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  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

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  • Error handling in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi guys, We're building a PHP app based on Good old MVC (codeigniter framework) and have run into trouble with a massive chained action that consists of multiple model calls, that together is a part of a big transaction to the database. We want to be able to do a list of actions and get a status report of each one back from the function, whatever the outcome is. Our first initial idea was to utilize the exceptions of PHP5, but since we want to also need status messages that doesnt break the execution of the script, this was our solution that we came up with. It goes a little something like this: $sku = $this->addSku( $name ); if ($sku === false) { $status[] = 'Something gone terrible wrong'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } $image= $this->addImage( $filename); if ($image=== false) { $error[] = 'Image could not be uploaded, check filesize'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } Our controller looks like this: $var = $this->products->addProductGroup($array); if (is_array($var)) { foreach ($var as $error) { echo $error . '<br />'; } } It appears to be a very fragile solution to do what we need, but it's neither scalable, neither effective when compared to pure PHP exceptions for instance. Is this really the way that this kind of stuff generally is handled in MVC based apps? Thanks!

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  • How to design a RESTful collection resource?

    - by Suresh Kumar
    I am trying to design a "collection of items" resource. I need to support the following operations: Create the collection Remove the collection Add a single item to the collection Add multiple items to the collection Remove a single item from the collection Remove multiple items from the collection This is as far as I have gone: Create collection: ==> POST /service Host: www.myserver.com Content-Type: application/xml <collection name="items"> <item href="item1"/> <item href="item2"/> <item href="item3"/> </collection> <== 201 Created Location: http://myserver.com/service/items Content-Type: application/xml ... Remove collection: ==> DELETE /service/items <== 200 OK Removing a single item from the collection: ==> DELETE /service/items/item1 <== 200 OK However, I am finding supporting the other operations a bit tricky i.e. what methods can I use to: Add single or multiple items to the collection. (PUT doesn't seem to be right here as per HTTP 1.1 RFC Remove multiple items from the collection in one transaction. (DELETE doesn't seem to right here either)

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • How do i pass arbitary date format from C# to sql backend

    - by Jims
    I have a datetime field for the transaction date in the back end. So I am passing that date from front C#.net, in the below format: 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 to do this I have written: presentation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); PropertyClass prp=new PropertyClass(); Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); PropertyClass structure: Public class property { private DateTime transdate; public DateTime TransDate { get { return transdate; } set { transdate = value; } } } From DAL layer passing the TransactionDate like this: Cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@TranSactionDate”, SqlDbType.DateTime).value=propertyobj.TransDate; While debugging from presntation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); in this I am getting correct expected date format, but when debugs goes to this line Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); again date format changing to 1/1/2011. But my backend sql datefield wants the date paramter 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 in this format otherwise throwing exception invalid date format. Note: While passing date as string without converting to datetime getting exceptions like: System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlTypeException: SqlDateTime overflow. Must be between 1/1/1753 12:00:00 AM and 12/31/9999 11:59:59 PM. at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromTimeSpan(TimeSpan value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromDateTime(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime..ctor(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.FromDateTime(DateTime dateTime, Byte cb) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.WriteValue(Object value, MetaType type, Byte scale, Int32 actualLength, Int32 encodingByteSize, Int32 offset, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc)

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  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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  • PayPal IPN "FAIL"

    - by Rob
    Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

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  • .Net Entity objectcontext thread error

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an n-layered asp.net application which returns an object from my DAL to the BAL like so: public IEnumerable<SourceKey> Get(SourceKey sk) { var query = from SourceKey in _dataContext.SourceKeys select SourceKey; if (sk.sourceKey1 != null) { query = from SourceKey in query where SourceKey.sourceKey1 == sk.sourceKey1 select SourceKey; } return query.AsEnumerable(); } This result passes through my business layer and hits the UI layer to display to the end users. I do not lazy load to prevent query execution in other layers of my application. I created another function in my DAL to delete objects: public void Delete(SourceKey sk) { try { _dataContext.DeleteObject(sk); _dataContext.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message + " " + ex.StackTrace + " " + ex.InnerException); } } When I try to call "Delete" after calling the "Get" function, I receive this error: New transaction is not allowed because there are other threads running in the session This is an ASP.Net app. My DAL contains an entity data model. The class in which I have the above functions share the same _dataContext, which is instantiated in my constructor. My guess is that the reader is still open from the "Get" function and was not closed. How can I close it?

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  • I find a problem with sending receiving parameter

    - by kawtousse
    how to get the xml translation to html dropdownlist with ajax. I send the parameter with GET method but the JSP FILE THAT GENERATES THE XML DONT RECEIVE IT. var url="responsexml.jsp"; url=url+"?projectCode="+prj.options[prj.selectedIndex].value; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); and then in responsexml.jsp I do like that: <% String projectcode= (String)request.getParameter("projectCode"); System.out.println("++++projectCode:=" +projectcode); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s = HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx = s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("SELECT from Wa wa where wa.ProjectCode='"+projectcode+"'"); response.setContentType("text/xml"); PrintWriter output = response.getWriter(); output.write( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>"); //response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); //constriure le xml if(projectcode!=null) { for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Wa object=(Wa)it.next(); //out.print( "<item id=\"" +object.getIdWA() + "\" name=\"" + object.getWAName() + "\" />"); output.write("<wa>"); output.write( "<item id=\"" + object.getIdWA() + "\" name=\"" + object.getWAName() + "\" />"); output.write("</wa>"); } } } } catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } %> </body> </html> With this code I dont have my xml file. I got this error: The server did not understand the request, or the request was invalid. Erreur de traitement de la ressource http://www.w3.o... PLEASE HELP.

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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  • mysql and trigger usage question

    - by dhruvbird
    I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • What's the best way to learn .NET?

    - by duffymo
    I've been developing Java EE for quite a while now. I've used WebLogic, Tomcat, Spring, and Hibernate extensively, so I have a mental model of what features are available and how things are developed and deployed. The problem that I have with .NET is that I don't have a clear mapping of its features onto Java EE. Here's what I know so far: Java EE - .NET Java - C# JAR - DLL WAR - ? (deployment in general) EAR - ? (deployment in general) Tomcat - IIS web server JSP - ASP? JDBC - ODBC JMS - MSMQ JTA - Microsoft Transaction Manager So much of the functionality that WebLogic handles appears to be dispersed throughout the Windows OS. My confusion kicks in when I see the waves of books at Borders - VB.NET, ASP.NET, C#, etc. If I'm not a VB programmer, would it be possible to stick with C# and write enterprise apps that are the equivalent of what I'm used to with Java EE? If there were a Top Three list of books to learn from, what would they be? The "Head First" series has certainly been successful for Java. http://www.amazon.com/Head-First-C-Brain-Friendly-Guides/dp/0596514824/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8&s=books&qid=1224121193&sr=8-1 Equally well recommended for .NET learning? Thanks. - %

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  • NHibernate slow mapping

    - by Rob A
    My question is what can I do to determine the cause of the slowness, or what can I do to speed it up without knowing the exact cause. I am running a simple query and it appears that the mapping back to the entities is taking taking forever. The result set is 350, which is not much data in my opinion. IRepository repo = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRepository>(); var q = repo.Query<Order>(item => item.Ordereddate > DateTime.Now.AddDays(-40)); foreach (var order in q) { Console.WriteLine(order.TransactionNumber); } The profiler is telling me it is executing the query 7ms / 35257ms, I am assuming that the former is the actual response from the db and the latter is the time it takes NH to do it's magic. 35 seconds is too long. This is a simple mapping, one table, nested components, using fluent interface to do mappings. I just start up a simple console app and run the one query, the slowness is measured after the SessionFactory is initialized, there should only be one session, and I am not using a transaction. Thanks

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  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

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  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

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  • Google Analytics Script inside XML File

    - by mnml
    Hi, I would like to know If I can add my ecommerce analytics tags inside an xml formated file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes" ?> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); _gaq.push(['_addTrans', '1234', // order ID - required 'Acme Clothing', // affiliation or store name '11.99', // total - required '1.29', // tax '5', // shipping 'San Jose', // city 'California', // state or province 'USA' // country ]); // add item might be called for every item in the shopping cart // where your ecommerce engine loops through each item in the cart and // prints out _addItem for each _gaq.push(['_addItem', '1234', // order ID - required 'DD44', // SKU/code 'T-Shirt', // product name 'Green Medium', // category or variation '11.99', // unit price - required '1' // quantity - required ]); _gaq.push(['_trackTrans']); //submits transaction to the Analytics servers (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script>

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  • Payment gateways and XSS

    - by Rowan Parker
    Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

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  • How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

    - by shane
    I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

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  • Android - Temporal & Ancestral Navigation with ViewPager & Fragments

    - by rascuache
    I'm trying to work out the best way to implement the 'ancestral' and 'temporal' navigation (utilising the up button and back buttons), for a music player I'm working on. Currently, the user is presented with a viewpager, and can page between three main fragments (ArtistMain, AlbumMain and SongMain). Upon choosing an item inside that view, a fragment transaction occurs, and the viewpager goes out of view, replaced by a new fragment (AlbumSub, Songsub or player, depending on where the user came from). The user can then navigate deeper, until a song is chosen, and then they are taken to the 'player' screen. I guess the question is: How do I implement all of this conditional navigation? I'm fairly new to android and programming in general, and I just can't seem to come up with an efficient way to achieve this. At the moment, as each fragment is brought into view, the app is checking to see where the user just came from, and then determines where the user should be taken if back or home is called. This means I have a booleans like "fromArtistMain", "fromAlbumSub", and I'm checking for things like "fromSongSub && fromPlayer".. it's all turning into a bit of a mess. I've drawn a diagram (in paint, sorry!!), to depict the navigation I'm trying to achieve. The yellow represents the 'up' button press, the red is the 'back' button press, and blue is just normal navigation. The green arrows are meant to represent the view paging: Any advice is welcome. It might take something really simple that I've just overlooked. Thanks for your time.

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  • how to set the output image use com.android.camera.action.CROP

    - by adi.zean
    I have code to crop an image, like this : public void doCrop(){ Intent intent = new Intent("com.android.camera.action.CROP"); intent.setType("image/"); List<ResolveInfo> list = getPackageManager().queryIntentActivities(intent,0); int size = list.size(); if (size == 0 ){ Toast.makeText(this, "Cant find crop app").show(); return; } else{ intent.setData(selectImageUri); intent.putExtra("outputX", 300); intent.putExtra("outputY", 300); intent.putExtra("aspectX", 1); intent.putExtra("aspectY", 1); intent.putExtra("scale", true); intent.putExtra("return-data", true); if (size == 1) { Intent i = new Intent(intent); ResolveInfo res = list.get(0); i.setComponent(new ComponentName(res.activityInfo.packageName, res.activityInfo.name)); startActivityForResult(i, CROP_RESULT); } } } public void onActivityResult (int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent dara){ if (resultCode == RESULT_OK){ if (requestCode == CROP_RESULT){ Bundle extras = data.getExtras(); if (extras != null){ bmp = extras.getParcelable("data"); } File f = new File(selectImageUri.getPath()); if (f.exists()) f.delete(); Intent inten3 = new Intent(this, tabActivity.class); startActivity(inten3); } } } from what i have read, the code intent.putExtra("outputX", 300); intent.putExtra("outputY", 300); is use to set the resolution of crop result, but why i can't get the result image resolution higer than 300x300? when i set the intent.putExtra("outputX", 800); intent.putExtra("outputY", 800); the crop function has no result or crash, any idea for this situation? the log cat say "! ! ! FAILED BINDER TRANSACTION ! ! !

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  • Global hotkey capture in VB.net

    - by ggonsalv
    I want to have my app which is minimized to capture data selected in another app's window when the hot key is pressed. My app definitely doesn't have the focus. Additionally when the hot key is pressed I want to present a fading popup (Outlook style) so my app never gets focus. At a minimum I want to capture the Window name, Process ID and the selected data. The app which has focus is not my application? I know one option is to sniff the Clipboard, but are there any other solutions. This is to audit the rate of data-entry in to another system of which I have no control. It is a mainframe emulation client program(attachmate). The plan is complete data entry in Application X. Select a certain section of the screen in App X which is proof of data entry (transaction ID). Press the Magic Hotkey, which then 'sends' the selection to my App. From System.environment or system.Threading I can find the Windows logon. Similiarly I can also capture the time. All the data will be logged to SQL. Once Complete show Outlook style pop up saying the data entry has been logged. Any thoughts.

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  • Hibernate noob fetch join problem

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

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  • delete vs execSQL commands android

    - by erik
    so i have a databas, SQLiteDatabase db I am writing a couple private methods in my manager class that will be called by a public method: public void updateData (MakeabilityModel newData){ SQLiteDatabase db = this.getWritableDatabase(); db.beginTransaction(); try { reWriteSVTable(db, list); db.setTransactionSuccessful(); } catch (Exception e){ //TODO through rollback message? e.printStackTrace(); } finally { db.endTransaction(); } } //Private Methods private void clearTable(SQLiteDatabase db, String table){ db.delete(table, null, null); } private void reWriteSVTable(SQLiteDatabase db, List<MakeabilityLens> lenses){ clearTable(db, singleVision); ContentValues cv; for(int i=0; i<lenses.size(); i++){ cv = new ContentValues(); cv.put(colScreenID, hsID); cv.put(colIconID, id); cv.put(colRank, hsTotal); db.insert(isLookUp, colID, cv); } } My question is this.. i want to be able to throw sql exceptions back to the public method so that if there is an exception, it will kill the transaction and rollback ALL data.. it appears that using delete() and insert() methods are cleaner than execSQL() but don't throw sqlExceptions. execSQL() on the other hand does? do i need to uses execSQL and how do i insure that hsould it throws an exception in any of the private methods that it will catch it and roll it back in the private method

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