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• Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

  - by Ross

  I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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• Generate MetaData with ANT

  - by Neil Foley

  I have a folder structure that contains multiple javascript files, each of these files need a standard piece of text at the top = //@include "includes.js" Each folder needs to contain a file named includes.js that has an include entry for each file in its directory and and entry for the include file in its parent directory. I'm trying to achive this using ant and its not going too well. So far I have the following, which does the job of inserting the header but not without actually moving or copying the file. I have heard people mentioning the <replace> task to do this but am a bit stumped. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="JavaContentAssist" default="start" basedir="."> <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antcontrib.properties"> <classpath> <pathelement location="C:/dr_workspaces/Maven Repository/.m2/repository/ant-contrib/ant-contrib/20020829/ant-contrib-20020829.jar"/> </classpath> </taskdef> <target name="start"> <foreach target="strip" param="file"> <fileset dir="${basedir}"> <include name="**/*.js"/> <exclude name="**/includes.js"/> </fileset> </foreach> </target> <target name="strip"> <move file="${file}" tofile="${a_location}" overwrite="true"> <filterchain> <striplinecomments> <comment value="//@" /> </striplinecomments> <concatfilter prepend="${basedir}/header.txt"> </concatfilter> </filterchain> </move> </target> </project> As for the generation of the include files in the dir I'm not sure where to start at all. I'd appreciate if somebody could point me in the right direction.

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• Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

  - by Leron

  The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

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• How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

  - by Vincent

  Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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• Some clarification on rvalue references

  - by Dennis Zickefoose

  First: where are std::move and std::forward defined? I know what they do, but I can't find proof that any standard header is required to include them. In gcc44 sometimes std::move is available, and sometimes its not, so a definitive include directive would be useful. When implementing move semantics, the source is presumably left in an undefined state. Should this state necessarily be a valid state for the object? Obviously, you need to be able to call the object's destructor, and be able to assign to it by whatever means the class exposes. But should other operations be valid? I suppose what I'm asking is, if your class guarantees certain invariants, should you strive to enforce those invariants when the user has said they don't care about them anymore? Next: when you don't care about move semantics, are there any limitations that would cause a non-const reference to be preferred over an rvalue reference when dealing with function parameters? void function(T&); over void function(T&&); From a caller's perspective, being able to pass functions temporary values is occasionally useful, so it seems as though one should grant that option whenever it is feasible to do so. And rvalue references are themselves lvalues, so you can't inadvertently call a move-constructor instead of a copy-constructor, or something like that. I don't see a downside, but I'm sure there is one. Which brings me to my final question. You still can not bind temporaries to non-const references. But you can bind them to non-const rvalue references. And you can then pass along that reference as a non-const reference in another function. void function1(int& r) { r++; } void function2(int&& r) { function1(r); } int main() { function1(5); //bad function2(5); //good } Besides the fact that it doesn't do anything, is there anything wrong with that code? My gut says of course not, since changing rvalue references is kind of the whole point to their existence. And if the passed value is legitimately const, the compiler will catch it and yell at you. But by all appearances, this is a runaround of a mechanism that was presumably put in place for a reason, so I'd just like confirmation that I'm not doing anything foolish.

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• A better UPDATE method in LINQ to SQL

  - by Refracted Paladin

  The below is a typical, for me, Update method in L2S. I am still fairly new to a lot of this(L2S & business app development) but this just FEELs wrong. Like there MUST be a smarter way of doing this. Unfortunately, I am having trouble visualizing it and am hoping someone can provide an example or point me in the right direction. To take a stab in the dark, would I have a Person Object that has all these fields as Properties? Then what, though? Is that redundant since L2S already mapped my Person Table to a Class? Is this just 'how it goes', that you eventually end up passing 30 parameters(or MORE) to an UPDATE statement at some point? For reference, this is a business app using C#, WinForms, .Net 3.5, and L2S over SQL 2005 Standard. Here is a typical Update Call for me. This is in a file(BLLConnect.cs) with other CRUD methods. Connect is the name of the DB that holds tblPerson When a user clicks save() this is what is eventually called with all of these fields having, potentially, been updated-- public static void UpdatePerson(int personID, string userID, string titleID, string firstName, string middleName, string lastName, string suffixID, string ssn, char gender, DateTime? birthDate, DateTime? deathDate, string driversLicenseNumber, string driversLicenseStateID, string primaryRaceID, string secondaryRaceID, bool hispanicOrigin, bool citizenFlag, bool veteranFlag, short ? residencyCountyID, short? responsibilityCountyID, string emailAddress, string maritalStatusID) { using (var context = ConnectDataContext.Create()) { var personToUpdate = (from person in context.tblPersons where person.PersonID == personID select person).Single(); personToUpdate.TitleID = titleID; personToUpdate.FirstName = firstName; personToUpdate.MiddleName = middleName; personToUpdate.LastName = lastName; personToUpdate.SuffixID = suffixID; personToUpdate.SSN = ssn; personToUpdate.Gender = gender; personToUpdate.BirthDate = birthDate; personToUpdate.DeathDate = deathDate; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseNumber = driversLicenseNumber; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseStateID = driversLicenseStateID; personToUpdate.PrimaryRaceID = primaryRaceID; personToUpdate.SecondaryRaceID = secondaryRaceID; personToUpdate.HispanicOriginFlag = hispanicOrigin; personToUpdate.CitizenFlag = citizenFlag; personToUpdate.VeteranFlag = veteranFlag; personToUpdate.ResidencyCountyID = residencyCountyID; personToUpdate.ResponsibilityCountyID = responsibilityCountyID; personToUpdate.EmailAddress = emailAddress; personToUpdate.MaritalStatusID = maritalStatusID; personToUpdate.UpdateUserID = userID; personToUpdate.UpdateDateTime = DateTime.Now; context.SubmitChanges(); } }

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• SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

  - by Workshop Alex

  I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

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• User Defined Exceptions with JMX

  - by Daniel

  I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

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• Blending pixels from Two Bitmaps

  - by MarkPowell

  I'm beating my head against a wall here, and I'm fairly certain I'm doing something stupid, so time to make my stupidity public. I'm trying to take two images, blend them together into a third image using standard blending algorithms (Hardlight, softlight, overlay, multiply, etc). Because Android does not have such blend properties build in, I've gone down the path of taking each pixel and combine them using an algorithm. However, the results are garbage. Any help would be appreciated. Below is the code, which I've tried to strip out all the "junk", but some may have made it through. I'll clean it up if something isn't clear. Bitmap src = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.base, options); Bitmap mutableBitmap = src.copy(Bitmap.Config.RGB_565, true); int imageId = getResources().getIdentifier("drawable/" + filter, null, getPackageName()); Bitmap filterBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), imageId, options); float scaleWidth = ((float) mutableBitmap.getWidth()) / filterBitmap.getWidth(); float scaleHeight = ((float) mutableBitmap.getHeight()) / filterBitmap.getHeight(); IntBuffer buffSrc = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffSrc); buffSrc.rewind(); IntBuffer buffFilter = IntBuffer.allocate(resizedFilterBitmap.getWidth() * resizedFilterBitmap.getHeight()); resizedFilterBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffFilter); buffFilter.rewind(); IntBuffer buffOut = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); buffOut.rewind(); while (buffOut.position() < buffOut.limit()) { int filterInt = buffFilter.get(); int srcInt = buffSrc.get(); int alphaValueFilter = Color.alpha(filterInt); int redValueFilter = Color.red(filterInt); int greenValueFilter = Color.green(filterInt); int blueValueFilter = Color.blue(filterInt); int alphaValueSrc = Color.alpha(srcInt); int redValueSrc = Color.red(srcInt); int greenValueSrc = Color.green(srcInt); int blueValueSrc = Color.blue(srcInt); int alphaValueFinal = convert(alphaValueFilter, alphaValueSrc); int redValueFinal = convert(redValueFilter, redValueSrc); int greenValueFinal = convert(greenValueFilter, greenValueSrc); int blueValueFinal = convert(blueValueFilter, blueValueSrc); int pixel = Color.argb(alphaValueFinal, redValueFinal, greenValueFinal, blueValueFinal); buffOut.put(pixel); } buffOut.rewind(); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer(buffOut); BitmapDrawable drawable = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), mutableBitmap); imageView.setImageDrawable(drawable); } int convert (int in1, int in2) { //simple multiply for example return in1 * in2 / 255; }

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• When is ¦ not equal to ¦?

  - by Trey Jackson

  Background. I'm working with netlists, and in general, people specify different hierarchies by using /. However, it's not illegal to actually use a / as a part of an instance name. For example, X1/X2/X3/X4 might refer to instance X4 inside another instance named X1/X2/X3. Or it might refer an instance named X3/X4 inside an instance named X2 inside an instance named X1. Got it? There's really no "regular" character that cannot be used as a part of an instance name, so you resort to a non-printable one, or ... perhaps one outside of the standard 0..127 ASCII chars. I thought I'd try (decimal) 166, because for me it shows up as the pipe: ¦. So... I've got some C++ code which constructs the path name using ¦ as the hierarchical separator, so the path above looks like X1¦X2/X3¦X4. Now the GUI is written in Tcl/Tk, and to properly translate this into human readable terms I need to do something like the following: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set humanreadable [join [split $path ¦] /] Basically, replace the ¦ with / (I could also accomplish this with [string map]). Now, the problem is, the ¦ in the string I get from C++ doesn't match the ¦ I can create in Tcl. i.e. This fails: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 string match $path [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] Visually, the two strings look identical, but string match fails. I even tried using scan to see if I'd mixed up the bit values. But set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set path2 [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] for {set i 0} {$i < [string length $path]} {incr i} { set p [string range $path $i $i] set p2 [string range $path2 $i $i] scan %c $p c scan %c $p2 c2 puts [list $p $c :::: $p2 $c2 equal? [string equal $c $c2]] } Produces output which looks like everything should match, except the [string equal] fails for the ¦ characters with a print line: ¦ 166 :::: ¦ 166 equal? 0 For what it's worth, the character in C++ is defined as: const char SEPARATOR = 166; Any ideas why a character outside the regular ASCII range would fail like this? When I changed the separator to (decimal) 28 (^\), things worked fine. I just don't want to get bit by a similar problem on a different platform. (I'm currently using Redhat Linux).

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• Rails send mail with GMail

  - by Danny McClelland

  Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

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• RAD Visual Web Application Creator/ Builder/ Designer for PHP

  - by inhoue

  Hi all, I want to see if any of you know a (free and open source will be ideal) tool/ app that can help build a php web application very quickly without investing too much time on writing codes, preferring drag and drop/ point and click work-flow designer for logic design (see Agile from Outsystems below). Plus, visual designer for the business logic is great since it can help a developer visualize the logic better. There are a lot of GUI builders, form builders out there, but I am looking for one app for the entire web application development process. My goal is to find an application that a team of developers can use together and use the build-in code of the app as much as possible. E.g. the app will provide a modular just for handle user login or a shopping cart; a developer just need to drag and drop the modular to the logic designer and the code will be generated. This way the functionality will be in a module and code will always be standard across developers. So if a new developer get on-board, he will just need to use the system and get up and running quickly. To explain this better: there is a lot php frameworks, e.g. cakephp, CodeIgniter, etc which I can use to help coding, but still I need to create (code) the GUI, writing quite a bit of codes. I am looking for a tool/ app that is a little more high level than those frameworks. Here is 2 examples apps I found during my google search which they have visual logic designer and gui builder in one single app. Also a single click deployment (but I need it to be php apps or at least I can deploy the (php) code to a LAMP/ WAMP server): Wavemaker: for JAVA Agile from Outsystems: for JAVA or .net (This one is really good, with work-flow drag and drop logic designer!) Talend: it is just an ETL tool, but the concept is what I want to bring up. Drag and drop, point and click logic design. Custom code can be added if it is needed, but the drag and drop process already finished the structure and most of the coding of the web app one needs to build. I want to list Adobe Flex, but it is more like a GUI designer + IDE, not exactly what I want to describe here. The drag and drop/ work-flow logic designer is a key for the app. I could go for the CMS route by learning how to extend them, but it is not that flexible for me and is a long learning curve. Anybody came across this type of app before? Or any idea of how can I find those apps? I googled them for long time, I don't see any of them for php and just few (just 2) for Java. Thanks in advance!

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• Approach for authentication and storing user details.

  - by cappuccino

  Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

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• Implementing coroutines in Java

  - by JUST MY correct OPINION

  This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

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• markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

  - by spirytus

  For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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• HTML-like GUI Framework in Java

  - by wintermute

  I was recently brought onto a project where we are developing a lot GUI elements for BlackBerry devices. The standard RIM APIs are pretty basic, almost never do what is required and are difficult or impossible to extend, so we end up re-implementing chunks of it. Currently the code we have isn't super organized and factored so there are lots of little tricks that get implemented over and over again. I had a thought about how to aid development efforts on this platform and wanted to see if the community could tell me if I'm still sane or if I've gone totally nuts. By far, the biggest organizational problem I've run into is making sure that each screen is laid out properly with proper padding and such. The current approach is to manually keep track of padding like so: protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { final int padding = 5; int y = padding; int x = padding; layoutChild(_someChild, width - padding * 2, height / 3 - padding * 2); setPositionChild(_someChild, x, y); y += _someChild.getHeight() + padding; // Calculate where to start drawing next. /* ... snipped ... */ } As you can see, positioning elements on a screen is a nightmare due to the tedium. I have investigated other GUI frameworks but, for a variety of reasons, it is difficult to find one that suites our purposes. One potential solution that came to me is to create a GUI framework who's API resembles HTML/CSS. This would allow for things like padding, margins, borders and colours to be handled through a sort of CSS API while the content would be organized using the HTML part of the API. It might look something like this: public class OptionsScreen extends Document { public OptionsScreen() { // You would set the style (like CSS style) through the constructor. Div content = new Div(new Style(new Padding(5), Color.BLACK)); // Then build up a tree of elements which can each have their own style's. // Each element knows how to draw itself, but it doesn't have to worry about // manually handling things like padding. // content.addChild(new P("This is a paragraph", new Style(new Padding(), Color.RED))); Ul list = new Ul(); list.addChild(new Li("item 1")); list.addChild(new Li("item 2")); content.addChild(list); addChild(content); } } I can imagine this making it easier to customize the UI of our app (which is very important) with different fonts, colours and layouts. Does this idea belong on The Daily WTF or do you think there is some promise?

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• If we don't like it for the presentation layer, then why do we tolerate it for the behavior layer?

  - by greim

  Suppose CSS as we know it had never been invented, and the closest we could get was to do this: <script> // this is the page's stylesheet $(document).ready(function(){ $('.error').css({'color':'red'}); $('a[href]').css({'textDecoration':'none'}); ... }); </script> If this was how we were forced to write code, would we put up with it? Or would every developer on Earth scream at browser vendors until they standardized upon CSS, or at least some kind of declarative style language? Maybe CSS isn't perfect, but hopefully it's obvious how it's better than the find things, do stuff method shown above. So my question is this. We've seen and tasted of the glory of declarative binding with CSS, so why, when it comes to the behavioral/interactive layer, does the entire JavaScript community seem complacent about continuing to use the kludgy procedural method described above? Why for example is this considered by many to be the best possible way to do things: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.widget').append("<a class='button' href='#'>...</div>"); $('a[href]').click(function(){...}); ... }); </script> Why isn't there a massive push to get XBL2.0 or .htc files or some kind of declarative behavior syntax implemented in a standard way across browsers? Is this recognized as a need by other web development professionals? Is there anything on the horizon for HTML5? (Caveats, disclaimers, etc: I realize that it's not a perfect world and that we're playing the hand we've been dealt. My point isn't to criticize the current way of doing things so much as to criticize the complacency that exists about the current way of doing things. Secondly, event delegation, especially at the root level, is a step closer to having a declarative behavior layer. It solves a subset of the problem, but it can't create UI elements, so the overall problem remains.)

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• Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed"

  - by aron

  My site was working fine with PayPal's sandbox, and then all of a sudden it stopped. Now I get the wonderful error Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed" This is my HTML: <body onload="document.Paypal.submit();"> <!-- item_number should get passed back --> <form name="Paypal" method="post" action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com cgi-bin/webscr" id="Paypal"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwUKLTkyNTEyNzc0NGRk0LKGvSMTla6LgHpbOsdk7iC0iXE=" /> </div> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWCALKhatPArLPtrsEAreImG4CweeH+AkCgMPhowcC+NaM4gQC+Y2VqwoCouzSnwEVXI9UvQxqI2UcdQ4SmcSWqfEZNw==" /> </div> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_cart" /> <input type="hidden" name="upload" value="1" /> <!-- The following is for itemized PayPal data instead of the aggregated version --> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_1" value="LEADING SKILLS 4/10/2012 6:00 PM Section: Members " /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_1" value="250.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="quantity_1" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="handling_cart" value="7.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="tax_cart" value="35.00" /> <!-- STANDARD DATA --> <input name="business" type="hidden" id="business" value="[email protected]" /> <input name="invoice" type="hidden" id="invoice" value="TS-1E8B59A0-B" /> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="0" /> <input name="currency_code" type="hidden" id="currency_code" value="USD" /> <input name="shipCountry" type="hidden" id="shipCountry" /> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/paypal/Complete.aspx?id=db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="cancel_returnUrl" type="hidden" id="cancel_returnUrl" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/ShoppingCart.aspx" /> <input type="hidden" name="cn" value="How did you hear about us?" /> <input name="custom" type="hidden" id="custom" value="db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="notify_url" type="hidden" id="notify_url" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/Paypal/IPN.aspx" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit Payment Info" style="display:none;" /> Processing Order.... </form> </body> Anyone have a clue what happened?

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• Greasemonkey is getting an empty document.body on select Google pages.

  - by Brock Adams

  Hi, I have a Greasemonkey script that processes Google search results. But it's failing in a few instances, when xpath searches (and document body) appear to be empty. Running the code in Firebug's console works every time. It only fails in a Greasemonkey script. Greasemonkey sees an empty document.body. I've boiled the problem down to a test, greasemonkey script, below. I'm using Firefox 3.5.9 and Greasemonkey 0.8.20100408.6 (but earlier versions had the same problem). Problem: Greasemonkey sees an empty document.body. Recipe to Duplicate: Install the Greasemonkey script. Open a new tab or window. Navigate to Google.com (http://www.google.com/). Search on a simple term like "cats". Check Firefox's Error console (Ctrl-shift-J) or Firebug's console. The script will report that document body is empty. Hit refresh. The script will show a good result (document body found). Note that the failure only reliably appears on Google results obtained this way, and on a new tab/window. Turn javascript off globally (javascript.enabled set to false in about:config). Repeat steps 2 thru 5. Only now the Greasemonkey script will work. It seems that Google javascript is killing the DOM tree for greasemonkey, somehow. I've tried a time-delayed retest and even a programmatic refresh; the script still fails to see the document body. Test Script: // // ==UserScript== // @name TROUBLESHOOTING 2 snippets // @namespace http://www.google.com/ // @description For code that has funky misfires and defies standard debugging. // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== // function LocalMain (sTitle) { var sUserMessage = ''; //var sRawHtml = unsafeWindow.document.body.innerHTML; //-- unsafeWindow makes no difference. var sRawHtml = document.body.innerHTML; if (sRawHtml) { sRawHtml = sRawHtml.replace (/^\s\s*/, ''). substr (0, 60); sUserMessage = sTitle + ', Doc body = ' + sRawHtml + ' ...'; } else { sUserMessage = sTitle + ', Document body seems empty!'; } if (typeof (console) != "undefined") { console.log (sUserMessage); } else { if (typeof (GM_log) != "undefined") GM_log (sUserMessage); else if (!sRawHtml) alert (sUserMessage); } } LocalMain ('Preload'); window.addEventListener ("load", function() {LocalMain ('After load');}, false);

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• Check to see if CallResponder is processing

  - by Travesty3

  I'm using Flash Builder 4.6. As a simple example, say I have the following application: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:sdk="services.sdk.*"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { // ... } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <sdk:SDK id="sdk" fault="{Alert.show(event.fault.faultString +'\n\n'+ event.fault.faultDetail, 'SDK ERROR');}" showBusyCursor="false"/> <s:CallResponder id="getValueResult" result="getValueResultHandler()"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button id="btnGetValue" click="btnGetValue_clickHandler()" label="Get Value" /> </s:Application> So when you click on the button, it calls a PHP file and when it gets a result, it calls getValueResultHandler(). Easy enough. But what if the response from the PHP file takes a second or two and the user clicks the button rapidly? Then the result handler function may not get called every time, since the call responder gets a new token before it received the last response. Is there a standard way of resolving this issue? I came up with the following workaround, and it works fine, but it seems like this issue would be common enough to have a more built-in solution. My workaround is: var getValueResultProcessing:Boolean = false; private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { var interval:uint = setInterval(function():void { if (!getValueResultProcessing) { getValueResultProcessing = true; getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); clearInterval(interval); } }, 100); getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { getValueResultProcessing = false; // ... } Any better way of resolving this issue?

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• color objects in C or C ++ [closed]

  - by jazz

  Possible Duplicate: Colors in C language i copied a game from a book which name is paratrooper i ask this question again i also provide the code of the objects which i create there i want to change the color of these objects but i didn't understand how to do that so can any one plz help me how to do that.Listen guys they are not the standard functions but i use the graphics library for these functions and i can't find the function in the library file of graphics. i hope u understand know.this code will not run properly so plz tell me something about the function which color it i can't put the image other wize i show u the image it will make alot easieer #include "graphics.h" #include "stdio.h" #include "conio.h" #include "process.h" #include "alloc.h" #include "stdlib.h" #include "math.h" #include "dos.h" main() { int gm=CGAHI, gd=CGA, key=0, area; initgraph(&gd, &gm, "C:\\tc\\bgi"); helidraw(246,50,-1); getch(); return 0; } helidraw ( int x, int y, int d ) { int direction, i, j ; if ( d ) direction = -1 ; else direction = 1 ; i = 3 ; j = 8 ; line ( x - j - 8, y - i - 2, x + j + 8, y - i - 2 ) ; line ( x - j + 5, y - i - 1, x + j - 5, y - i - 1 ) ; line ( x - j, y - i, x + j, y - i ) ; for ( ; i > 0 ; i--, j += 2 ) { putpixel ( x - ( direction * j ), y - i, 1 ) ; line ( x + ( direction * j ), y - i, x + ( direction * ( j - 8 ) ), y - i ) ; } i = 0 ; j -= 2 ; line ( x - ( direction * j ), y - i, x - ( direction * ( j + 17 ) ), y - i ) ; line ( x - ( direction * j ), y - i + 1, x - ( direction * ( j + 7 ) ), y - i + 1 ) ; putpixel ( x - ( direction * ( j + 19 ) ), y - i - 1, 1 ) ; for ( ; i < 3 ; i++, j -= 2 ) { putpixel ( x - j, y + i, 1 ) ; putpixel ( x + j, y + i, 1 ) ; } line ( x - j, y + i, x + j, y + i ) ; putpixel ( x - j + 3, y + i + 1, 1 ) ; putpixel ( x + j - 3, y + i + 1, 1 ) ; line ( x - j - 10, y + i + 2, x + j + 10, y + i + 2 ) ; putpixel ( x + ( direction * ( j + 12 ) ), y + i + 1, 1 ) ; }

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• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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• How to override loading a TImage from the object inspector (at run-time)?

  - by Mawg

  Further to my previous question, which did not get a useful answer despite a bounty, I will try rephrasing the question. Basically, when the user clicks the ellipsis in the object inspector, Delphi opens a file/open dialog. I want to replace this handling with my own, so that I can save the image's path. I would have expected that all I need to do is to derive a class from TImage and override the Assign() function, as in the following code. However, when I do the assign function is never called. So, it looks like I need to override something else, but what? unit my_Image; interface uses Classes, ExtCtrls, Jpeg, Graphics; type Tmy_Image = class(Timage) private FPicture : TPicture; protected procedure OnChange(Sender: TObject); public { Public declarations } Constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; procedure SetPicture(picture : TPicture); procedure Assign(Source: TPersistent); override; published { Published declarations - available in the Object Inspector at design-time } property Picture : TPicture read FPicture write SetPicture; end; // of class Tmy_Image() procedure Register; implementation uses Controls, Dialogs; procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Standard', [Tmy_Image]); end; Constructor Tmy_Image.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; // Call the parent Create method Hint := 'Add an image from a file|Add an image from a file'; // Tooltip | status bar text AutoSize := True; // Control resizes when contents change (new image is loaded) Height := 104; Width := 104; FPicture := TPicture.Create(); self.Picture.Bitmap.LoadFromResourceName(hInstance, 'picture_poperty_bmp'); end; procedure Tmy_Image.OnChange(Sender: TObject); begin Constraints.MaxHeight := Picture.Height; Constraints.MaxWidth := Picture.Width; Self.Height := Picture.Height; Self.Width := Picture.Width; end; procedure Tmy_Image.SetPicture(picture : TPicture); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.SetPicture', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; procedure Tmy_Image.Assign(Source: TPersistent); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.Assign', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; end.

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• WPF ClickOnce Bootstrap Dection Failure on One Machine

  - by Dexter Morgan

  Hello Friend, I've decided to use ClickOnce technology to deploy my new WPF application. By and large, ClickOnce works as advertised but I've hit a minor glitch regarding Bootstrapping and framework detection. Some background: - I'm using the standard Visual Studio-generated publish.htm page as my launch page. - The only prerequisite is the .NET Framework 4.0 Client Profile. - All clients using IE 8. - All clients already have the .NET 4.0 Client Profile installed. ClickOnce works as advertised on the vast majority of machines. The VS-generated JScript correctly detects that the framework is installed and presents the user with a Run button. The app launches just fine. I'm getting odd results on one of the machines, however. On the offending machine, the VS-generated JScript tells the user that the prereqs may not be installed -- or rather, it FAILS to detect that the framework is already installed. The "launch" link successfully launches the application but the Run link points to the bootstrapper setup.exe. Why is it failing to detect the framework on this one machine? It occurred to me that framework detection is largely a matter of examining the useragent string that's submitted by the browser. So, what you see below are two UserAgent strings. The first is from a machine where things are working properly. The second is from the offending machine. THIS ONE WORKS: 2011-01-11 15:14:14 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 72.130.187.100 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+Media+Center+PC+5.0;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+.NET4.0C) 304 0 0 THIS ONE DOESN'T: 2011-01-11 18:49:12 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 76.212.204.169 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+GTB6.6;+SLCC2;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+Media+Center+PC+6.0;+.NET4.0C) 200 0 0 The useragent string of both machines clearly states, "hey the .NET 4.0 client profile is installed here" -- yet the second machine seems unable to detect it. I don't know enough about useragent strings to understand why the former works and the latter fails. The only difference as far as I can tell is that the offending machine is running 64bit. But that shouldn't make a difference. Should it? Any ideas? Dexter Morgan

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• SQL Server architecture guidance

  - by Liam

  Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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