Search Results

Search found 13033 results on 522 pages for 'catalog objects'.

Page 448/522 | < Previous Page | 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455  | Next Page >

• Can I specify default value?

  - by atch

  Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use an Interface as the Type for a Strongly Typed View

  - by Rake36

  I'd like to keep my concrete classes separate from my views. Without using strongly typed views, I'm fine. I just use a big parameter list in the controller method signatures and then use my service layer factory methods to create my concrete objects. This is actually just fine with me, but it got me thinking and after a little playing, I realized it was literally impossible for a controller method to accept an interface as a method parameter - because it has no way of instantiating it. Can't create a strongly-typed view using an interface through the IDE either (which makes sense actually). So my question. Is there some way to tell the controller how to instantiate the interface parameter using my service layer factory methods? I'd like to convert from: [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, String TypeCode, String TimeCode, String[] SelectedSchoolSystems, String PositionChoice1, String PositionChoice2, String PositionChoice3, String Reason, String LocationPreference, String AvailableDate, String RecipientsNotSelected, String RecipientsSelected) { //New blank app IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id); to something like [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, IApplication app) { //Don't need to do this anymore //IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id);

  Read the article

• Memorystream and Large Object Heap

  - by Flo

  I have to transfer large files between computers on via unreliable connections using WCF. Because I want to be able to resume the file and I don't want to be limited in my filesize by WCF, I am chunking the files into 1MB pieces. These "chunk" are transported as stream. Which works quite nice, so far. My steps are: open filestream read chunk from file into byet[] and create memorystream transfer chunk back to 2. until the whole file is sent My problem is in step 2. I assume that when I create a memory stream from a byte array, it will end up on the LOH and ultimately cause an outofmemory exception. I could not actually create this error, maybe I am wrong in my assumption. Now, I don't want to send the byte[] in the message, as WCF will tell me the array size is too big. I can change the max allowed array size and/or the size of my chunk, but I hope there is another solution. My actual question(s): Will my current solution create objects on the LOH and will that cause me problem? Is there a better way to solve this? Btw.: On the receiving side I simple read smaller chunks from the arriving stream and write them directly into the file, so no large byte arrays involved.

  Read the article

• Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

  - by Adam Lassek

  I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

  Read the article

• Overriding content_type for Rails Paperclip plugin

  - by Fotios

  I think I have a bit of a chicken and egg problem. I would like to set the content_type of a file uploaded via Paperclip. The problem is that the default content_type is only based on extension, but I'd like to base it on another module. I seem to be able to set the content_type with the before_post_process class Upload < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :upload before_post_process :foo def foo logger.debug "Changing content_type" #This works self.upload.instance_write(:content_type,"foobar") # This fails because the file does not actually exist yet self.upload.instance_write(:content_type,file_type(self.upload.path) end # Returns the filetype based on file command (assume it works) def file_type(path) return `file -ib '#{path}'`.split(/;/)[0] end end But...I cannot base the content type on the file because Paperclip doesn't write the file until after_create. And I cannot seem to set the content_type after it has been saved or with the after_create callback (even back in the controller) So I would like to know if I can somehow get access to the actual file object (assume there are no processors doing anything to the original file) before it is saved, so that I can run the file_type command on that. Or is there a way to modify the content_type after the objects have been created.

  Read the article

• keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

  - by Old McStopher

  UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

  Read the article

• JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate

  - by Rooh

  I have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some reference classes and then my porblem. @MappedSuperclass public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } @Entity public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } @Entity public class Child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } @Entity public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate

  Read the article

• Is it possible to create a python iterator over pre-defined mutable data?

  - by Wilduck

  I might be doing this wrong, if I am, let me know, but I'm curious if the following is possible: I have a class that holds a number of dictionaries, each of which pairs names to a different set of objects of a given class. For example: items = {"ball" : ItemInstance1, "sword" : ItemInstance2} people = {"Jerry" : PersonInstance1, "Bob" : PersonInstance2, "Jill" : PersonInstance3} My class would then hold the current items and people that are availible, and these would be subject to change as the state changes: Class State: def __init__(self, items, people): self.items = items self.people = people I would like to define a iter() and next() method such that it iterates through all of the values in its attributes. My first question is whether or not this is possible. If it is, will it be able to support a situation as follows: I define items and people as above then: state = State(items, people) for names, thing in state: print name + " is " + thing.color items[cheese] = ItemInstance3 for names, thing in state: print name + " weighs " + thing.weight While I feel like this would be usefull in the code I have, I don't know if it's either possible or the right approach. Everything I've read about user defined iterators has suggested that each instance of them is one use only.

  Read the article

• C# how to calculate hashcode from an object reference.

  - by Wayne

  Folks, here's a thorny problem for you! A part of the TickZoom system must collect instances of every type of object into a Dictionary< type. It is imperative that their equality and hash code be based on the instance of the object which means reference equality instead of value equality. The challenge is that some of the objects in the system have overridden Equals() and GetHashCode() for use as value equality and their internal values will change over time. That means that their Equals and GetHashCode are useless. How to solve this generically rather than intrusively? So far, We created a struct to wrap each object called ObjectHandle for hashing into the Dictionary. As you see below we implemented Equals() but the problem of how to calculate a hash code remains. public struct ObjectHandle : IEquatable<ObjectHandle>{ public object Object; public bool Equals(ObjectHandle other) { return object.ReferenceEquals(this.Object,other.Object); } } See? There is the method object.ReferenceEquals() which will compare reference equality without regard for any overridden Equals() implementation in the object. Now, how to calculate a matching GetHashCode() by only considering the reference without concern for any overridden GetHashCode() method? Ahh, I hope this give you an interesting puzzle. We're stuck over here. Sincerely, Wayne

  Read the article

• d3: Coloring Multiple Lines from Nested Data

  - by diet_coke

  I'm currently assembling some line graphs with circles at the datapoints from arrays of JSON objects formatted like so: var data = [{ "name": "metric1", "datapoints": [ [10.0, 1333519140], [48.0, 1333519200] ] }, { "name": "metric2", "datapoints": [ [48.0, 1333519200], [12.0, 1333519260] ] }] I want to have a color for each metric, so I'm trying to color them based on the index of the object within the array data. The code I have currently for just placing the circles looks like: // We bind an svg group to each metric. var metric_groups = this.vis.selectAll("g.metric_group") .data(data).enter() .append("g") .attr("class", "metric_group"); // Then bind a circle for each datapoint. var circles = metric_groups.selectAll("circle") .data(function(d) { return d.datapoints; }); circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); Now if I change that last bit to something like: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i) { return i%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } I get alternating red and blue circles, as could be expected. Taking some advice from Nested Selections : 'Nesting and Index', I tried: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i,j) { return j%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } Which doesn't work (j is undefined), presumably because we are in the named property datapoints, rather than an array element. How might I go about doing the coloring that I want without changing my data structure? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Android NDK import-module / code reuse

  - by Graeme

  Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

  Read the article

• -(void)dealloc - How ? Objective - C

  - by sagar

  Please Note that - this is not similar than this question. OK. To understand my question, First of all please see both of these destructors. - (void)dealloc { [Marketdetails release]; Marketdetails=nil; [parsedarray release]; parsedarray=nil; [Marketid release]; Marketid=nil; [marketname release]; marketname=nil; [super dealloc]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [Marketdetails release]; Marketdetails=nil; [parsedarray release]; parsedarray=nil; [Marketid release]; Marketid=nil; [marketname release]; marketname=nil; } See, Both destructors have different code. In First Destructor first current class objects are released & then [super dealloc] is called. In second Desctructor first [super dealloc] is called. My question is as follows. Where should we write [super dealloc] ? first or last ? or it doesn't matter ?

  Read the article

• Test Driven Development with C++: How to test a class which depends on other classes?

  - by Nikhil

  Suppose I have a class A which depends on 3 other classes X, Y and Z, either A uses these through a reference or a pointer or say A is templated to be instantiated with X, Y and Z doesn't matter, the key is that in order to test A, I need to have X, Y and Z. So I need to have fakes for A, B and C. Suppose I write them. Now, how do I swap real and fake objects easily? I can see that this works very easily in the case of templates. In order to make it work when A depends on X, Y and Z through a reference or a pointer, I would need to have a base class say X_Interface from which I can inherit X_Real and X_Fake. So basically, I would end up in having 3 times the number of classes for every class that would need to have a fake. I am most likely missing something. There has to be a simpler way to do this. Having a base class X_Interface is also quite expensive as I will be using more space and making virtual calls. I guess I could use CRTP as I know whether its a X_Real or X_Fake at compile time but still there must be a better way.

  Read the article

• Render multiple Form instances

  - by vorpyg

  I have a simple application where users are supposed to bet on outcome of a match. A match consists of two teams, a result and a stake. Matches with teams are created in the Django admin, and participants are to fill in result and stake. The form must be generated dynamically, based on the matches in the database. My idea is to have one (Django) Form instance for each match and pass these instances to the template. It works fine when I do it from django shell, but the instances aren't rendered when I load my view. The form looks like this: class SuggestionForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): try: match = kwargs.pop('match') except KeyError: pass super(SuggestionForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) label = match self.fields['result'] = forms.ChoiceField(label=label, required=True, choices=CHOICES, widget=forms.RadioSelect()) self.fields['stake'] = forms.IntegerField(label='', required=True, max_value=50, min_value=10, initial=10) My (preliminary) view looks like this: def suggestion_form(request): matches = Match.objects.all() form_collection = {} for match in matches: f = SuggestionForm(request.POST or None, match=match) form_collection['match_%s' % match.id] = f return render_to_response('app/suggestion_form.html', { 'forms': form_collection, }, context_instance = RequestContext(request) ) My initial thought was that I could pass the form_collection to the template and the loop throught the collection like this, but id does not work: {% for form in forms %} {% for field in form %} {{ field }} {% endfor %} {% endfor %} (The output is actually the dict keys with added spaces in between each letter - I've no idea why…) It works if I only pass one Form instance to the template and only runs the inner loop. Suggestions are greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Remove pointer object whose reference is mantained in three different lists

  - by brainydexter

  I am not sure how to approach this problem: 'Player' class mantains a list of Bullet* objects: class Player { protected: std::list< Bullet* > m_pBullet_list; } When the player fires a Bullet, it is added to this list. Also, inside the constructor of bullet, a reference of the same object is updated in CollisionMgr, where CollisionMgr also mantains a list of Bullet*. Bullet::Bullet(GameGL*a_pGameGL, Player*a_pPlayer) : GameObject( a_pGameGL ) { m_pPlayer = a_pPlayer; m_pGameGL->GetCollisionMgr()->AddBullet(this); } class CollisionMgr { void AddBullet(Bullet* a_pBullet); protected: std::list< Bullet*> m_BulletPList; } In CollisionMgr.Update(); based on some conditions, I populate class Cell which again contain a list of Bullet*. Finally, certain conditions qualify a Bullet to be deleted. Now, these conditions are tested upon while iterating through a Cell's list. So, if I have to delete the Bullet object, from all these places, how should I do it so that there are no more dangling references to it? std::list< Bullet*>::iterator bullet_it; for( bullet_it = (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).begin(); bullet_it != (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).end(); bullet_it++) { bool l_Bullet_trash = false; Bullet* bullet1 = *bullet_it; // conditions would set this to true if ( l_Bullet_Trash ) // TrashBullet( bullet1 ); continue; } Also, I was reading about list::remove, and it mentions that it calls the destructor of the object we are trying to delete. Given this info, if I delete from one list, the object does not exist, but the list would still contain a reference to it..How do I handle all these problems ? Can someone please help me here ? Thanks PS: If you want me to post more code or provide explanation, please do let me know.

  Read the article

• SQLite Databases and Grid Hosting

  - by jocull

  I'm considering moving my site from a GoDaddy shared hosting account to a Media Temple grid hosting account in anticipation of traffic. However, I first have some concerns with the grid hosting setup. My site stores a large personal set of data on a per-user basis (possibly 3-4MB per user). At this rate I was worried about blowing over a 1GB MySQL limit in no time. To deal with this I created distributed SQLite databases per user to store large data objects. It's worked wonderfully so far. SQLite is super fast and simple. I know that reading from and writing to files is different in a Grid Hosting environment. I need to know if this setup is going to cause serious problems. These databases are not (and will not be) highly trafficked. They are personal to the user and will only be touched maybe two locations at the same time (one updating the data hourly at the most, and one or more reading on demand). I'd like to keep this setup as getting additional space (beyond 4GB) on a MySQL database seems to be a real trouble point. Will Grid Hosting cause me serious problems? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Few Basic Questions in Overriding

  - by Dahlia

  I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

  Read the article

• Trouble decoding JSON string with PHP

  - by Anthony

  I'm trying to send an array of objects from JS to PHP using JSON. I have an array of players as follows: var player; var players = new Array(); //loop for number of players player = new Object(); player.id = theID; players[i] = player; Then my AJAX call looks like this: JSONplayers = JSON.stringify(players); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/ajax_send_players.php", data: { "players" : JSONplayers } On the PHP side the decode function looks like this $players = $_REQUEST['players']; echo var_dump($players); $players = json_decode($players); echo 'players: ' .$players. '--'. $players[0] . '--'. $players[0]->id; Debugging in chrome, the JSON players var looks like this before it is sent: JSONplayers: "[{"id":"Percipient"},{"id":"4"}]" And when I vardump in PHP it looks OK, giving this: string(40) "[{\"id\":\"Percipient\"},{\"id\":\"4\"}]" But I can't access the PHP array, and the echo statement about starting with players: outputs this: players: ---- Nothing across the board...maybe it has something to do with the \'s in the array, I am new to this and might be missing something very simple. Any help would be greatly appreciated. note I've also tried json_decode($players, true) to get it as an assoc array but get similar results.

  Read the article

• ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

  - by byte1918

  I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

  Read the article

• Importing data from third party datasource (open architecture design )

  - by mare

  How would you design an application (classes, interfaces in class library) in .NET when we have a fixed database design on our side and we need to support imports of data from third party data sources, which will most likely be in XML? For instance, let us say we have a Products table in our DB which has columns Id Title Description TaxLevel Price and on the other side we have for instance Products: ProductId ProdTitle Text BasicPrice Quantity. Currently I do it like this: Have the third party XML convert to classes and XSD's and then deserialize its contents into strong typed objects (what we get as a result of this process is classes like ThirdPartyProduct, ThirdPartyClassification, etc.). Then I have methods like this: InsertProduct(ThirdPartyProduct newproduct) I do not use interfaces at the moment but I would like them to. What I would like is implement something like public class Contoso_ProductSynchronization : ProductSynchronization InsertProduct(ContosoProduct p) where ProductSynchronization will be an interface or abstract class. There will most likely be many implementations of ProductSynchronization. I cannot hardcode the types - classes like ContosoProduct, NorthwindProduct might be created from the third party XML's (so preferably I would continue to use deserialization). Hopefully someone will understand what I'm trying to explain here. Just imagine you are the seller and you have numerous providers and each one uses their own proprietary XML format. I don't mind the development, which will of course be needed everytime new format appears, because it will only require 10-20 methods to be implemented, I just want the architecture to be open and support that.

  Read the article

• Nhibernate: Stop it from joining to a table that is not needed

  - by Aaron

  I have two tables (tbArea, tbPost) that relate to the following classes. class Area { int ID string Name ... } class Post { int ID string Title Area Area ... } These two classes map up with Fluent Nhibernate. Below is the post mapping. public class PostMapping : ClassMap<Post> { public PostMapping() { Cache.NonStrictReadWrite(); this.Table("tbPost"); Id(x => x.ID) .Column("PostID") .GeneratedBy .Identity(); References(x => x.Area) .ForeignKey("AreaID") .Column("AreaID"); ... } } Any time I perform a query on the Post table "where AreaID = 1(any AreaId)", nhibernate will join to the area table. (What Nhibernate generates for a query) SELECT post fields , area fields (automatically added) FROM tbPost p LEFT JOIN tbArea a on p.areaid = a.areaid where p.areaid = 1 I have tried setting Area to LazyLoad, to Fetch.Select, ReadOnly, and any other setting on the reference and still it will always join to Area. I am trying to optimize the backend database queries, and since I don't need the area object loaded just filtered I would like to eliminate the unnecessary join to Area each time I Query post. What configurations do I need to change or mappings to get area to still be related to post in my objects, but not query it when I filter on AreaID?

  Read the article

• Matplotlib autodatelocator custom date formatting?

  - by jawonlee

  I'm using Matplotlib to dynamically generate .png charts from a database. The user may set as the x-axis any given range of datetimes, and I need to account for all of it. While Matplotlib has the dates.AutoDateLocator(), I want the datetime format printed on the chart to be context-specific - e.g. if the user is charting from 3 p.m. to 5 p.m., the year/month/day information doesn't need to be displayed. Right now, I'm manually creating Locator and Formatter objects thusly: def get_ticks(start, end): from datetime import timedelta as td delta = end - start if delta <= td(minutes=10): loc = mdates.MinuteLocator() fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%I:%M %p') elif delta <= td(minutes=30): loc = mdates.MinuteLocator(byminute=range(0,60,5)) fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%I:%M %p') elif delta <= td(hours=1): loc = mdates.MinuteLocator(byminute=range(0,60,15)) fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%I:%M %p') elif delta <= td(hours=6): loc = mdates.HourLocator() fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%I:%M %p') elif delta <= td(days=1): loc = mdates.HourLocator(byhour=range(0,24,3)) fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%I:%M %p') elif delta <= td(days=3): loc = mdates.HourLocator(byhour=range(0,24,6)) fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%I:%M %p') elif delta <= td(weeks=2): loc = mdates.DayLocator() fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%b %d') elif delta <= td(weeks=12): loc = mdates.WeekdayLocator() fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%b %d') elif delta <= td(weeks=52): loc = mdates.MonthLocator() fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%b') else: loc = mdates.MonthLocator(interval=3) fmt = mdates.DateFormatter('%b %Y') return loc,fmt Is there a better way of doing this?

  Read the article

• How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

  - by ShaneC

  I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

  Read the article

• Null reference exceptions in .net

  - by Carlo

  Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Group / User based security. Table / SQL question

  - by Brett

  Hi, I'm setting up a group / user based security system. I have 4 tables as follows: user groups group_user_mappings acl where acl is the mapping between an item_id and either a group or a user. The way I've done the acl table, I have 3 columns of note (actually 4th one as an auto-id, but that is irrelevant) col 1 item_id (item to access) col 3 user_id (user that is allowed to access) col 3 group_id (group that is allowed to access) So for example item1, peter, , item2, , group1 item3, jane, , so either the acl will give access to a user or a group. Any one line in the ACL table with either have an item - user mapping, or an item group. If I want to have a query that returns all objects a user has access to, I think I need to have a SQL query with a UNION, because I need 2 separate queries that join like.. item - acl - group - user AND item - acl - user This I guess will work OK. Is this how its normally done? Am I doing this the right way? Seems a little messy. I was thinking I could get around it by creating a single user group for each person, so I only ever deal with groups in my SQL, but this seems a little messy as well..

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455  | Next Page >