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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • Why would one want to use the public constructors on Boolean and similar immutable classes?

    - by Robert J. Walker
    (For the purposes of this question, let us assume that one is intentionally not using auto(un)boxing, either because one is writing pre-Java 1.5 code, or because one feels that autounboxing makes it too easy to create NullPointerExceptions.) Take Boolean, for example. The documentation for the Boolean(boolean) constructor says: Note: It is rarely appropriate to use this constructor. Unless a new instance is required, the static factory valueOf(boolean) is generally a better choice. It is likely to yield significantly better space and time performance. My question is, why would you ever want to get a new instance in the first place? It seems like things would be simpler if constructors like that were private. For example, if they were, you could write this with no danger (even if myBoolean were null): if (myBoolean == Boolean.TRUE) It'd be safe because all true Booleans would be references to Boolean.TRUE and all false Booleans would be references to Boolean.FALSE. But because the constructors are public, someone may have used them, which means that you have to write this instead: if (Boolean.TRUE.equals(myBoolean)) But where it really gets bad is when you want to check two Booleans for equality. Something like this: if (myBooleanA == myBooleanB) ...becomes this: if ( (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanB == null) || (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanA.equals(myBooleanB)) ) I can't think of any reason to have separate instances of these objects which is more compelling than not having to do the nonsense above. What say you?

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  • What is the strangest programming language you have used?

    - by Anders Sandvig
    For me I think it has to be the scripting language of an old proprietary telephony platform I used in the early 2000s. The language itself was not so bad, but the fact that it was meant to be edited with a drag-and-drop GUI, which did not expose all the functionality I needed, was quite frustrating. I also remember having to manually implement many common functions, such as calculating the length of a string. Whenever I wanted to use "custom" or "advanced" functions, I had to edit the script files in a text editor, but as soon as I opened the files in the GUI again they were reformatted and restructured, which usually resulted in broken code. And, of course, this was an interpreted language, so I would not know it was broken until I actually ran it—oh, and did I mention that it did not run the same in the simulator as in the live environment? So, what is the strangest programming language or environment you have used, and why did you use it? Note that I'm interested in languages and environments that you have actually used for "real-world" situations, so Whitespace, Brainf***k and friends are not valid—unless you have used them for something "real", of course.

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  • Creating simple calculator with bison & flex in C++ (not C)

    - by ak91
    Hey, I would like to create simple C++ calculator using bison and flex. Please note I'm new to the creating parsers. I already found few examples in bison/flex but they were all written in C. My goal is to create C++ code, where classes would contain nodes of values, operations, funcs - to create AST (evaluation would be done just after creating whole AST - starting from the root and going forward). For example: my_var = sqrt(9 ** 2 - 32) + 4 - 20 / 5 my_var * 3 Would be parsed as: = / \ my_var + / \ sqrt - | / \ - 4 / / \ / \ ** 32 20 5 / \ 9 2 and the second AST would look like: * / \ my_var 3 Then following pseudocode reflects AST: ast_root = create_node('=', new_variable("my_var"), exp) where exp is: exp = create_node(OPERATOR, val1, val2) but NOT like this: $$ = $1 OPERATOR $3 because this way I directly get value of operation instead of creation the Node. I believe the Node should contain type (of operation), val1 (Node), val2 (Node). In some cases val2 would be NULL, like above mentioned sqrt which takes in the end one argument. Right? It will be nice if you can propose me C++ skeleton (without evaluation) for above described problem (including *.y file creating AST) to help me understand the way of creating/holding Nodes in AST. Code can be snipped, just to let me get the idea. I'll also be grateful if you point me to an existing (possibly simple) example if you know any. Thank you all for your time and assistance!

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  • Zend dubugger in eclipse - timeout everytime

    - by jax
    I am running a virtual server in the US. I am trying to get my eclipse machine at home (outside the USA), to connect to the USA server. I have setup Zend on the server. When I run phpinfo() I get the following zend output. Note: 1.2.3.4 will be the external WAN IP address of my ADSL router at home. Directive Local Value Master Value zend_debugger.allow_hosts 127.0.0.1,1.2.3.4 127.0.0.1,1.2.3.4 zend_debugger.allow_tunnel no value no value zend_debugger.deny_hosts no value no value zend_debugger.expose_remotely always always zend_debugger.httpd_uid -1 -1 zend_debugger.max_msg_size 2097152 2097152 zend_debugger.tunnel_max_port 65535 65535 zend_debugger.tunnel_min_port 1024 1024 So zend looks like it is working ok on the server side. When I run a debug session and select 'Test Debugger' I get a timeout every time. I have already added dummy.php to the root folder of the server. In 'installed debuggers' I double clicked on Zend and have put my external WAN IP address. I noticed that the port is 10000, I also have webmin running on this port on the server, will there be a conflict?

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  • Why would dynamically changing the stroke type of a GestureOverlayView cause unusual behaviour?

    - by Rob Kent
    I recently introduced multi-stroke gestures into my application. This is a preference so I set the StrokeType dynamically in Activity.OnCreate. What I have discovered is that if you change the StrokeType so that it is different to the setting in the layout file, it changes the behaviour of the GestureOverlayView in the following way. The normal behaviour is that you draw a gesture and it stays on the screen after it is drawn. When you change the stroke type dynamically however, any gesture drawn on the screen disappears immediately after the OnGestureEnded event has fired. I reloaded the sample GesturesBuilder application and confirmed it has the same problem if you add the second line shown here: GestureOverlayView overlay = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures_overlay); overlay.setGestureStrokeType(GestureOverlayView.GESTURE_STROKE_TYPE_SINGLE); overlay.addOnGestureListener(new GesturesProcessor()); } The default in the layout is MULTIPLE but changing it to single changes the behaviour. If you keep the above line but set it to what it already is, the behaviour is not affected. Is this a bug in the Android gestures library and does anyone know a workaround? Note that this is on an HTC Magic so it could also be a handset issue.

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  • How to animate button text? (loading type of animation) - jquery?

    - by AL
    I got something that I want to do and want to see what you guys think and how can it be implemented. I got a form in a page and the form will submit to itself to perform some process (run functions) in a class. Upon clicking the submit button, I want to animate the button text to “SUBMIT .” -> “SUBMIT ..” -> “SUBMIT …” -> “SUBMIT ….” -> “SUBMIT ….” and then back again. Sort of “animate” the button text. Once the whole process is done, the button text will goes back to be “SUBMIT” text again. Please note that I am not looking for image button solution, meaning that I do not want to implement gif animated button image. Anyone done this before or know how this can be done? I have google but seems nothing of this kind to be found. Thanks! AL

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  • JavaCC: How can I specify which token(s) are expected in certain context?

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I need to make JavaCC aware of a context (current parent token), and depending on that context, expect different token(s) to occur. Consider the following pseudo-code: TOKEN <abc> { "abc*" } // recognizes "abc", "abcd", "abcde", ... TOKEN <abcd> { "abcd*" } // recognizes "abcd", "abcde", "abcdef", ... TOKEN <element1> { "element1" "[" expectOnly(<abc>) "]" } TOKEN <element2> { "element2" "[" expectOnly(<abcd>) "]" } ... So when the generated parser is "inside" a token named "element1" and it encounter "abcdef" it recognizes it as <abc>, but when its "inside" a token named "element2" it recognizes the same string as <abcd>. element1 [ abcdef ] // aha! it can only be <abc> element2 [ abcdef ] // aha! it can only be <abcd> If I'm not wrong, it would behave similar to more complex DTD definitions of an XML file. So, how can one specify, in which "context" which token(s) are valid/expected? NOTE: It would be not enough for my real case to define a kind of "hierarchy" of tokens, so that "abcdef" is always first matched against <abcd> and than <abc>. I really need context-aware tokens.

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  • Entities used to serialize data have changed. How can the serialized data be upgraded for the new entities?

    - by i8abug
    Hi, I have a bunch of simple entity instances that I have serialized to a file. In the future, I know that the structure of these entities (ie, maybe I will rename Name to Header or something). The thing is, I don't want to lose the data that I have saved in all these old files. What is the proper way to either load the data from the old entities into new entities upgrade the old files so that they can be used with new entities Note: I think I am stuck with binary serialization, not xml serialization. Thanks in advance! Edit: So I have an answer for the case I have described. I can use a dataContractSerializer and do something like [DataMember("bar")] private string foo; and change the name in the code and keep the same name that was used for serialization. But what about the following additional cases: The original entity has new members which can be serialized Some serialized members that were in the original entity are removed Some members have actually changed in function (suppose that the original class had a FirstName and LastName member and it has been refactored to have only a FullName member which combines the two) To handle these, I need some sort of interpreter/translator deserialization class but I have no idea what I should use

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  • Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

    - by Mousarules
    Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

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  • MVC Validator.TryValidateObject does not validate custom atrribute, validateAllProperties = true

    - by nealsu
    When calling Validator.TryValidateObject with validateAllProperties = true my custom validation attribute does not get triggered. The ValidationResult does not contain an entry for my erroneous property value. Below is the model, attribute and code used to test this. //Model public class Model { [AmountGreaterThanZero] public int? Amount { get; set; } } //Attribute public sealed class AmountGreaterThanZero: ValidationAttribute { private const string errorMessage = "Amount should be greater than zero."; public AmountGreaterThanZero() : base(errorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return errorMessage; } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { if (value != null) { if ((int)value <= 0) { var message = FormatErrorMessage(validationContext.DisplayName); return new ValidationResult(message); } } return null; } } //Validation Code var container = new Container(); container.ModelList = new List<Model>() { new Model() { Amount = -5 } }; var validationContext = new ValidationContext(container, null, null); var validationResults = new List<ValidationResult>(); var modelIsValid = Validator.TryValidateObject(container, validationContext, validationResults, true); Note: That the validation works fine and ValidationResult returns with correct error message if I use the TryValidateProperty method.

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  • Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

    - by SCO
    I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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  • implementation musical instrument using audio unit

    - by Develop.Kim
    post same question at apple developer forum ,too hi first sorry that my english is poor.. i want develop iphone application that playing musical instrument like 'ocarina' but don't need blow mic features. so first i tried to find that how implementation 'virtual musical instrument ' in iphone development. the during the decide implementation using 'Audio Unit' to report this article (link) so i want two kind of questions. i recognize that the 'musical instrument' can be divided into three sound that 'attack', 'sustain' , 'release'. 'decay' maybe included (link) . How implementation when audio unit base 'AUInstrumentBase' each sound ? i download sample 'SinSynth' (link) . i want play note this instrument unit for analyze source and study. Is there way to using AULab? expected the way using MIDI input . but i don't have MIDI. in addition, i wonder that i would think it right the way. to ask the advice... thank for reading poor english my article.

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  • How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

    - by deeviate
    I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

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  • Is it possible to send back a json array along with seperate variables

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have an ajax jquery function that receives data from a php script. I want to return an array with all the online users which is retrieved from a mysql statement, and I want to send other separate variables I need for other purposes along with it. If anyone has any ideas, I would greatly appreciate it. NOTE: the example below is to illustrate what I want to do, I understand that json-encoding the array with other variables is dysfunctional. JQUERY $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "parameters", url: "retrieval.php", dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('#div1').html(json.array); $('#div2').html(json.variable1); $('#div3').html(json.variable2); } }) PHP $qryuserscount1="SELECT * FROM active_users"; $userscount1=mysql_query($qryuserscount1); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($userscount1)) { $onlineuser= $row['username']; $id=$row['id']; $data[]=$onlineuser.$id; //for example there are 3 users, should send 3 entries back } $data['variable1']='something'; $data['variable2']='something else'; $out = json_encode($data); print $out;

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  • How do I obtain selected rows in a DataGridView from different pages

    - by cmrhema
    Hi, I have a windows forms DataGridView, where I have data and a checkbox for each row. I will select check box for a particular row and all the selected rows will be populated in another page. if (grdEmp.Rows.Count > 0) { var selectedEmpIDs= from DataGridViewRow coll in grdEmp.Rows where Convert.ToBoolean(coll.Cells["Select"].Value) == true select coll; if (selectedEmpIDs.Count() > 0) { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in selectedEmpIDs) { selectedEmp+= row.Cells["EmpId"].Value + ","; } } } This works good only for one page. When I navigate to another page, and click the selected rows, the previous one goes off. How do I resolve it. Thanks cmrhema Note :Sorry for the confusion, When I meant it works good for a page, I meant paging. I think I need to add more inputs, There are 10 pages in the gridview. I select the first record from each page of the gridview, one after another by clicking next page( Page next button). But only the record that was selected the last is getting displayed and others and ignored off. What could be the prblm

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  • Dynamic content in a Gridview

    - by mariki
    I have a gridview with couple of columns,I want to achieve the following: If user is NOT authorized display normal columns. If user IS authorized: set mouseover event for first column text and display some buttons (that are not available for NOT authorized users) in a second column when user hover over(using javascript) the first column. I am have 2 difficulties: The first one where and when should I create the buttons? I have 2 options, I can create those button on design time, in gridviews template and just set Visible value to false and then in codebehind set it to true if user is authorized. The second option would be creating this buttons dynamically in gridview_RowCreated event (or any other event) if user is authorized. The Second difficulty is setting the javascript event to show the buttons, the event should be added only if user is authorized! Note that event and buttons should have some kind of id match for Javascript function to know what should it hide/unhide when event is triggered. What should I do, what is the best practice? I know this is a long question, but please try to help :)

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  • jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

    - by AaronS
    I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

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  • Striped table rows in ASP.NET MVC (without using jQuery or equivalent)

    - by Richard Ev
    When using an ASP.NET WebForms ListView control to display data in an HTML table I use the following technique in to "stripe" the table rows: <ItemTemplate> <tr class="<%# Container.DisplayIndex % 2 == 0 ? "" : "alternate" %>"> <!-- table cells in here --> </tr> </ItemTemplate> With the following CSS: tr.alternate { background-color: #EFF5FB; } I have just gone through the ASP.NET MVC Movie Database Application tutorial and learnt that in MVC-land table rows can be (must be?) constructed as follows: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Title) %> </td> <!-- and so on for the rest of the table cells... --> </tr> <% } %> What can I add to this code to stripe the rows of my table? Note: I know that this can be done using jQuery, I want to know if it can be done another way. Edit If jQuery (or equivalent) is in your opinion the best or most appropriate post, I'd be interested in knowing why.

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  • Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

    - by user314695
    Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

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  • ASP.NET or PHP: Is Memcached useful for storing user-state information?

    - by hamlin11
    This question may expose my ignorance as a web developer, but that wouldn't exactly be a bad thing for me now would it? I have the need to store user-state information. Examples of information that I need to store per user. (define user: unauthenticated visitor) User arrived to the site from google/bing/yahoo User utilized the search feature (true/false) List of previous visited product pages on current visit It is my understanding that I could store this in the view state, but that causes a problem with page load from the end-users' perspective because a significant amount of non-viewable information is being transferred to and from the end-users even though the server is the only side that needs the info. On a similar note, it is my understanding that the session state can be used to store such information, but does not this also result in the same information being transferred to the user and stored in their cookie? (Not quite as bad as viewstate, but it does not feel ideal). This leaves me with either a server-only-session storage system or a mem-caching solution. Is memcached the only good option here?

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  • Bind to a collection's view and just call ToString() in WPF

    - by womp
    I'm binding a GridView to a collection of objects that look like this: public class Transaction { public string PersonName { get; set; } public DateTime TransactionDate { get; set; } public MoneyCollection TransactedMoney { get; set;} } MoneyCollection simply inherits from ObservableCollection<T>, and is a collection of MyMoney type object. In my GridView, I just want to bind a column to the MoneyCollection's ToString() method. However, binding it directly to the TransactedMoney property makes every entry display the text "(Collection)", and the ToString() method is never called. Note that I do not want to bind to the items in MoneyCollection, I want to bind directly to the property itself and just call ToString() on it. I understand that it is binding to the collection's default view. So my question is - how can I make it bind to the collection in such a way that it calls the ToString() method on it? This is my first WPF project, so I know this might be a bit noobish, but pointers would be very welcome.

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  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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  • How to load two divs into separate targets with JQuery?

    - by Bussard
    Hi all, I'm trying to achieve two things, both of which I fail to get at. On a server are a series of notes; all contain a div (id=ajxContent). Some notes also contain an additiona div (id=ajxHead). The ajxContent itself contains links (class=clicking) to call the next installment, hence the link destination in a variable. This is my code: $(document).ready(function(){ $( 'a.clicking' ).live('click', function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var theLink = $(this).attr('href'); $('#loadText').load(theLink + '#ajxContent'); $('h1').load(theLink + '#ajxHead'); }); }) Where it fails: 1) the ajxContent gets loaded into the h1 tag as well as in its intended target. 2) when I had set up the code differently, if there was no div id=ajxHead present in a note, the load would nevertheless erase the existing value in the h1 tag. Am I on a totally wrong track here, with two load statements? Input is very welcome, thanks.

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