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  • How to do Grouping using JPA annotation with mapping given field

    - by hemal
    I am using JPA Annotation mapping with the table given below, but having problem that i am doing mapping on same table but on diffrent field given ProductImpl.java @Entity @Table(name = "Product") public class ProductImpl extends SimpleTagGroup implements Product { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private long id = -1; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> tags; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> licenses; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> os; I want to get values like windows and linux in os , GPLv2 and GPLv3 in licenses ,so we are using TagGroup table . but here i got all tagValues in each of the os,licenses and tag fileds,so how could i do group by or some other things with JPA. and ProductTagMapping is the mapping table between Tag and TagGroup TagGroup Table ID TAGGROUPNAME 1 PRODUCTTYPE 2 LICENSE 3 TAGS 4 OS SimpleTag ID TAGVALUE 1 Application 2 Framework 3 Apache2 4 GPLv2 5 GPLv3 6 learning 7 Linux 8 Windows 9 mature

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  • shoulda macros with rspec2 beta 5 and rails3 beta2

    - by Millisami
    I've setup Rspec2 beta5 and shoulda as following to use shoulda macros inside rspec model tests. Gemfile group :test do gem "rspec", ">= 2.0.0.beta.4" gem "rspec-rails", ">= 2.0.0.beta.4" gem 'shoulda', :git => 'git://github.com/bmaddy/ shoulda.git' gem "faker" gem "machinist" gem "pickle", :git => 'git://github.com/codegram/ pickle.git' gem 'capybara', :git => 'git://github.com/jnicklas/ capybara.git' gem 'database_cleaner', :git => 'git://github.com/bmabey/ database_cleaner.git' gem 'cucumber-rails', :git => 'git://github.com/aslakhellesoy/ cucumber-rails.git' end *spec_helper.rb* Dir["#{File.dirname(__FILE__)}/support/**/*.rb"].each {|f| require f} require 'shoulda' Rspec.configure do |config| *spec/models/outlet_spec.rb* require 'spec_helper' describe Outlet do it { should validate_presence_of(:name) } end And when I run the spec, I get the following error. [~/rails_apps/rails3_apps/automation (master)?] ? spec spec/models/ outlet_spec.rb DEPRECATION WARNING: RAILS_ROOT is deprecated! Use Rails.root instead. (called from join at /home/millisami/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%rails3/ bundler/gems/shoulda-87e75311f83548760114cd4188afa4f83fecdc22-master/ lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:40) F 1) Outlet Failure/Error: it { should validate_presence_of(:name) } undefined method `validate_presence_of' for #<Rspec::Core::ExampleGroup::Nested_1:0xc4dc138 @__memoized={}> # ./spec/models/outlet_spec.rb:4:in `block (2 levels) in <top (required)>' Finished in 0.0399 seconds 1 example, 1 failures [~/rails_apps/rails3_apps/automation (master)?] ? Why the "undefined method" ?? Is the shoulda getting loaded?

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  • When does MSBuild set the $(ProjectName) property?

    - by bwerks
    I'm fairly new to MSBuild, and I've done some customization on a Wpf project file that I'm building both in VS2010 and TFS2010. I've customized the output path as follows: <OutputPath Condition=" '$(TeamBuildOutDir)' == '' ">$(SolutionDir)build\binaries\$(ProjectName)\$(Configuration)\$(Platform)</OutputPath> <OutputPath Condition=" '$(TeamBuildOutDir)' != '' ">$(TeamBuildOutDir)binaries\$(ProjectName)\$(Configuration)\$(Platform)</OutputPath> This allows me to build to a centralized binaries directory when building on the desktop, and allows TFS to find the binaries when CI builds are running. However, it seems that in both cases, the $(ProjectDir) property is evaluating to '' at buildtime, which creates strange results. Doing some debugging, it appears as if $(ProjectName) is set by the time BeforeBuild executes, but that my OutputPath property is evaluating it prior to that point. <ProjectNameUsedTooEarly Condition=" '$(ProjectName)' == '' ">true</ProjectNameUsedTooEarly> The preceeding property is in the same property group as my OutputPath property. In the BeforeBuild target, $(ProjectNameUsedTooEarly) evaluates to true, but $(ProjectName) evaluates to the project name as normal by that point. What can I do to ensure that $(ProjectName) has got a value when I use it? edit: I just used Attrice's MSBuild Sidekick to debug through my build file, and in the very first target available for breakpoint (_CheckForInvalidConfigurationAndPlatform) all the properties seem to be set already. ProjectName is already set correctly, but my OutputPath property has already been set using the blank value of ProjectName.

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  • checkbox like radiobutton wpf c#

    - by rockenpeace
    i have investigated this problem but this is solved in design view and code-behind. but my problem is little difference: i try to do this as only code-behind because my checkboxes are dynamically created according to database data.In other words, number of my checkboxes is not stable. i want to check only one checkbox in group of checkboxes. when i clicked one checkbox,i want that ischecked property of other checkboxes become false.this is same property in radiobuttons. i take my checkboxes from a stackpanel in xaml side: <StackPanel Margin="4" Orientation="Vertical" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Name="companiesContainer"> </StackPanel> my xaml.cs: using (var c = new RSPDbContext()) { var q = (from v in c.Companies select v).ToList(); foreach (var na in q) { CheckBox ch = new CheckBox(); ch.Content = na.Name; ch.Tag = na; companiesContainer.Children.Add(ch); } } foreach (object i in companiesContainer.Children) { CheckBox chk = (CheckBox)i; chk.SetBinding(ToggleButton.IsCheckedProperty, "DataItem.IsChecked"); } how can i provide this property in checkboxes in xaml.cs ? thanks in advance..

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  • How to use Common Table Expression and check no duplication in sqlserver

    - by vodkhang
    I have a table references to itself. User table: id, username, managerid and managerid links back to id Now, I want to get all the managers including direct manager, manager of direct manager, so on and so forth... The problem is that I do not want to have a unstop recursive sql. So, I want to check if an id alreay in a list, I will not include it anymore. Here is my sql for that: with --the relation for all the subparts of ozsolar including itself all_managers (id, username, managerid, idlist) as ( --seed that is the ozsola part select u1.id, u1.username, u1.managerid, ' ' from users u1, users u2 where u1.id = u2.managerid and u2.id = 6 UNION ALL select u.id, u.username, u.managerid, idlist + ' ' + u.id from all_managers a, users u where a.managerid = u.id and charindex(cast(u.id as nvarchar(5)), idlist) != 0 ) --select the total number of subparts and group by subpart select id, username from all_managers; The problem is that in this line: select u1.id, u1.username, u1.managerid, ' ' The sqlserver complains with me that I can not put ' ' as the initialized for idlist. nvarchar(40) does not work as well. I do not know how to declare it inside a common table expression like this one. Usually, in db2, I can just put varchar(40)

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  • Android beginner: understanding MotionEvent actions

    - by Dave
    I am having trouble getting my activity to return a MotionEvent.ACTION_UP. Probably a beginner's error. In LogCat, I'm only seeing the ACTION_MOVE event (which is an int value of 3). I also see the X/Y coordinates. No ACTION_DOWN and no ACTION_UP. I looked everywhere for a solution. I found one question on a forum that seems to be the same as my issue, but no solution is proposed: http://groups.google.com/group/android-developers/browse_thread/thread/9a9c23e40f02c134/bf12b89561f204ad?lnk=gst&q=ACTION_UP#bf12b89561f204ad Here's my code: import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.MotionEvent; import android.webkit.WebView; public class Brand extends Activity { public WebView webview; public float currentXPosition; public float currentYPosition; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); webview = new WebView(this); setContentView(webview); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/Brand.html"); } @Override public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent me) { int action = me.getAction(); currentXPosition = me.getX(); currentYPosition = me.getY(); Log.v("MotionEvent", "Action = " + action); Log.v("MotionEvent", "X = " + currentXPosition + "Y = " + currentYPosition); if (action == MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE) { // do something } if (action == MotionEvent.ACTION_UP) { // do something } return true; } }

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  • Avoiding CheckStyle magic number errors in JDBC queries.

    - by Dan
    Hello, I am working on a group project for class and we are trying out CheckStyle. I am fairly comfortable with Java but have never touched JDBC or done any database work before this. I was wondering if there is an elegant way to avoid magic number errors in preparedStatement calls, consider: preparedStatement = connect.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO shows " + "(showid, showtitle, showinfo, genre, youtube)" + "values (default, ?, ?, ?, ?);"); preparedStatement.setString(1, title); preparedStatement.setString(2, info); preparedStatement.setString(3, genre); preparedStatement.setString(4, youtube); result = preparedStatement.executeUpdate(); The setString methods get flagged as magic numbers, so far I just added the numbers 3-10 or so to the ignore list for magic numbers but I was wondering if there was a better way to go about inserting those values into the statement. I also beg you for any other advice that comes to mind seeing that code, I'd like to avoid developing any nasty habits, e.g. should I be using Statement or is PreparedStatement fine? Will that let me refer to column names instead? Is that ideal? etc... Thanks!

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  • Should programmers do Pro Bono work? where are the code public defenders?

    - by Tj Kellie
    How many projects are people doing based on the Bro Bono publico ideals versus working for the highest wage or potential for a cash-in-buy-out payday? For years lawyers have been called out for excessive gathering of wealth from high bill rates and huge settlement deals, hiring out their knowledge and skills to the highest bidders. People call for them to do more for free, use the laws and their time to defend or further some cause thats in the public's best interest. Is professional software development that different? So many bright people and so much knowledge of complex systems. Do you think that there is enough of a "Pro Bono" movement to solve the social and public problems in the industry right now? If so what are the examples to point to? OLPC? NOTE: Saying that open source software is the same as pro bono misses the point completely. I was looking for specific projects with a social context, not just group-sourcing for free software. Just because your not making anyone pay for your software does not mean its doing anyone any good. I'm not calling out manual enforcement of pro bono work for programmers, really just want some objective opinions and concrete examples of social-minded software/tech development projects like the One Laptop Per Child project. I'm sure open source would be a natural tie-in for some.

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  • Cucumber Error: Socket Error for Test Environment Host in REST API

    - by tmo256
    I posted this to the Cucumber group with no replies, which makes me wonder if this is actually a cucumber issue or not. I'm pretty new to cucumber, and there are a number of things I really don't quite understand about how the cucumber environment is set up and executed within the test environment. I have a REST API rails app I'm testing with cucumber, using the RestClient gem to generate a post to controller create action. When I run the feature with a hard-coded URL pointing to a running localhost server (my local dev server environment; replacing tickets_url with "http:// localhost/tickets" in the snippet below), my cucumber steps execute as expected. However, when the resource URL resolves to the cucumber host I'm declaring, I get a socket error exception. getaddrinfo: nodename nor servname provided, or not known (SocketError) From the steps file: When /^POS Adapter sends JSON data to the Tickets resource$/ do ticket = { :ticket = { ... } } host! "test.host" puts tickets_url RestClient.post tickets_url, ticket.to_json, :content_type = :json, :accepts = :json end (the "puts" statement prints "http://test.host/tickets") Using the following gems: cucumber-0.6.1 webrat-0.6.0 rest-client-1.2.0 I should also say I have a similar set up in another rails app, using test.host as my host, and it seems to work fine. I'd appreciate any insight on what I might be missing in my configuration or what this could be related to.

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  • Backreferences in lookbehind

    - by polygenelubricants
    Can you use backreferences in a lookbehind? Let's say I want to split wherever behind me a character is repeated twice. String REGEX1 = "(?<=(.)\\1)"; // DOESN'T WORK! String REGEX2 = "(?<=(?=(.)\\1)..)"; // WORKS! System.out.println(java.util.Arrays.toString( "Bazooka killed the poor aardvark (yummy!)" .split(REGEX2) )); // prints "[Bazoo, ka kill, ed the poo, r aa, rdvark (yumm, y!)]" Using REGEX2 (where the backreference is in a lookahead nested inside a lookbehind) works, but REGEX1 gives this error at run-time: Look-behind group does not have an obvious maximum length near index 8 (?<=(.)\1) ^ This sort of make sense, I suppose, because in general the backreference can capture a string of any length (if the regex compiler is a bit smarter, though, it could determine that \1 is (.) in this case, and therefore has a finite length). So is there a way to use a backreference in a lookbehind? And if there isn't, can you always work around it using this nested lookahead? Are there other commonly-used techniques?

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  • jcarousel, I need :active state on external controls

    - by TJ Sherrill
    I am running a Jcarousel and I want to add a.active to the current pagination option. I have seen other posts around about this same thing. /** * We use the initCallback callback * to assign functionality to the controls */ function mycarousel_initCallback(carousel) { jQuery('.jcarousel-control a').bind('click', function() { carousel.scroll(jQuery.jcarousel.intval(jQuery(this).text())); return false; }); jQuery('#mycarousel-next').bind('click', function() { carousel.next(); return false; }); jQuery('#mycarousel-prev').bind('click', function() { carousel.prev(); return false; }); }; // Ride the carousel... jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("#mycarousel").jcarousel({ scroll: 1, initCallback: mycarousel_initCallback, // This tells jCarousel NOT to autobuild prev/next buttons buttonNextHTML: null, buttonPrevHTML: null }); }); </script> Thats the initialize code and the pagination lives inside: <ul class="jcarousel-control"> <% ([email protected]).each do |n| %> <li><a href="#"> <%= n %></a></li> <% end %> </ul> Its a rails app, so rails is creating the list based on the number of projects in the group. Any ideas? Seems like it should be pretty simple.. But I don't know js at all.

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  • How to implement Master-Detail with Multi-Selection in WPF?

    - by gehho
    Hi, I plan to create a typical Master-Detail scenario, i.e. a collection of items displayed in a ListView via DataBinding to an ICollectionView, and details about the selected item in a separate group of controls (TextBoxes, NumUpDowns...). No problem so far, actually I have already implemented a pretty similar scenario in an older project. However, it should be possible to select multiple items in the ListView and get the appropriate shared values displayed in the detail view. This means, if all selected items have the same value for a property, this value should be displayed in the detail view. If they do not share the same value, the corresponding control should provide some visual clue for the user indicating this, and no value should be displayed (or an "undefined" state in a CheckBox for example). Now, if the user edits the value, this change should be applied to all selected items. Further requirements are: MVVM compatibility (i.e. not too much code-behind) Extendability (new properties/types can be added later on) Does anyone have experience with such a scenario? Actually, I think this should be a very common scenario. However, I could not find any details on that topic anywhere. Thanks! gehho. PS: In the older project mentioned above, I had a solution using a subclass of the ViewModel which handles the special case of multi-selection. It checked all selected items for equality and returned the appropriate values. However, this approach had some drawbacks and somehow seemed like a hack because (besides other smelly things) it was necessary to break the synchronization between the ListView and the detail view and handle it manually.

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  • Alternative to array_shift function

    - by SoLoGHoST
    Ok, I need keys to be preserved within this array and I just want to shift the 1st element from this array. Actually I know that the first key of this array will always be 1 when I do this: // Sort it by 1st group and 1st layout. ksort($disabled_sections); foreach($disabled_sections as &$grouplayout) ksort($grouplayout); Basically I'd rather not have to ksort it in order to grab this array where the key = 1. And, honestly, I'm not a big fan of array_shift, it just takes to long IMO. Is there another way. Perhaps a way to extract the entire array where $disabled_sections[1] is found without having to do a foreach and sorting it, and array_shift. I just wanna add $disabled[1] to a different array and remove it from this array altogether. While keeping both arrays keys structured the way they are. Technically, it would even be fine to do this: $array = array(); $array = $disabled_sections[1]; But it needs to remove it from $disabled_sections. Can I use something like this approach... $array = array(); $array = $disabled_sections[1]; $disabled_sections -= $disabled_sections[1]; Is something like the above even possible?? Thanks.

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  • Visual Studio 2005 to VS 2008

    - by Adi
    hi all, I am a newbie in working on VS IDE and have not much experience in how the different libraries and files are linked in it. I have to build a OpenCV project which was made in VS2005 by one of my colleagues into VS2008. The project is for blob detection. Following is what he has to say in readme : Steps to use the library (using MSVC++ sp 5): 1 - open the project of the library and build it 2 - in the project where the library should be used, add: 2.1 In "Project/Settings/C++/Preprocessor/Additional Include directories" add the directory where the blob library is stored 2.2 In "Project/Settings/Link/Input/Additional library path" add the directory where the blob library is stored and in "Object/Library modules" add the cvblobslib.lib file 3- Include the file "BlobResult.h" where you want to use blob variables. 4- To see an example on using the blob library, see the file example.txt inside the zip file. NOTE: Verify that in the project where the cvblobslib.lib is used, the MFC Runtime Libraries are not mixed: Check in "Project-Settings-C/C++-Code Generation-Use run-time library" of your project and set it to Debug Multithreaded DLL (debug version ) or to Multithreaded DLL ( release version ). 2 Check in "Project-Settings-General" how it uses the MFC. It should be "Use MFC in a shared DLL". NOTE: The library can be compiled and used in .NET using this steps, but the menu options may differ a little NOTE2: In the .NET version, the character sets must be equal in the .lib and in the project. [OpenCV yahoo group: Msg 35500] Can anyone explain me , how to go about in doing this in VS2008. I would also appreciate if someone can explain me how the different libraries are linked , what is Debug, What is Release and all in a Visual Studio project folder we have.\ Thanks in advance Aditya

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  • Application design in Spring MVC

    - by Ravi
    Hello All, I'm new to Spring MVC and trying out a simple project.It will contain a simple adding, viewing, updating and deleting user work flows. It will have login page and once authenticated the user will be taken to a welcome screen which will have links to add, view, update and delete users. Clicking on any of the links will take to individual pages where the user can do the specific tasks. What I'm doing here is, I'm using a MultiActionController to group together all requests related to User work flow. So the request from "Add User" link will handled by the addUser method in the UserController which will redirect the user to the "Add User" page, and the user can then fill in the details and save the new user. Now here is where I'm getting confused. Where should I put the save process of the new user, should I put that in new mehtod inside UserController, or use the same "addUser" method. What is the best way to handle this kind of scenario. I hope I was able to clear my question.

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  • Asynchronous Image loading in certain custom UITableViewCells

    - by Dan
    So, I'm sure that this issue has been brought up before, but I haven't quite seen a solution for my specific problem. What I'm doing is loading a group of custom UITableViewCell's that are drawn using Loren Brichter's solution, each cell has some content, an icon (representing the user) that is asynchronously loaded into it, and a few other things. Eventually, I'm hoping to add support for images. Not every cell has an image, so in the creation of the cell, it determines if an image is required to be loaded and drawn into the cell. My problem is that I don't know how I can do that while keeping the image loaded asynchronously - with not every cell having the need to load an image (like needed with the icon) I'm not sure how to keep it in order when an cell is thrown off screen and re-rendered when the user scrolls over it. Each cell draws it content from an NSArray containing a custom object called FeedItem. All I'm really looking for is some sort of solution or idea to help me because right now I am at a loss. Thanks guys, I will appreciate the help.

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  • Installing mongrel service on Windows 2008

    - by akirekadu
    We use InstallAnywhere to install our product. One of the components that it needs to install is mongrel. IA invokes the following command line during installation: mongrel_rails service::install -N service-1 -D "Service 1" -c "C:\app_dir\\rails\rails_apps\service-1" -p 19000 -e production Apprently under the hoods "sc create..." is used. The installation works great on Windows 2003. On Windows 2008 though this operation requires elevated privileges. When I login as local administrator (ie 'local-machine\administrator' user), the installation works just fine. However, when I login as a domain user that is part of local administrators group, the services fails to install with error "access is denied". How can I make it possible to install the product without having to login as local administrator? Thanks! Couple of notes I would like to add. One solution I tried is to execute the installer as administrator. The service does get installed. However, it creates another problem. An embedded 3rd party product and its files get installed with admin only rights. So we do need to run the installer as logged in user.

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  • Adobe AIR non-Administrator application installation/upgrade on Windows

    - by bzlm
    Is there any way to allow non-Administrator users to install, upgrade or uninstall an Adobe AIR application on Windows? I've made an Adobe AIR application and packaged it as a .air package using the standard AIR mechanism for creating deployment packages. If a normal or Power user tries to install this AIR application, the Application Event Log shows an error saying administrative rights are required. And even if the user elevates during installation, administrative rights are still required for an upgrade using the automated AIR upgrade system (since an upgrade is essentially, behind the scenes, an uninstallation of a .msi package followed by an installation of another .msi package). Is there any way around this? What I've tried so far is: Using the Group Policy editor, setting Windows Installer to elevate during installations. Doesn't work, since AIR attempts a "for all users" installation. Specifying My Documents as the installation directory. Doesn't work, since AIR attempts a "for all users" installation. Giving the user Modify access to the Program Files folder where the application would usually reside. Doesn't work, since this isn't a file permissions issue. Making the user a Power User. Doesn't work, since AIR attempts a "for all users" installation. I'm guessing that both installing and upgrading would work fine for a user if the AIR installer would attempt to make an "only for me" application installation instead of a "for all users" installation, and the user was a Power User, and possibly the application was installed to My Documents I'm also guessing that this problem doesn't exist on OSX and Linux, since they have more intuitive concepts for per-user application installations.

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  • Producing CCITT compressed TIFF from CGImage

    - by Brian Postow
    I have a CGImage (core graphics, C/C++). It's grayscale. Well, originally it was B/W, but the CGImage may be RGB. That shouldn't matter. I want to create a CCITT-Group 4 TIFF. I can create an LZW TIFF (grayscale or color) via creating a destination with the correct dictionary and adding the image in. No problem. However, there doesn't seem to be an equivalent kCGImagePropertyTIFFCompression value to represent CCITT-4. It should be 4, but that produces uncompressed. I have a manual CCITT compression routine, so if I can get the binary (1 bit per pixel) data, I'm set. But I can't seem to get 1 BPP data out of a CGImage. I have code that is supposed to put the CGImage into a CGBitmapContext and then give me the data, but it seems to be giving me all black. I've asked a couple of questions today trying to get at this, but I just figured, lets ask the question I REALLY want answered and see if someone can answer it. There's GOT to be a way to do this. I've got to be missing something dumb. What is it?

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  • Subquery max sequence number

    - by Andy Levesque
    I'm hesitant to ask because I'm sure it's out there, but I just can't seem to come up with the keywords to find the answer. I'm stepping outside my boundaries by starting with subqueries (normally an Access user). I have a query that has TECH_ID, SEQ_NBR, and PELL_FT_AWD_AMT SELECT ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.TECH_ID, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.AWD_YR, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.PELL_FT_AWD_AMT, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.SEQ_NBR FROM ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT GROUP BY ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.TECH_ID, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.AWD_YR, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.PELL_FT_AWD_AMT, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.SEQ_NBR HAVING (((ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.AWD_YR)="2013")) ORDER BY ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.TECH_ID; What I want to return is add a subquery that selects only the max SEQ_NUM for each record, but I can't seem to get the syntax right. In the past I would cheat and have a separate query that first gave me the TECH_ID and max SEQ_NUM, and then have a second query that use the original table and the first query in a join to get the rest. How can I do this in one query? Example: TECH_ID SEQ_NUM PELL 1 1 4000 1 2 4000 1 3 5000 Using just the max of the sequence number still returns: 1; 2; 4000 and 1; 3; 5000 when I'm only wanting the latter.

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  • mocking collection behavior with Moq

    - by Stephen Patten
    Hello, I've read through some of the discussions on the Moq user group and have failed to find an example and have been so far unable to find the scenario that I have. Here is my question and code: // 6 periods var schedule = new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>() { new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(1).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(2).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(3).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(4).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(5).ToString()) }; // Now the proxy is correct with the schedule helper.Setup(h => h.GetPlanPeriods(It.IsAny<String>(), schedule)); Then in my tests I use Periods but the Mocked _PaymentPlanHelper never populates the collection, see below for usage: public IEnumerable<PaymentPlanPeriod> Periods { get { if (CanCalculateExpression()) _PaymentPlanHelper.GetPlanPeriods(this.ToString(), _PaymentSchedule); return _PaymentSchedule; } } Now if I change the mocked object to use another overloaded method of GetPlanPeriods that returns a List like so : var schedule = new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>() { new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(1).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(2).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(3).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(4).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(5).ToString()) }; helper.Setup(h => h.GetPlanPeriods(It.IsAny<String>())).Returns(new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>(schedule)); List<PaymentPlanPeriod> result = new _PaymentPlanHelper.GetPlanPeriods(this.ToString()); This works as expected. Any pointers would be awesome, as long as you don't bash my architecture... :) Thank you, Stephen

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  • Error while splitting application context file in spring

    - by Krupal
    I am trying to split the ApplicationContext file in Spring. For ex. the file is testproject-servlet.xml having all the entries. Now I want to split this single file into multiple files according to logical groups like : group1-services.xml, group2-services.xml I have created following entries in web.xml : <servlet> <servlet-name>testproject</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/group1-services.xml, /WEB-INF/group2-services.xml </param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> I am using SimpleUrlHandlerMapping as: RegisterController PayrollServicesController I also have the controller defined as : .. .. The problem is that I have splitted the ApplicationContext file "testproject-servlet.xml" into two different files and I have kept the above entries in "group1-services.xml". Is it fine? I want to group things logically based on their use in seperate .xml files. But I am getting the following error when I try to access a page inside the application : org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping for [/TestProject/payroll_services.htm] in DispatcherServlet with name 'testproject' Please tell me how to resolve it. Thanks in Advance !

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  • mysql: Average over multiple columns in one row, ignoring nulls

    - by Sai Emrys
    I have a large table (of sites) with several numeric columns - say a through f. (These are site rankings from different organizations, like alexa, google, quantcast, etc. Each has a different range and format; they're straight dumps from the outside DBs.) For many of the records, one or more of these columns is null, because the outside DB doesn't have data for it. They all cover different subsets of my DB. I want column t to be their weighted average (each of a..f have static weights which I assign), ignoring null values (which can occur in any of them), except being null if they're all null. I would prefer to do this with a simple SQL calculation, rather than doing it in app code or using some huge ugly nested if block to handle every permutation of nulls. (Given that I have an increasing number of columns to average over as I add in more outside DB sources, this would be exponentially more ugly and bug-prone.) I'd use AVG but that's only for group by, and this is w/in one record. The data is semantically nullable, and I don't want to average in some "average" value in place of the nulls; I want to only be counting the columns for which data is there. Is there a good way to do this? Ideally, what I want is something like UPDATE sites SET t = AVG(a*a_weight,b*b_weight,...) where any null values are just ignored and no grouping is happening.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: How to write this Linq SQL as a Dynamic Query (using strings)?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Skip to the "specific question" as needed. Some background: The scenario: I have a set of products with a "drill down" filter (Query Object) populated with DDLs. Each progressive DDL selection will further limit the product list as well as what options are left for the DDLs. For example, selecting a hammer out of tools limits the Product Sizes to only show hammer sizes. Current setup: I created a query object, sent it to a repository, and fed each option to a SQL "table valued function" where null values represent "get all products". I consider this a good effort, but far from DDD acceptable. I want to avoid any "programming" in SQL, hopefully doing everything with a repository. Comments on this topic would be appreciated. Specific question: How would I rewrite this query as a Dynamic Query? A link to something like 101 Linq Examples would be fantastic, but with a Dynamic Query scope. I really want to pass to this method the field in quotes "" for which I want a list of options and how many products have that option. (from p in db.Products group p by p.ProductSize into g select new Category { PropertyType = g.Key, Count = g.Count() }).Distinct(); Each DDL option will have "The selection (21)" where the (21) is the quantity of products that have that attribute. Upon selecting an option, all other remaining DDLs will update with the remaining options and counts.

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  • What is happening in this T-SQL code?

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

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