Search Results

Search found 33204 results on 1329 pages for 'id u'.

Page 460/1329 | < Previous Page | 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467  | Next Page >

  • how to write css for nth child in css

    - by steven spielberg
    <div id="boxcontent"> <div>some content this div may be missing [dynamic genrated]</div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> <div id="boxcontent"> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> <div id="boxcontent"> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> <div class="elem"></div> </div> i want to write some css on every 3rd div who have class .elem if i try nth-child to select them then sometime they select other. How i can select 3rd .elem class div when parent div have some other div as child or not. any way to select 3rd div who have class .elem

    Read the article

  • Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

    - by Martin Ongtangco
    hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How to validate an Ajax form with a specified UpdateTargetID?

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm trying to figure out how to show validation errors after a user submits an Ajax form that has its UpdateTargetID property set. I'm stumped on how to update the Ajax form with the validation errors without returning the Create PartialView into the results div. If the form is valid, then it should return the Records PartialView. Create.ascx <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Create", "Record", New Record With {.UserID = Model.UserID}, New AjaxOptions With { .UpdateTargetId = "results", .LoadingElementId = "loader" })%> Date Located <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated) %> Description <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.Description) %> <input id="btnSave" type="submit" value="Create" /> <span id="loader" class="loader">Saving...</span> <%End Using%> Records.ascx <div id="results"> ... </div> RecordController.vb Function Create(ByVal newRecord As Record) As ActionResult ValidateRecord(newRecord) If Not ModelState.IsValid Then Return PartialView("Create", newRecord) End If _repository.Add(newRecord) _repository.Save() Dim user = _repository.GetUser(newRecord.UserID) Return PartialView("Records", user) End Function

    Read the article

  • Horizontally and Vertically Center Modal Div IE Issue

    - by aherrick
    I'm trying to horizontally and vertically center a modal window inside a div. I want it to be cross browser compatible. You can see from the picture below that when I resize IE8 then click, "show modal" button it displays not exactly horizontally centered. This does not seem to be an issue with Chrome. Any thoughts? How would you guys accomplish this? <html> <head> <title>test</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#modal').click(function() { // overlay $('<div id="overlay" />').css({ position: 'absolute', top: 0, left: 0, width: '100%', height: '100%', backgroundColor: 'black', opacity: 0 }).appendTo('body'); $('<div id="datamodal" />').css({ backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', border: '10px solid #999', height: '200px', width: '600px', position: 'absolute', top: '50%', left: '50%', marginTop: '-120px', marginLeft: '-320px', color: '#111111', fontWeight: 'bold', padding: '10px', display: 'none' }).append('<input type="text" />').appendTo('#overlay'); $('#overlay').fadeTo(300, 0.7); $('#datamodal').fadeIn(300); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input id="modal" type="button" value="show modal" /> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Django: Named URLs / Same Template, Different Named URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a webapp that lists all of my artists, albums and songs when the appropriate link is clicked. I make extensive use of generic views (object_list/detail) and named urls but I am coming across an annoyance. I have three templates that pretty much output the exact same html that look just like this: {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="content"> <ul id="starts-with"> {% for starts_with in starts_with_list %} <li><a href="{% url song_list_x starts_with %}">{{ starts_with|upper }}</a></li> {% endfor %} </ul> <ul> {% for song in songs_list %} <li>{{ song.title }}</li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock content %} My artist and album template look pretty much the same and I'd like to combine the three template's into one. The fact that my variables start with song can easily be changed to the default obj. It's my <ul id="starts-with"> named url I don't know how to correct. Obviously I want it to link to a specific album/artist/song using the named urls in my urls.py but I don't know how to make it context aware. Any suggestions? urlpatterns = patterns('tlkmusic.apps.tlkmusic_base.views', # (r'^$', index), url(r'^artists/$', artist_list, name='artist_list'), url(r'^artists/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', artist_list, name='artist_list_x'), url(r'^artist/(?P<artist_id>\d+)/$', artist_detail, name='artist_detail'), url(r'^albums/$', album_list, name='album_list'), url(r'^albums/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', album_list, name='album_list_x'), url(r'^songs/$', song_list, name='song_list'), url(r'^songs/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', song_list, name='song_list_x'), )

    Read the article

  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

    Read the article

  • Architecture with NHibernate and Repositories

    - by Matthew
    I've been reading up on MVC 2 and the recommended patterns, so far I've come to the conclusion (amongst much hair pulling and total confusion) that: Model - Is just a basic data container Repository - Provides data access Service - Provides business logic and acts as an API to the Controller The Controller talks to the Service, the Service talks to the Repository and Model. So for example, if I wanted to display a blog post page with its comments, I might do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = PostService.GetComments(post); Or, would I do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = post.Comments; If so, where is this being set, from the repository? the problem there being its not lazy loaded.. that's not a huge problem but then say I wanted to list 10 posts with the first 2 comments for each, id have to load the posts then loop and load the comments which becomes messy. All of the example's use "InMemory" repository's for testing and say that including db stuff would be out of scope. But this leaves me with many blanks, so for a start can anyone comment on the above?

    Read the article

  • PDO bindparam not working.

    - by jim
    I am trying to save data into a database using PDO. All columns save correctly with the exception of one. No matter what I try, I cannot get the data to go in. myfunc($db, $data) { echo $data; // <----- Outputs my data. example: 'jim jones' $stmt = $db->prepare("CALL test(:id, :data, :ip, :expires)"); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':ip', $ip, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':expires', $expires, PDO::PARAM_STR); ... } So even after verifying that the data variable in fact holds my data, the bindParam method will not bind. When I echo the data variable, I can see the data is there. It will not save though. If I copy the echo'd output of the data variable to screen and paste it into a new variable, it WILL save. I'm at this now for a couple of hours. Can someone please have a look? EDIT: I want to also mention that I have tried using bindValue() in place of bindParam() and the data for the data variable will still not save.

    Read the article

  • How to append text in php

    - by user225269
    I have this form for inputting the birthday in html. But I only have a single column for storing it in wampserver(Column Birthday). <select title="- Select Month -" name="mm" id="mm" class="" > <option value="" SELECTED >Month</option> <option value="1" >Jan</option> <option value="2" >Feb</option> <option value="3" >Mar</option> <option value="4" >Apr</option> <option value="5" >May</option> <option value="6" >Jun</option> <option value="7" >Jul</option> <option value="8" >Aug</option> <option value="9" >Sep</option> <option value="10" >Oct</option> <option value="11" >Nov</option> <option value="12" >Dec</option> </select> <input title="Day" type="text" onkeypress="return isNumberKey(event)" name="dd" value="" size="1" maxlength="2" id='numbers'/ > <input title="Year" type="text" onkeypress="return isNumberKey(event)" name="yyyy" value="" size="1" maxlength="4" id='numbers'/> </td> Do you have any idea on how I can place those 3 values in the same column?Please help

    Read the article

  • jQuery Autocomplete & jTemplates - handling response

    - by Diegos Grace
    Has anyone had any experience with using jTemplates to display autocomplete results. I have the following $("#address-search").autocomplete({ source: "/Address/SearchAddress", minLength: 2, delay: 400, focus: function (event, ui) { $('#address-search').val(ui.item.name); return false; }, parse: function(data) { $("#autocomplete-results").setTemplate($("#templateHolder").html()); $("#autocomplete-results").processTemplate(data); }, select: function (event, ui) { $('#address-search').val(ui.item.name); $('#search-address-id').val(ui.item.id); $('#search-description').html(ui.item.address); }); and the simple jtemplate holder: <script type="text/html" id="templateHolder"> <ul class="autocomplete"> {#foreach $T as data} <li>{$T.name}</li> {#/for} </ul> </script> Above i'm using 'Parse' to format results, I've also tried the autocomplete result method but not having any luck so far. The only success I've had is by using the private method ._renderItem and formatting the data that way but we want to render the output using the jTemplate. Any advice appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

    - by Aparna
    I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Does NHibernate LINQ support ToLower() in Where() clauses?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have an entity and its mapping: public class Test { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } public class TestMap : EntityMap<Test> { public TestMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Description); } } I'm trying to run a query on it (to grab it out of the database): var keyword = "test" // this is coming in from the user keyword = keyword.ToLower(); // convert it to all lower-case var results = session.Linq<Test> .Where(x => x.Name.ToLower().Contains(keyword)); results.Count(); // execute the query However, whenever I run this query, I get the following exception: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index Am I right when I say that, currently, Linq to NHibernate does not support ToLower()? And if so, is there an alternative that allows me to search for a string in the middle of another string that Linq to NHibernate is compatible with? For example, if the user searches for kap, I need it to match Kapiolani, Makapuu, and Lapkap.

    Read the article

  • org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: TABLE NAME is not mapped

    - by Coronatus
    I have two models, Item and ShopSection. They have a many-to-many relationship. @Entity(name = "item") public class Item extends Model { @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<ShopSection> sections; } @Entity(name = "shop_section") public class ShopSection extends Model { public List<Item> findActiveItems(int page, int length) { return Item.find("select distinct i from Item i join i.sections as s where s.id = ?", id).fetch(page, length); } } findActiveItems is meant to find items in a section, but I get this error: org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: Item is not mapped [select distinct i from Item i join i.sections as s where s.id = ?] at org.hibernate.hql.ast.util.SessionFactoryHelper.requireClassPersister(SessionFactoryHelper.java:180) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromElementFactory.addFromElement(FromElementFactory.java:111) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.tree.FromClause.addFromElement(FromClause.java:93) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.createFromElement(HqlSqlWalker.java:322) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromElement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:3441) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromElementList(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:3325) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.fromClause(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:733) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.query(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:584) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.selectStatement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:301) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:244) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:254) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:185) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:136) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:101) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.<init>(HQLQueryPlan.java:80) at org.hibernate.engine.query.QueryPlanCache.getHQLQueryPlan(QueryPlanCache.java:124) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractSessionImpl.getHQLQueryPlan(AbstractSessionImpl.java:156) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractSessionImpl.createQuery(AbstractSessionImpl.java:135) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.createQuery(SessionImpl.java:1770) at org.hibernate.ejb.AbstractEntityManagerImpl.createQuery(AbstractEntityManagerImpl.java:272) ... 8 more What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Why do child elements cause 'dropleave' to be called (drag-n-drop file upload)?

    - by tundoopani
    I have a HTML5 drag-n-drop script that allows users to drop files in #droparea. The #droparea div has child elements that are also div elements. <div id="droparea"> <div id="showif_no_dragover">Drag files here!</div> <div id="showif_dragover">Drop the files!</div> </div> The associated javascript/jquery is: var droptarget = "#droparea"; $(droptarget).live('dragenter', dragEnter); $(droptarget).live('dragleave', dragExit); $(droptarget).live('dragover', nothing); $(droptarget).live('drop', dropGo); (Side question: should I use .live(), .on() or .bind() here?) I have created a sample jsFiddle with some additional code here: http://jsfiddle.net/PwFr9/3/ If you look at the console, you will notice that as you drag a file within #droparea, dragenter() and dragleave() are called multiple times, even though the drag is still inside #droparea. If you remove the child elements (#child1 and #child2), the problem is gone because the child elements are gone. How can I keep the child elements and prevent them from messing up the drag events? I have searched Stackoverflow and Google for hours without much help. I found this questions here at Stackoverflow: How to keep child elements from interfering with HTML5 dragover and drop events? I don't know why it works, though. I have tried placing 2 div elements on top of each other (via CSS positioning). The top-most div has the drag events attached whereas the bottom-most div has the child elements. I do not like this approach because it doesn't work with the rest of my page and does not allow mouse-click interaction with the bottom-most div. Any help is appreciated! Thank you in advance. Regards, tundoo

    Read the article

  • Jquery get each div's sub child divs and grab info into an array

    - by McNabbToSkins
    I have a some html that looks like this <div id="main"> <div id="sub_main_1" class="sub_main"> <input type="text" class="sub_name_first" /><br /> <input type="text" class="sub_name_second" /><br /> </div> <div id="sub_main_2" class="sub_main"> <input type="text" class="sub_name_first" /><br /> <input type="text" class="sub_name_second" /><br /> </div> </div> I would like to pull out each sub_main divs information into an array in javascript. So far I have this as my jquery code $('#main').find('.sub_main').each( function() { alert('hi'); }); The alert is just a test that it should show "hi" twice. But this is not working. I am also not clear on how I can store the two inputs in a javascript array. Any help would be great! Thanks,

    Read the article

  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

    Read the article

  • MySQL MyISAM table performance... painfully, painfully slow

    - by Salman A
    I've got a table structure that can be summarized as follows: pagegroup * pagegroupid * name has 3600 rows page * pageid * pagegroupid * data references pagegroup; has 10000 rows; can have anything between 1-700 rows per pagegroup; the data column is of type mediumtext and the column contains 100k - 200kbytes data per row userdata * userdataid * pageid * column1 * column2 * column9 references page; has about 300,000 rows; can have about 1-50 rows per page The above structure is pretty straight forwad, the problem is that that a join from userdata to page group is terribly, terribly slow even though I have indexed all columns that should be indexed. The time needed to run a query for such a join (userdata inner_join page inner_join pagegroup) exceeds 3 minutes. This is terribly slow considering the fact that I am not selecting the data column at all. Example of the query that takes too long: SELECT userdata.column1, pagegroup.name FROM userdata INNER JOIN page USING( pageid ) INNER JOIN pagegroup USING( pagegroupid ) Please help by explaining why does it take so long and what can i do to make it faster. Edit #1 Explain returns following gibberish: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE userdata ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE page eq_ref PRIMARY,pagegroupid PRIMARY 4 topsecret.userdata.pageid 1 1 SIMPLE pagegroup eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.page.pagegroupid 1 Edit #2 SELECT u.field2, p.pageid FROM userdata u INNER JOIN page p ON u.pageid = p.pageid; /* 0.07 sec execution, 6.05 sec fecth */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE u ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE p eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.u.pageid 1 Using index SELECT p.pageid, g.pagegroupid FROM page p INNER JOIN pagegroup g ON p.pagegroupid = g.pagegroupid; /* 9.37 sec execution, 60.0 sec fetch */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE g index PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 3646 Using index 1 SIMPLE p ref pagegroupid pagegroupid 5 topsecret.g.pagegroupid 3 Using where Moral of the story Keep medium/long text columns in a separate table if you run into performance problems such as this one.

    Read the article

  • JQuery Autocomplete plugin not working with JQuery 1.4.1

    - by Russ Clark
    I've been using the JQuery Autocomplete plugin with JQuery version 1.3.2, and it has been working great. I recently updated JQuery in my project to version 1.4.2, and the Autocomplete plugin is now broken. The JQuery code to add items to a textbox on my web page doesn't seem to be getting called at all. Does anyone know if the JQuery Autocomplete plugin is incompatible with JQuery version 1.4.2, and if there is a fix for this problem? Here is some sample code I've built in an ASP.Net web site (which works fine if I change the JQuery file to jquery-1.3.2.js, but nothing happens using jquery-1.4.2.js): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.autocomplete.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $(':input:text:id$=sapleUser').autocomplete(data); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> API Reference: <input id="sapleUser" autocomplete="off" type="text" runat="server" /> (try "C" or "E") </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

    - by adopilot
    Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

    Read the article

  • How do i close the alert dialog that displays custom view

    - by Asdfg
    I have an activity named MainActivity which has a button. On click of that button i am displaying an AlertDialog which contains a custom view named ChildWindow.xml. That custom view has multiple textboxes and a OK button. On click of the OK button, i am calling a method of MainActivity. I am able to access the ChildWindow here as view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Once the user clicks on the OK button, i have to close the alert dialog which i am able to do as view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); My problem is even though i have closed the the ChildWindow in the above statement, i am able to get reference to the textbox in the next line which means AlertDialog is closed but child window is still there. This is how the OK button click looks like: This works as expected: EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); This should not work as i am closing the alert dialog and then getting the reference of the textbox but this works too. view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); I think i am closing the alert dialog but i am not destroying it from the memory. Can someone point me out what am i missing here?

    Read the article

  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

    Read the article

  • Fixed div background

    - by Fahad
    I want to create a layout where I want to display an image to the left and content on the right. The image should stay constant when the content scrolls. The css I'm using: <style type="text/css"> html, body { margin:0; padding:0; } #page-container { margin:auto; width:900px; background-color:Black; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment: fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #main-image { float:left; width:250px; height:687px; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment:fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #content { margin-left:250px; background-color:Olive; height:800px; width:650px; } </style> The HTML: <div id="page-container"> <div id="main-image"></div> <div id="content"></div> </div> Alot of time on this site and I have understood that background-attachment:fixed positions the image in the entire viewport and not the element it is applied to. My question is how do I go about creating that kind of layout? I do not want to give that image as a background image, as if the window is resized, it might get hidden. I want scrollbars to appear if the window size is less than 900px( my page width) so that the image can be viewed at all times. That happens with this code, however I would like the image to start at my element instead. How do I go about doing this?? Thanks in Advance :)

    Read the article

  • Retactoring advanced has_many example

    - by atmorell
    Hello, My user model has three relations for the same message model, and is using raw SQL :/ Is there a better more rails way to achieve the same result? Could the foreign key be changed dynamically? e.g User.messages.sent (foreign key = author_id) and User.messages.received (foreign key = recipient ) I have been trying to move some of the logic into scopes in the message model, but the user.id is not available from the message model... Any thoughts? Table layout: create_table "messages", :force => true do |t| t.string "subject" t.text "body" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.integer "author_id" t.integer "recipient_id" t.boolean "author_deleted", :default => false t.boolean "recipient_deleted", :default => false end This is my relations for my user model: has_many :messages_received, :foreign_key => "recipient_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['recipient_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_sent, :foreign_key => "author_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['author_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_deleted, :class_name => "Message", :finder_sql => 'SELECT * FROM Messages WHERE author_id = #{self.id} AND author_deleted = true OR recipient_id = #{self.id} AND recipient_deleted = true' Best regards. Asbjørn Morell

    Read the article

  • Autocomplete Error Question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a very simple blog application using Ruby on Rails. New to both Ruby and Rails so excuse the stupid questions. I currently have two tables that relate to this question. I have a Post table and a Tag table. Basically I set it up such that Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. I am using AJAX to process and display the tags in the show view of the post. I installed the auto_complete plugin and I am getting an error when I enter the letters in the text_field_with_auto_complete for tag creation. My suspicion is this is because the form is a remote_form_for or something I am doing wrong in the routes.rb. Here is the error and code: Error Processing PostsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-13 23:25:46) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"f"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Post Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Post with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/posts_controller.rb:22:in `show' Rendered rescues/_trace (26.0ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.2ms) Rendering rescues/layout (not_found) remote_form_for located in /views/posts/show.html.erb <% remote_form_for [@post, Tag.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :tag_name, "Tag" %><br/> <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :tag, :tag_name, {}, {:method => :get} %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> tags_controller.rb (I'll spare you all the actions but added the following here) auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name routes.rb map.resources :posts, :has_many => :comments map.resources :posts, :has_many => :tags map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get }

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC: How to resolve the path to subdirectories of the root 'JSP' folder in a web application

    - by chrisjleu
    What is a simple way to resolve the path to a JSP file that is not located in the root JSP directory of a web application using SpringMVCs viewResolvers? For example, suppose we have the following web application structure: web-app |-WEB-INF |-jsp |-secure |-admin.jsp |-admin2.jsp index.jsp login.jsp I would like to use some out-of-the-box components to resolve the JSP files within the jsp root folder and the secure subdirectory. I have a *-servlet.xml file that defines: an out-of-the-box, InternalResourceViewResolver: <bean id="jspViewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> a handler mapping: <bean id="handlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/index.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/login.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/secure/**">urlFilenameViewController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> an out-of-the-box UrlFilenameViewController controller: <bean id="urlFilenameViewController" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.UrlFilenameViewController"> </bean> The problem I have is that requests to the JSPs in the secure directory cannot be resolved, as the jspViewResolver only has a prefix defined as /jsp/ and not /jsp/secure/. Is there a way to handle subdirectories like this? I would prefer to keep this structure because I'm also trying to make use of Spring Security and having all secure pages in a subdirectory is a nice way to do this. There's probably a simple way to acheive this but I'm new to Spring and the Spring MVC framework so any pointers would be appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467  | Next Page >