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• Android - Two different programs at the same time in an emulator

  - by Léa Massiot

  I'm new to Android development. My OS is WinXP. I'm trying to install two different applications on an Android Device Emulator in command line. I have two Android projects "ap1" and "ap2". In the "ap1" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap1.apk" executable. In the "ap2" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap2.apk" executable. I created an Android Virtual Device: cmd_line android create avd -n avd1 -t 1 --abi x86 I launched the emulator: cmd_line emulator -avd avd1 -verbose The "adb devices" command returns: List of devices attached emulator-5554 device I installed the first program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap1.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 = It worked. I installed the second program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap2.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg2.android/.AnotherActivity1 = It worked. All this works except that the second executable "replaced" of the first one. If I try to run the first executable, I get an error: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 Starting: Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cmp=my.pkg.android/.Activity1 } Error type 3 Error: Activity class {my.pkg.android/my.pkg.android.Activity1} does not exist. It looks like I can't have the two apps at the same time in the emulator. What do you think? What do I have to do to have the two apps available (at the same time) in the emulator? Thank you for helping. Best regards.

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• .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

  - by larryq

  I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

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• Returning objects from another thread?

  - by Mark

  Trying to follow the hints laid out here, but she doesn't mention how to handle it when your collection needs to return a value, like so: private delegate TValue DequeueHandler(); public virtual TValue Dequeue() { if (dispatcher.CheckAccess()) { --count; var pair = dict.First(); var queue = pair.Value; var val = queue.Dequeue(); if (queue.Count == 0) dict.Remove(pair.Key); OnCollectionChanged(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Remove, val)); return val; } else { dispatcher.BeginInvoke(new DequeueHandler(Dequeue)); } } This obviously won't work, because dispatcher.BeginInvoke doesn't return anything. What am I supposed to do? Or maybe I could replace dequeue with two functions, Peek and Pop, where Peek doesn't really need to be on the UI thread because it doesn't modify anything, right? As a side question, these methods don't need to be "locked" either, do they? If they're all forced to run in the UI thread, then there shouldn't be any concurrency issues, right?

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• How to load entities into readonly collections using the entity framework

  - by Anton P

  I have a POCO domain model which is wired up to the entity framework using the new ObjectContext class. public class Product { private ICollection<Photo> _photos; public Product() { _photos = new Collection<Photo>(); } public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Photo> Photos { get { return _photos; } } public void AddPhoto(Photo photo) { //Some biz logic //... _photos.Add(photo); } } In the above example i have set the Photos collection type to IEnumerable as this will make it read only. The only way to add/remove photos is through the public methods. The problem with this is that the Entity Framework cannot load the Photo entities into the IEnumerable collection as it's not of type ICollection. By changing the type to ICollection will allow callers to call the Add mentod on the collection itself which is not good. What are my options?

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• URL equals and checking Internet access

  - by James P.

  On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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• How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

  - by MatthewMartin

  I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

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• Xerces C++ SAX Parsing Problem: expected class-name before '{' token

  - by aduric

  I'm trying to run through an example given for the C++ Xerces XML library implementation. I've copied the code exactly, but I'm having trouble compiling it. error: expected class-name before '{' token I've looked around for a solution, and I know that this error can be caused by circular includes or not defining a class before it is used, but as you can see from the code, I only have 2 files: MySAXHandler.hpp and MySAXHandler.cpp. However, the MySAXHandler class is derived from HandlerBase, which is included. MyHandler.hpp #include <xercesc/sax/HandlerBase.hpp> class MySAXHandler : public HandlerBase { public: void startElement(const XMLCh* const, AttributeList&); void fatalError(const SAXParseException&); }; MySAXHandler.cpp #include "MySAXHandler.hpp" #include <iostream> using namespace std; MySAXHandler::MySAXHandler() { } void MySAXHandler::startElement(const XMLCh* const name, AttributeList& attributes) { char* message = XMLString::transcode(name); cout << "I saw element: "<< message << endl; XMLString::release(&message); } void MySAXHandler::fatalError(const SAXParseException& exception) { char* message = XMLString::transcode(exception.getMessage()); cout << "Fatal Error: " << message << " at line: " << exception.getLineNumber() << endl; XMLString::release(&message); } I'm compiling like so: g++ -L/usr/local/lib -lxerces-c -I/usr/local/include -c MySAXHandler.cpp I've looked through the HandlerBase and it is defined, so I don't know why I can't derive a class from it? Do I have to override all the virtual functions in HandlerBase? I'm kinda new to C++. Thanks in advance.

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• Test Driven Development with C++: How to test a class which depends on other classes?

  - by Nikhil

  Suppose I have a class A which depends on 3 other classes X, Y and Z, either A uses these through a reference or a pointer or say A is templated to be instantiated with X, Y and Z doesn't matter, the key is that in order to test A, I need to have X, Y and Z. So I need to have fakes for A, B and C. Suppose I write them. Now, how do I swap real and fake objects easily? I can see that this works very easily in the case of templates. In order to make it work when A depends on X, Y and Z through a reference or a pointer, I would need to have a base class say X_Interface from which I can inherit X_Real and X_Fake. So basically, I would end up in having 3 times the number of classes for every class that would need to have a fake. I am most likely missing something. There has to be a simpler way to do this. Having a base class X_Interface is also quite expensive as I will be using more space and making virtual calls. I guess I could use CRTP as I know whether its a X_Real or X_Fake at compile time but still there must be a better way.

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• c# string interning

  - by CodingThunder

  I am trying to understand string interning and why is doesn't seem to work in my example. The point of the example is to show Example 1 uses less (a lot less memory) as it should only have 10 strings in memory. However, in the code below both example use roughly the same amount of memory (virtual size and working set). Please advice why example 1 isn't using a lot less memory? Thanks Example 1: IList<string> list = new List<string>(10000); for (int i = 0; i < 10000; i++) { for (int k = 0; k < 10; k++) { list.Add(string.Intern(k.ToString())); } } Console.WriteLine("intern Done"); Console.ReadLine(); Example 2: IList<string> list = new List<string>(10000); for (int i = 0; i < 10000; i++) { for (int k = 0; k < 10; k++) { list.Add(k.ToString()); } } Console.WriteLine("intern Done"); Console.ReadLine();

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• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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• What constitutes a development environment, and how do you document it?

  - by Joel Coehoorn

  What items go into a software shop's development environment, how do you document it, and what processes do you follow to make changes? I thinking about this from the standpoint where I want to make it easier to bring new hires up to speed quickly by having all this on a checklist we follow when setting them up, and then while I'm at it making it easier for the new hires or existing team members to bring new powerful toolkits and ideas into the environment without disrupting things. I want to keep this platform agnostic, so even though I'm currently at a microsoft shop where Visual Studio would be assumed I'll go ahead and list compiler/IDE as one of the items: Here are some ideas for part 1: [edit]: I'm keeping this updated based on the better suggestions. Source Control access Issue/Bug/Project tracker System Documention, or references to find the system documentation in source control or in a wiki, including: build document/environment covered by this question design documents / technical notes Coding Style guidelines Deploy for review/testing/QA/staging/production procedures Licensing details for your tools and your product Team Calendar, including the project schedule(s), deadlines, vacation time, and support/on-call schedule (if required) compiler/IDE compiler/IDE extensions (things like source control plugins or visual studio add-ins) 3rd party SDKs/toolkits Database connection and tools Testing Frameworks Internal libraries communication tools (chat, wiki, etc) Static analysis tools (FxCop, FlawFinder, etc) Virtual machines (holding dev environment or for testing) Specialized editors (modeling, xml, etc) Other tools What else goes in this list, and how do you document it and vet changes?

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• .NET consumer of ActiveX throwing TargetParameterCountException

  - by DevSolo

  I have a .NET (3.5 w/ Dev Studio 2008) app that hosts a visual Active X (written in C++ w/ Dev Studio 2003). Have access to all sources, but can't easily move the Active X control up to 2008. This as worked fine in the past. Made some changes to the Active X control and now, when calling one method on the Active X, I'm getting a TargetParameterCountException 100% of the time. The signature of the Active X method is: LONG CMyActive::License(LPCTSTR string1, LPCTSTR string2, LONG long1, LPCTSTR string3, LPCTSTR string4); When viewing the method in object browser of reflector, .NET sees it as: public virtual int License(string string1, string string2, int long1, string string3, string string4) I renamed the parameters for demonstration purpose (boss gets twitchy about any code). I left the method name, as it could be relevant. There are method calls prior that work. I just can't seen to figure out why I'm all of a sudden getting this exception. The HRESULT is 0x8002000e and a quick search seems to indicate that's a general one. Thanks to all for reading.

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• Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

  - by Andrew G. Johnson

  Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

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• DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

  - by David Stratton

  I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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• How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

  - by Barrett Kuethen

  I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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• How to view shell commands used by eclipse "run configurations"

  - by gmale

  Given a "run configuration" in Eclipse, I want to print out the associated shell command that would be used to run it. For example: Right now, in Eclipse, if I click "play" it will run: mvn assembly:directory -Dmaven.test.skip=true I don't see that command, I just know that's what the IDE must run, at some point. However, some of the other run configurations are far more complex with long classpaths and virtual machine options and, frankly, sometimes I have no idea what the equivalent shell command would be (particularly when it comes to Flex). There must be some way to access the shell command that would be associated with a "Run Configuration" in Eclipse/Flex Builder. This information must be available, which leads me to believe someone has written a plugin to display it. Or maybe there's already an option built into Eclipse for accessing this. So is there a way to, essentially, convert an Eclipse run configuration into a shell command? (for context only: I'm asking because I'm writing a bash script that automates everything I do, during development--from populating the Database all the way to opening Firefox and clearing the cache before running the web app. So every command I run from the IDE needs to exist in the script. Some are tricky to figure out.)

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• Unhandled Exception error message

  - by Joshua Green

  Does anyone know why including a term such as: t = PL_new_term_ref(); would cause an Unhandled Exception error message: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x0000000c. (Visual Studio 2008) I have a header file: class UserTaskProlog : public ArAction { public: UserTaskProlog( const char* name = " sth " ); ~UserTaskProlog( ); AREXPORT virtual ArActionDesired *fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ); private: term_t t; }; and a cpp file: UserTaskProlog::UserTaskProlog( const char* name ) : ArAction( name, " sth " ) { char** argv; argv[ 0 ] = "libpl.dll"; PL_initialise( 1, argv ); PlCall( "consult( 'myProg.pl' )" ); } UserTaskProlog::~UserTaskProlog( ) { } ArActionDesired *UserTaskProlog::fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ) { cout << " something " << endl; t = PL_new_term_ref( ); } Without t=PL_new_term_ref() everything works fine, but when I start adding my Prolog code (declarations first, such as t=PL_new_term_ref), I get this Access Violation error message. I'd appreciate any help. Thanks,

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• Web User Control og Event

  - by Mcoroklo

  I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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• Why am I getting a permission denied error on my public folder?

  - by Robin Fisher

  Hi all, This one has got me stumped. I'm deploying a Rails 3 app to Slicehost running Apache 2 and Passenger. My server is running Ruby 1.9.1 using RVM. I am receiving a permission denied error on the "public" folder in my app. My Virtual Host is setup as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName sharerplane.com ServerAlias www.sharerplane.com ServerAlias *.sharerplane.com DocumentRoot /home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/current/public/ <Directory "/home/robinjfisher/public_html/sharerplane.com/public/"> AllowOverride all Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> PassengerDefaultUser robinjfisher </VirtualHost> I've tried the following things: trailing slash on public; no trailing slash on public; PassengerUserSwitching on and off; PassengerDefaultUser set and not set; with and without the block. The public folder is owned by robinjfisher:www-data and Passenger is running as robinjfisher so I can't see why there are permission issues. Does anybody have any thoughts? Thanks Robin PS. Have disabled the site for the time being to avoid indexing so what is there currently is not the site in question.

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• Hide a single content block from search engines?

  - by jonas

  A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

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• Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

  - by Wondering

  Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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• handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

  - by anatoli

  Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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• RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

  - by epitka

  I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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• What happens to existing workspaces after upgrading to TFS 2010

  - by e-mre

  Hi, I was looking for some insight about what happens to existing workspaces and files that are already checked-out on people, after an upgrade to TFS2010. Surprisingly enough I can not find any satisfactory information on this. (I am talking about upgrading on new hardware by the way. Fresh TFS instance, upgraded databases) I've checked TFS Installation guide, I searched through the web, all I could find is upgrade scenarios for the server side. Nobody even mentions what happens to source control clients. I've created a virtual machine to test the upgrade process, The upgrade was successful and all my files and workspaces exist in the new server too. The problem is: The new TFS installation has a new instanceID. When I redirected on the clients to the new server, the client seemed unable to match files and file states in the workspace with the ones on the new server. This makes me wonder if it will be possible to keep working after the production upgrade. As I mentioned above I can not find anything on this, it would be great if anyone could point me to some paper or blog post about this. Thanks in advance...

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• Inheritance inside a template - public members become invisible?

  - by Juliano

  I'm trying to use inheritance among classes defined inside a class template (inner classes). However, the compiler (GCC) is refusing to give me access to public members in the base class. Example code: template <int D> struct Space { struct Plane { Plane(Space& b); virtual int& at(int y, int z) = 0; Space& space; /* <= this member is public */ }; struct PlaneX: public Plane { /* using Plane::space; */ PlaneX(Space& b, int x); int& at(int y, int z); const int cx; }; int& at(int x, int y, int z); }; template <int D> int& Space<D>::PlaneX::at(int y, int z) { return space.at(cx, y, z); /* <= but it fails here */ }; Space<4> sp4; The compiler says: file.cpp: In member function ‘int& Space::PlaneX::at(int, int)’: file.cpp:21: error: ‘space’ was not declared in this scope If using Plane::space; is added to the definition of class PlaneX, or if the base class member is accessed through the this pointer, or if class Space is changed to a non-template class, then the compiler is fine with it. I don't know if this is either some obscure restriction of C++, or a bug in GCC (GCC versions 4.4.1 and 4.4.3 tested). Does anyone have an idea?

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