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  • How do you pass a BitmapImage from a background thread to the UI thread in WPF?

    - by DanM
    I have a background thread that generates a series of BitmapImage objects. Each time the background thread finishes generating a bitmap, I would like to show this bitmap to the user. The problem is figuring out how to pass the BitmapImage from the background thread to the UI thread. This is an MVVM project, so my view has an Image element: <Image Source="{Binding GeneratedImage}" /> My view-model has a property GeneratedImage: private BitmapImage _generatedImage; public BitmapImage GeneratedImage { get { return _generatedImage; } set { if (value == _generatedImage) return; _generatedImage= value; RaisePropertyChanged("GeneratedImage"); } } My view-model also has the code that creates the background thread: public void InitiateGenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { ThreadStart generatorThreadStarter = delegate { GenerateImages(coordinates); }; var generatorThread = new Thread(generatorThreadStarter); generatorThread.ApartmentState = ApartmentState.STA; generatorThread.IsBackground = true; generatorThread.Start(); } private void GenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { foreach (var coordinate in coordinates) { var backgroundThreadImage = GenerateImage(coordinate); // I'm stuck here...how do I pass this to the UI thread? } } I'd like to somehow pass backgroundThreadImage to the UI thread, where it will become uiThreadImage, then set GeneratedImage = uiThreadImage so the view can update. I've looked at some examples dealing with the WPF Dispatcher, but I can't seem to come up with an example that addresses this issue. Please advise.

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

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  • Dynamic/Generic ViewModelBase?

    - by Shimmy
    I am learning MVVM now and I understand few things (more than but few are here..): Does every model potentially exposed (thru a VM) to the View is having a VM? For example, if I have a Contact and Address entity and each contact has an Addresses (many) property, does it mean I have to create a ContactViewModel and an AddressViewModel etc.? Do I have to redeclare all the properties of the Model again in the ViewModel (i.e. FirstName, LastName blah blah)? why not have a ViewModelBase and the ContactViewMode will be a subclass of ViewModelBase accessing the Entity's properties itself? and if this is a bad idea that the View has access to the entity (please explain why), then why not have the ViewModelBase be a DynamicObject (view the Dictionary example @ the link page), so I don't have to redeclare all the properties and validation over and over in the two tiers (M & VM) - because really, the View is anyway accessing the ViewModel's fields via reflection anyway. I think MVVM was the hardest technology I've ever learned. it doesn't have out-the-box support and there are to many frameworks and methods to achieve it, and in the other hand there is no arranged way to learn it (as MVC for instance), learning MVVM means browsing and surfing around trying to figure out what's better. Bottom line, what I mean by this section is please go and vote to MSFT to add MVVM support in the BCL and generators for VMs and Vs according to the Ms. Thanks

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  • SSL signed certificates for internal use

    - by rogueprocess
    I have a distributed application consisting of many components that communicate over TCP (for examle JMS) and HTTP. All components run on internal hardware, with internal IP addresses, and are not accessible to the public. I want to make the communication secure using SSL. Does it make sense to purchase signed certificates from a well-known certificate authority? Or should I just use self-signed certs? My understanding of the advantage of trusted certs is that the authority is an entity that can be trusted by the general public - but that is only an issue when the general public needs to be sure that the entity at a particular domain is who they say they are. Therefore, in my case, where the same organization is responsible for the components at both ends of the communication, and everything in between, a publicly trusted authority would be pointless. In other words, if I generate and sign a certificate for my own server, I know that it's trustworthy. And no one from outside the organization will ever be asked to trust this certificate. That is my reasoning - am I correct, or is there some potential advantage to using certs from a known authority?

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop application?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

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  • Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

    - by Cian
    I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

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  • Return latitude/longitude based on entered address

    - by Don
    I'm building a php based application for a client to enter in addresses for their customers' buildings. They'd like the ability to view the location on a map (either as individuals or grouped in a city search). What I'm trying to accomplish is a lookup once the address is entered into a form that populates the database, so after they enter in the addresss, city, state, zip (these are all US locations) they could click a "get lat/long info" link/button that would check to make sure the data is complete, then would lookup the address and return the latitude/longitude into the appropriate form fields. Then the form could be submitted to store the info, and I could later just pull the lat/long when plotting on a map. 1) Does this make sense, or would I be better off just doing the lookup when it's time to plot it? 2) Does anyone have any pointers to solve this problem? I've seen some of the Google/Yahoo API's but it looks like this is more based on the plotting a point part. I may be able to modify it to suit my needs, but I'm just trying to cut some research time posting here with the hopes one of you may have a more direct route. I'll RTFM if I have to... Thanks, D.

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  • Block facebook from my website

    - by Joseph Szymborski
    I have a secure link direction service I'm running (expiringlinks.co). If I change the headers in php to redirect my visitors, then facebook is able to show a preview of the website I'm redirecting to when users send links to one another via facebook. I wish to avoid this. Right now, I'm using an AJAX call to get the URL and javascript to redirect, but it's causing problems for users who don't use javascript. Here are a number of ways I'd like to block facebook, but I can't seem to get working: I've tried blocking the facebook bot (facebookexternalhit/1.0 and facebookexternalhit/1.1) but it's not working, I don't think they're using them for this functionality. I'm thinking of blocking the facebook IP addresses, but I can't find all of them, and I don't think it'll work unless I get all of them. I've thought of using a CAPTCHA or even a button, but I can't bring myself to do that to my visitors. Not to mention I don't think anyone would use the site. I've searched the facebook docs for meta tags that would "opt-me out", but haven't found one, and doubt that I would trust it if I had. Any creative ideas or any idea how to implement the ones above? Thank you so much in advance!

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  • Sharepoint user details not visible to other users

    - by richardoz
    I am managing a SharePoint site that uses Form Based Authentication. We have several generic lists, document libraries and active task lists that users can create update and delete. Users can use the people pickers to select/search for everyone. But the users cannot see other users names, email addresses etc. in display lists or the people pickers. If I log in as the site collection administrator, I can see everyones details. So I know the data is available. Updated details on this problem (non-administrators) SharePoint users cannot see other users information. Example: User A assigns a task to user B. User A creates a new task and uses the people picker to find user B. User B is only visible by the login name “bname” and any information about user B is not visible or searchable within the people picker. Once user B is assigned the task, user A no longer sees the name in the task list – even though user A created it. No modified by, created by, assigned to or owner field data is visible to non-administrator users. Facts: Extranet site is configured to use Forms Based Authentication. Intranet uses windows based authentication Users of both the intranet and extranet have the same problem All databases are local The site uses SSRS integration SharePoint WSS on Windows 2003 Std -- After activating the verbose logging it looks like SharePoint is definately asking SQL server for only the user info for the currently logged in user: SELECT TOP 6 /lots-of-columns/ FROM UserData INNER MERGE JOIN Docs AS t1 ON ( 1 = 1 AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t1.SiteId = UserData.tp_SiteId AND t1.SiteId = @L2 AND t1.DirName = UserData.tp_DirName AND t1.LeafName = UserData.tp_LeafName AND t1.Level = UserData.tp_Level AND t1.IsCurrentVersion = 1 AND (1 = 1) ) LEFT OUTER JOIN AllUserData AS t2 ON ( UserData.[tp_Author]=t2.[tp_ID] AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t2.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND ( (t2.tp_IsCurrent = 1) ) AND t2.[tp_CalculatedVersion] = 0 AND t2.[tp_DeleteTransactionId] = 0x AND t2.tp_ListId = @L3 AND UserData.tp_ListId = @L4 AND t2.[tp_Author]=162 /* this is the currently logged in user */ ) WHERE (UserData.tp_IsCurrent = 1) AND UserData.tp_SiteId=@L2 AND (UserData.tp_DirName=@DN) AND UserData.tp_RowOrdinal=0 AND ( ( (UserData.[datetime1] IS NULL ) OR (UserData.[datetime1] = @L5DTP) ) AND t1.SiteId=@L2 AND (t1.DirName=@DN) ) ORDER BY UserData.[tp_Modified] Desc, UserData.[tp_ID] Asc Again, any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Java Regex for matching hexadecimal numbers in a file

    - by Ranman
    So I'm reading in a file (like java program < trace.dat) which looks something like this: 58 68 58 68 40 c 40 48 FA If I'm lucky but more often it has several whitespace characters before and after each line. These are hexadecimal addresses that I'm parsing and I basically need to make sure that I can get the line using a scanner, buffered reader... whatever and make sure I can then convert the hexadecimal to an integer. This is what I have so far: Scanner scanner = new Scanner(System.in); int address; String binary; Pattern pattern = Pattern.compile("^\\s*[0-9A-Fa-f]*\\s*$", Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE); while(scanner.hasNextLine()) { address = Integer.parseInt(scanner.next(pattern), 16); binary = Integer.toBinaryString(address); //Do lots of other stuff here } //DO MORE STUFF HERE... So I've traced all my errors to parsing input and stuff so I guess I'm just trying to figure out what regex or approach I need to get this working the way I want.

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  • How can I get type information at runtime from a DMP file in a Windbg extension?

    - by pj4533
    This is related to my previous question, regarding pulling objects from a dmp file. As I mentioned in the previous question, I can successfully pull object out of the dmp file by creating wrapper 'remote' objects. I have implemented several of these so far, and it seems to be working well. However I have run into a snag. In one case, a pointer is stored in a class, say of type 'SomeBaseClass', but that object is actually of the type 'SomeDerivedClass' which derives from 'SomeBaseClass'. For example it would be something like this: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : Ptr32 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass I need someway to find out what the ACTUAL type of 'field1' is. To be more specific, using example addresses: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : 0cae2e24 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass 0:000> dt SomeBaseClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeBaseClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 0:000> dt SomeDerivedClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeDerivedClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 +0x040 derivedfield1 : 357 +0x044 derivedfield2 : timecode_t When I am in WinDbg, I can do this: dt 0x02de89e4 And it will show the type: 0:000> dt 0x02de89e4 SomeDerivedClass::`vftable' Symbol not found. But how do get that inside an extension? Can I use SearchMemory() to look for 'SomeDerivedClass::`vftable'? If you follow my other question, I need this type information so I know what type of wrapper remote classes to create. I figure it might end up being some sort of case-statement, where I have to match a string to a type? I am ok with that, but I still don't know where I can get that string that represents the type of the object in question (ie SomeObject-field1 in the above example).

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  • Distinct or group by on some columns but not others

    - by Nazadus
    I have a view that I'm trying to filter with something similar to DISTINCT on some columns but not others. I have a view like this: Name LastName Zip Street1 HouseholdID (may not be unique because it may have multiple addresses -- think of it in the logical sense as grouping persons but not physical locations; If you lookup HouseholdID 4130, you may get two rows.. or more, because the person may have mutiple mailing locations) City State I need to pull all those columns but filter on LastName,Zip, and Street1. Here's the fun part: The filter is arbitrary -- meaning I don't care which one of the duplicates goes away. This is for a mail out type thing and the other information is not used for any other reason than than to look up a specific person if needed (I have no idea why). So.. given one of the records, you can easily figure out the removed ones. As it stands now, my Sql-Fu fails me and I'm filtering in C# which is incredibly slow and is pretty much a foreach that starts with an empty list and adds the row in if the combined last name, zip, and street aren't are not in the list. I feel like I'm missing a simple / basic part of SQL that I should be understanding.

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  • XSLT for-each from query results

    - by Ben Record
    I've been on a hunt for a while trying to find a solution to this but I cannot find anywhere that addresses this problem. I'm running a SQL query through XSLT which will return three rows. Here is the query: <query name="OrderedProductNames" rowElementName ="OrderedItem"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select OrderedProductName, Quantity from Orders_ShoppingCart where OrderNumber = 101689 // Hard coded order number for testing purposes. ]]> </sql> </query> Ideally, I would like to iterate through each row returned and do a choose when which is tested on a variable from the current row being inspected in the for-each loop, but I am not entirely sure thhis is possible. My secondary thought would be to use the for-each loop as a way to inject hidden HTML input elements with the values I would need, then I could write a javascript function to complete what I'm trying to do. Any suggestion on how I would go about completing either task would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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  • How to add dimensions to dynamic img elements (Updated)

    - by Mohammad
    I use a Json call to get a list of image addresses, then I add them individually to a div like this. Unfortunately the image dimension is not part of the Json information. <div id="container"> <img src="A.jpg" alt="" /> <img src="B.jpg" alt="" /> ... </div> Do any of you JQuery geniuses know of a code that would flawlessly and dynamically add the true Width and Height to each img element in the container as soon as each individual one is rendered? I was thinking maybe the code could do a image width check width > 0 to evaluate when the image has actually been rendered, then fire. But I wouldn't know how to go about that and make it work stably. How is the best way of going about this? Thank you so much! Update, As the answers point out, adding Width or Height to the elements is pretty routine. The problem here is actually writing a code that would know when to do that. And evaluate that condition for each image not the page as a whole.

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  • removing phone number from a document.

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I've got a challenge that I am hoping that the SO community is able to help me with. I trying to parse a lot of html documents in my PHP application to remove personal details, such as names, addresses and phone numbers. I can remove most of these details without too much trouble, however the phone number is a real problem for me. My idea is to take the text from these documents and the use a regex to identify the phone numbers and replace them with another value such as 'xxxx'. I've got 2 regex that I am using one for UK landline numbers and one for UK cell/mobile numbers. However when I try and run them against the text it just returns an empty string. I am using the following preg_replace code: $pattens = array( '/^(((\+44\s?\d{4}|\(?0\d{4}\)?)\s?\d{3}\s?\d{3})|((\+44\s?\d{3}|\(?0\d{3}\)?)\s?\d{3}\s?\d{4})|((\+44\s?\d{2}|\(?0\d{2}\)?)\s?\d{4}\s?\d{4}))(\s?\#(\d{4}|\d{3}))?$/', '/^(\+44\s?7\d{3}|\(?07\d{3}\)?)\s?\d{3}\s?\d{3}$/' ); $replace = array('xxxxx', 'xxxxx'); //do the search for the numbers. $updatedContents = preg_replace($pattens, $replace, $htmlContents); At the moment this is causing me a lot of head scratching as I thought that I had this nailed, but at the moment I can't see what's wrong?? I am sure that it is something really simple. Thanks, Grant

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  • In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

    - by Harold Bamford
    First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • c++ struct size

    - by kiokko89
    struct CExample { int a; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { CExample ce; CExample ce2; cout << "Size:" << sizeof(ce)<< " Address: "<< &ce<< endl; cout << "Size:" << sizeof(ce2)<< " Address: "<< &ce2 << endl; CExample ceArr[2]; cout << "Size:" << sizeof(ceArr[0])<< " Address: "<<&ceArr[0]<<endl; cout << "Size:" << sizeof(ceArr[1])<< " Address: "<<&ceArr[1]<<endl; return 0; } Excuse me I'm just a beginner but i'd like to know why with this code, there is a difference of 12 bytes between the addresses of the first two objects(ce and ce2) (i thought about data allignment), but there is only a difference of 4 bytes between the two objects in the array. Sorry for my bad English...

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  • How to delete a row from a typed dataset and save it to a database?

    - by Zingam
    I am doing this as a small project to learn about disconnected and connected models in .NET 4.0 and SQL Server 2008 R2. I have three tables: Companies (PK CompanyID) Addresses (PK AddressID, FK CompanyID) ContactPersons (PK ContactPersonID, FK CompanyID) CompanyID is assigned manually by the users. The other IDs are auto-generated. Companies has a one-to-many relationship with ContactPerson. I have set any changes to cascade. I display all records in Companies in a DataGridView and when a row is clicked, the corresponding records in ContactPersons are displayed in a second DataGridView. I have successfully implemented updating and inserting new records but I completely fail in my attempts to delete rows and save the changes to the database. I us a typed dataset. If I use this: DataRow[] contactPersonRows = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Select("ContactPersonID = " + this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Remove(contactPersonRows[0]); The records are displayed properly in the DataGridView but are not saved in the database later. If I use this: DataRow row = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Find(this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); row.Delete(); The records are set but I get an exeception: DeletedRowInaccessibleException, when I try to refresh the DataGridView. The exception pop-s up in the auto-generated dataset.design file. I am pretty much stuck at this point since yesterday. I cannot find anything anywhere that remotely resembles my problem. And I cannot understand actually what is going on.

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  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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  • Freestanding ARM C++ Code - empty .ctors section

    - by Matthew Iselin
    I'm writing C++ code to run in a freestanding environment (basically an ARM board). It's been going well except I've run into a stumbling block - global static constructors. To my understanding the .ctors section contains a list of addresses to each static constructor, and my code simply needs to iterate this list and make calls to each function as it goes. However, I've found that this section in my binary is in fact completely empty! Google pointed towards using ".init_array" instead of ".ctors" (an EABI thing), but that has not changed anything. Any ideas as to why my static constructors don't exist? Relevant linker script and objdump output follows: .ctors : { . = ALIGN(4096); start_ctors = .; *(.init_array); *(.ctors); end_ctors = .; } .dtors : { . = ALIGN(4096); start_dtors = .; *(.fini_array); *(.dtors); end_dtors = .; } -- 2 .ctors 00001000 8014c000 8014c000 00054000 2**2 CONTENTS, ALLOC, LOAD, DATA <snip> 8014d000 g O .ctors 00000004 start_ctors <snip> 8014d000 g O .ctors 00000004 end_ctors I'm using an arm-elf targeted GCC compiler (4.4.1).

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  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

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