p id="item_x+1_headline"><h1>Some Headline</h1></p> <p id="item_x+1_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> ...and so on. </div> However after I run the following: alert(data); //check that the template is in order. It Is. $('#template_area').html(data); the Html is now: <div id="item_collection"> <div id="item_x"> <p id="item_x_headline"></p> <!--Note The Lack of Nesting --> <h2>Some Headline</h2> <p id="item_x_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> <div id="item_x+1"> <p id="item_x+1_headline"></p> <!--Note The Lack of Nesting --> <h1>Some Headline</h1> <p id="item_x+1_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> ...and so on. </div> So what gives? Is there a better way to replace the empty template_area's content than the .html() method?

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  • How to determine if "html" or "body" scrolls the window.

    - by David Murdoch
    The code below is used to find the element that can be scrolled (body or html) via javascript. var scrollElement = (function (tags) { var el, $el, init; // iterate through the tags... while (el = tags.pop()) { $el = $(el); // if the scrollTop value is already > 0 then this element will work if ( $el.scrollTop() > 0){ return $el; } // if scrollTop is 0 try to scroll. else if($el.scrollTop( 1 ).scrollTop() > 0) { // if that worked reset the scroll top and return the element return $el.scrollTop(0); } } return $(); } (["html", "body"])); // do stuff with scrollElement...like: // scrollElement.animate({"scrollTop":target.offset().top},1000); This code works perfectly when the height of the document is greater than the height of the window. However, when the height of the document is the same or less than the window the method above will not work because scrollTop() will always be equal to 0. This becomes a problem if the DOM is updated and the height of the document grows beyond the height of the window after the code runs. Also, I generally don't wait until document.ready to set up my javascript handlers (this generally works). I could append a tall div to the body temporarily to force the method above to work BUT that would required the document to be ready in IE (you can't add a node to the body element before the tag is closed). For more reading on the document.ready "anti-pattern" topic read this. So, I'd love to find a solution that finds the scrollable element even when the document is short. Any ideas?

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  • Ruby metaclass madness

    - by t6d
    I'm stuck. I'm trying to dynamically define a class method and I can't wrap my head around the ruby metaclass model. Consider the following class: class Example def self.meta; (class << self; self; end); end def self.class_instance; self; end end Example.class_instance.class # => Class Example.meta.class # => Class Example.class_instance == Example # => true Example.class_instance == Example.meta # => false Obviously both methods return an instance of Class. But these two instances are not the same. They also have different ancestors: Example.meta.ancestors # => [Class, Module, Object, Kernel] Example.class_instance.ancestors # => [Example, Object, Kernel] Whats the point in making a difference between the metaclass and the class instance? I figured out, that I can send :define_method to the metaclass to dynamically define a method, but if I try to send it to the class instance it won't work. At least I could solve my problem, but I still want to understand why it is working this way.

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  • Is This a Valid Way to Use Blocks in Objective-C?

    - by Carter
    I've been building a HTTP client that uses web services to synchronize information between the client and server. I've been using Blocks and NSURLConnection to achieve this on the client side, but I'm getting frequent EXC_BAD_ACCESS crashes in objc_msgSend(). From what I understand, this usually means that a stored block that has fallen off the stack has been called. I think I've coded things correctly to avoid this, but I'm still stuck. Here is conceptually what my code is doing. It starts by calling "synchronizeWithWebServer". That method invokes "listRootObjectsOnServerWithBlock:" which takes in a block to be called when the method returns. "listRootObjectsOnServersWithBlock:" initiates a NSURLConnection to the web server asynchronously. It to expects a block to be called when it returns. Inside that block I want to be able to execute the original Block (so aptly named 'block'). This is only a simplified version of my code. The real synchronization process is more complex but it's mostly more of the same as what you see below. Sometimes the code works perfectly, but about 80% of the time it crashes very early on in the routine. It seems to be more vulnerable to crashing when my data set gets larger. - (void)synchronizeWithWebServer { [self listRootObjectsOnServerWithBlock:^(NSArray *results, NSError *error) { //Iterate over result objects and perform some other similar routines. }]; } - (void)listRootObjectsOnServerWithBlock:(void (^)(NSArray *results, NSError *error))block { //Create NSURLRequest Here //Create connection asynchronously. block = [block copy]; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:[NSOperationQueue currentQueue] completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error){ //Parse response from web server (stored in NSData *data) NSArray *results = ..... //Call 'block' block(results, error); [block release]; }]; }

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  • Setting nested object to null when combobox has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • Spinner in Android crashing when visibilty changes while handling OnClick in a button

    - by Dave George
    I have a spinner in UI, which I want to hide when I handle onClick method for a button. But the application is crashing all the time. Is it that I can't use the setVisibility(View.Gone) on spinners (it is not written anywhere). If I comment it out, then application run fine. I am getting NullPointerException and I am using RelativeLayout. Also, can I do this: public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View view, int pos, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(SpinnerActivity.this,selected , Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); spinner.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } Spinner code fore reference: itemsCity=getResources().getStringArray(R.array.cities_array); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.cities_array, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerCity.setAdapter(adapter); And here is Button code: private class BtClickListner implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v) { essEditText.setVisibility(View.GONE); spinnerCity.setEnabled(false);// Getting exception here // Also tried spinnerCity.setVisibility(View.GONE);// Exception SameBt.setVisibility(View.GONE);// This is same button for which I am handliing event, but it allows me to change tis property at run time. }

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  • Upload image from J2ME client to a Servlet

    - by Akash
    I want to send an image from a J2ME client to a Servlet. I am able to get a byte array of the image and send it using HTTP POST. conn = (HttpConnection) Connector.open(url, Connector.READ_WRITE, true); conn.setRequestMethod(HttpConnection.POST); conn.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); os.write(bytes, 0, bytes.length); // bytes = byte array of image This is the Servlet code: String line; BufferedReader r1 = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); while ((line = r1.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println("line=" + line); buf.append(line); } String s = buf.toString(); byte[] img_byte = s.getBytes(); But the problem I found is, when I send bytes from the J2ME client, some bytes are lost. Their values are 0A and 0D hex. Exactly, the Carriage Return and Line Feed. Thus, either POST method or readLine() are not able to accept 0A and 0D values. Any one have any idea how to do this, or how to use any another method?

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  • Custom Membership in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by Interfector
    Hello, I'm trying to make my Custom Membership starting from ASP.NET's. I have a users table created by me which has as Primary Key a Guid UserId, exactly the sames as ASP.NET's default user and membership table. I have all the Foreign Key relationships built. However, I cannot insert the user into my custom users table. The data gets inserted correctly into the default ASP.NET's tables. I have tried the following scenarios: First version Receive the user model from POST call the CreateUser method of the Membership.class (stuff gets inserted) without modifying the user object, I try to insert it using EF's AddObject I receive the following error: "Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'LoweredUserName', table 'asp.dbo.aspnet_Users'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails.\r\nThe statement has been terminated."} System.Exception {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException The error actually makes sense as EF's AddObject doesn't know how to create the LoweredUserName value, and I don't want to do it, this is ASP.NET's job. Second version Receive the user model from POST call the CreateUser method of the Membership.class (stuff gets inserted) Get the Guid of the freshly inserted system user get the ASP.NET's User object and overwrite that of user.User get the ASP.NET's Membership object and overwrite that of user.Membership (remember the FKs) try again EF's AddObject new error {"The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} Don't know what this is, but it certenly doesn't make any sense for me. After some googleing I think that it has something to do with the context, but as I'm a beginner I don't know how to fix it. Any ideeas on how to accomplish this task are more than welcomed, especially if they follow some good practices. Thx

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  • More issues with IntelliJ 9.0.1 "Hello World" in Scala - Predef version 5.0 vs 4.1

    - by Alex R
    Any ideas what could cause this? Scala signature Predef has wrong version Expected 5.0 found: 4.1 in .... scala-library.jar I tried both versions 2.7.6 and 2.8 RC1 of scala-*.jar, the result was the same. JDK is 1.6.u20. UPDATE Today uninstalled IntelliJ 9.0.1, and installed 9.0.2 Early Availability, with the 4/14 stable version of the Scala plug-in. Then I setup a project from scratch through the wizards: new project from scratch JDK is 1.6.u20 accept the default (project) instead of global / module accept the download of Scala 2.8.0beta1 into project's lib folder Created a new class: object hello { def main(args: Array[String]) { println("hello: " + args); } } For my efforts, I now have a brand-new error :) Here it is: Scalac internal error: class java.lang.ClassNotFoundException [java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202), java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method), java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307), sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248), java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method), java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169), org.jetbrains.plugins.scala.compiler.rt.ScalacRunner.main(ScalacRunner.java:72)] Thanks

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  • How to parse kanji numeric characters using ICU?

    - by Aki
    I'm writing a function using ICU to parse an Unicode string which consists of kanji numeric character(s) and want to return the integer value of the string. "?" = 5 "???" = 31 "???????" = 5972 I'm setting the locale to Locale::getJapan() and using the NumberFormat::parse() to parse the character string. However, whenever I pass it any Kanji characters, the parse() method is returning U_INVALID_FORMAT_ERROR. Does anyone know if ICU supports Kanji character strings in the NumberFormat::parse() method? I was hoping that since I'm setting the Locale to Japanese that it would be able to parse Kanji numeric values. Thanks! #include <iostream> #include <unicode/numfmt.h> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char **argv) { const Locale &jaLocale = Locale::getJapan(); UErrorCode status = U_ZERO_ERROR; NumberFormat *nf = NumberFormat::createInstance(jaLocale, status); UChar number[] = {0x4E94}; // Character for '5' in Japanese '?' UnicodeString numStr(number); Formattable formattable; nf->parse(numStr, formattable, status); if (U_FAILURE(status)) { cout << "error parsing as number: " << u_errorName(status) << endl; return(1); } cout << "long value: " << formattable.getLong() << endl; }

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  • Singleton Roles in Moose

    - by mjn12
    I am attempting to write a singleton role using Perl and Moose. I understand a MooseX::Singleton module is available but there is always resistance when requiring another CPAN module for our project. After trying this and having a little trouble I would like to understand WHY my method is not working. The singleton role I have written is as follows: package Singleton; use Moose::Role; my $_singleInstance; around 'new' => sub { my $orig = shift; my $class = shift; if (not defined $_singleInstance ){ $_singleInstance = $class->$orig(@_); } return $_singleInstance; }; sub getInstance { return __PACKAGE__->new(); } 1; This appears to work find when only one class uses the singleton role. However when two classes (ClassA and ClassB for example) both consume the Singleton role it appears as they are both referring to a shared $_singleInstance variable. If I call ClassA-getInstance it returns a reference to a ClassA object. If I call ClassB-getInstance sometime later in the same script it returns a reference to an object of type ClassA (even though I clearly called the getInstance method for ClassB). If I dont use a role and actually copy and paste the code from the Singleton role into ClassA and ClassB it appears to work fine. Whats going on here?

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  • How is jQuery so fast?

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hey, I have a rather large application which, on the admin frontend, takes a few seconds to load a page because of all the pageviews that it has to load into objects before displaying anything. Its a bit complex to explain how the system works, but a few of my other questions explains the system in great detail. The main difference between what they say and the current system is that the customer frontend no longer loads all the pageviews into objects when a customer first views the page - it simply adds the pageview to the database and creates an object in an unsynchronised list... to put it simply, when a customer views a page it no longer loads all the pageviews into objects; but the admin frontend still does. I have been working on some admin tools on the customer frontend recently, so if an administrator clicks the description of an item in the catalogue then the right hand column will display statistics and available actions for the selected item. To do this the page which gets loaded (through $('action-container').load(bla bla bla);) into the right hand column has to loop through ALL the pageviews - this ultimately means that ALL the pageviews are loaded into objects if they haven't been already. For some reason this loads really REALLY fast. The difference in speed is only like a second on my dev site, but the live site has thousands of pageviews so the difference is quite big... So my question is: why is it that the admin frontend loads so slowly while using $(bla).load(bla); is so fast? I mean whatever method jQuery uses, can't browsers use this method too and load pages super-fast? Obviously not as someone would've done that by now - but I am interested to know just why the difference is so big... is it just my system or is there a major difference in speed between the browser getting a page and jQuery getting a page? Do other people experience the same kind of differences? Thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

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  • Setting ivar in objective-c from child view in the iPhone

    - by Ivan
    Hi there! Maybe a FAQ at this website. I have a TableViewController that holds a form. In that form I have two fields (each in it's own cell): one to select who paid (single selection), and another to select people expense is paid for (multiple selection). Both fields open a new TableViewController included in an UINavigationController. Single select field (Paid By) holds an object Membership Multiple select field (Paid For) holds an object NSMutableArray Both vars are being sent to the new controller identically the same way: mySingleSelectController.crSelectedMember = self.crPaidByMember; myMultipleSelectController.crSelectedMembers = self.crSelectedMembers; From Paid for controller I use didSelectAtIndexPath method to set a mutable array of Memberships for whom is paid: if ([[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] accessoryType] == UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark) { [self.crSelectedMembers removeObject:[self.crGroupMembers objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; //... } else { [self.crSelectedMembers addObject:[self.crGroupMembers objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; //... } So far everything goes well. An mutable array (crSelectedMembers) is perfectly set from child view. But... I have trouble setting Membership object. From Paid By controller I use didSelectAtIndexPath to set Membership: [self setCrSelectedMember:[crGroupMembers objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; By NSlogging crSelectedMember I get the right selected member in self, but in parent view, to which ivar is pointed, nothing is changed. Am I doing something wrong? Cause I CAN call the method of crSelectedMembers, but I can't change the value of crSelectedMember.

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  • C# winforms: graphics.DrawImage problem

    - by Tony
    Hi, I have a really strange problem with Graphics.DrawImage method. I have the PictureBox control in the Panel control with AllowScroll property = true. The program cuts the image on small parts basing on the area selected by the user. I load the image 300x547 and select the area (the red rectangle): program properly cuts the image: then, I load another image 427x640: and then, as the result I see that the image is not cut properly. Each img.jpg file has properly width & height but the drawn image is too small: here's the code snippet - it saves the bitmap area selected by the user: Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(selectedAreaRECT.Width, selectedAreaRECT.Height); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); g.DrawImage(OriginalIMG, 0,0, selectedAreaRECT, GraphicsUnit.Pixel); g.Save(); g.Dispose(); bmp.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + @"\Temp\" + "img1.jpg", System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); As You see, the code is the same for the img1.jpg from image A and from Image B. I'm trying to resolve that stupid problem for too long, I don't know what's the reason of that problem. I tried diffrent constructors of the DrawImage method, with no success

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  • singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

    - by Joshua
    Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

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  • Explicit script end tag always converted to self-closing

    - by Jonas
    I'm using xslt to transform xml to an aspx file. In the xslt, I have a script tag to include a jquery.js file. To get it to work with IE, the script tag must have an explicit closing tag. For some reason, this doesn't work with xslt below. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:asp="remove"> <xsl:output method="html"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>TEST</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.js"></script> But if I change the script tag as shown below, it works. <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.js"> // <![CDATA[ // ]]> </script> I thought that the <xsl:output method="html" /> would do the trick, but it doesn't seem to work? /Jonas

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  • Setting UIImage dimensions on UITableViewCell image

    - by bbrown
    I've got a standard UITableViewCell where I'm using the text and image properties to display a favicon.ico and a label. For the most part, this works really well since UIImage supports the ICO format. However, some sites (like Amazon.com say) have favicon.icos that make use of the ICO format's ability to store multiple sizes in the same file. Amazon stores four different sizes, all the way up to 48x48. This results in most images being 16x16 except for a few that come in at 32x32 or 48x48 and make everything look terrible. I have searched here, the official forum, the documentation, and elsewhere without success. I have tried everything that I could think of to constrain the image size. The only thing that worked was an undocumented method, which I'm not about to use. This is my first app and my first experience with Cocoa (came from C#). In case I wasn't clear in what I'm looking for, ideally the advice would center around setting the dimensions of the UIImage so that the 48x48 version would scale down to 16x16 or a method to tell UIImage to use the 16x16 version present in the ICO file. I don't necessarily need code: just a suggestion of an approach would do me fine. Does anyone have any suggestions? (I asked in the official forum as well because I've sunk more than a day into this already. If a solution is posted there, I'll put it here as well.)

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  • LinkageError thrown when attempting to pass instance of class between 2 eclipse plugins

    - by Ed
    I have found many people with simliar issues but no soultions...basically I have two eclipse plug-ins that both in ther class path rely on the same jar. The UI plug-in replies on the Driver plug-in (implementing a custom ODA driver and UI for it). Both rely on a jar containing some other classes of mine and is called plugin-dto.jar When the UI plug-in calls a method on one of the classes in the Driver plug-in that returns an object whose class is found in the plugin-dto jar I get the error: java.lang.LinkageError: Class com/test/reporting/NrDsDriverProvider violates loader constraints at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:620) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.defineClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:183) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.defineClass(ClasspathManager.java:576) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findClassImpl(ClasspathManager.java:546) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClassImpl(ClasspathManager.java:477) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClass_LockClassLoader(ClasspathManager.java:465) at org.eclipse.osgi.baseadaptor.loader.ClasspathManager.findLocalClass(ClasspathManager.java:445) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.findLocalClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:211) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findLocalClass(BundleLoader.java:381) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClassInternal(BundleLoader.java:457) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClass(BundleLoader.java:410) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.loader.BundleLoader.findClass(BundleLoader.java:398) at org.eclipse.osgi.internal.baseadaptor.DefaultClassLoader.loadClass(DefaultClassLoader.java:105) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:251) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:319) Any ideas how I get around this issue? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • evaluation of a java thread dump

    - by raticulin
    I got a thread dump of one of my processes. It has a bunch of these threads. I guess they are keeping a bunch of memory so I am getting OOM. "Thread-8264" prio=6 tid=0x4c94ac00 nid=0xf3c runnable [0x4fe7f000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflateBytes(Native Method) at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflate(Inflater.java:223) - locked <0x0c9bc640 (a java.util.zip.Inflater) at org.apache.commons.compress.archivers.zip.ZipArchiveInputStream.read(ZipArchiveInputStream.java:235) at com.my.ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.extract(ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.java:48) at com.my.CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper$ExtractionThread.run(CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper.java:151) Locked ownable synchronizers: - None "Thread-8241" prio=6 tid=0x4c94a400 nid=0xb8c runnable [0x4faef000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflateBytes(Native Method) at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflate(Inflater.java:223) - locked <0x0c36b808 (a java.util.zip.Inflater) at org.apache.commons.compress.archivers.zip.ZipArchiveInputStream.read(ZipArchiveInputStream.java:235) at com.my.ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.extract(ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.java:48) at com.my.CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper$ExtractionThread.run(CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper.java:151) Locked ownable synchronizers: - None I am trying to find out how it arrived to this situation. CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper is a wrapper class that fires a thread to do some work (ExtractionThread, which uses ZipExtractorCommonsCompress to extract zip contents from a compressed stream). If the task is taking too long, ExtractionThread.interrupt(); is called to cancel the operation. I can see in my logs that the cancellation happened 25 times. And I see 21 of these threads in my dump. My questions: What is the status of these threads? Alive and running? Blocked somehow? They did not die with .interrupt() apparently? Is there a sure way to really kill a thread? What does really mean 'locked ' in the stack trace? Line 223 in Inflater.java is: public synchronized int inflate(byte[] b, int off, int len) { ... //return is line 223 return inflateBytes(b, off, len); }

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  • How can I get the correct DisplayMetrics from an AppWidget in Android?

    - by Gary
    I need to determine the screen density at runtime in an Android AppWidget. I've set up an HDPI emulator device (avd). If set up a regular executable project, and insert this code into the onCreate method: DisplayMetrics dm = getResources().getDisplayMetrics(); Log.d("MyTag", "screen density " + dm.densityDpi); This outputs "screen density 240" as expected. However, if I set up an AppWidget project, and insert this code into the onUpdate method: DisplayMetrics dm = context.getResources().getDisplayMetrics(); Log.d("MyTag", "screen density " + dm.densityDpi); This outputs "screen density 160". I noticed, hooking up the debugger, that the mDefaultDisplay member of the Resources object here is null in the AppWidget case. Similarly, if I get a resource at runtime using the Resources object obtained from context.getResources() in the AppWidget, it returns the wrong resource based on screen density. For instance, I have a 60x60px drawable for mdpi, and an 80x80 drawable for hdpi. If I get this Drawable object using context.getResources().getDrawable(...), it returns the 60x60 version. Is there any way to correctly deal with resources at runtime from the context of an AppWidget? Thanks!

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  • iPhone - dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier usage

    - by Jukurrpa
    Hi, I'm working on a iPhone app which has a pretty large UITableView with data taken from the web, so I'm trying to optimize its creation and usage. I found out that dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier is pretty useful, but after seeing many source codes using this, I'm wondering if the usage I make of this function is the good one. Here is what people usually do: UITableViewCell* cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"Cell"]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:@"Cell"]; // Add elements to the cell return cell; And here is the way I did it: NSString identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Cell @d", indexPath.row]: // The cell row UITableViewCell* cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell != nil) return cell; cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:identifier]; // Add elements to the cell return cell; The difference is that people use the same identifier for every cell, so dequeuing one only avoids to alloc a new one. For me, the point of queuing was to give each cell a unique identifier, so when the app asks for a cell it already displayed, neither allocation nor element adding have to be done. In fine I don't know which is best, the "common" method ceils the table's memory usage to the exact number of cells it display, whislt the method I use seems to favor speed as it keeps all calculated cells, but can cause large memory consumption (unless there's an inner limit to the queue). Am I wrong to use it this way? Or is it just up to the developper, depending on his needs?

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