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  • How to retrieve combobox selection in a windows form

    - by Edward Leno
    All, I have a simple windows form with a combobox and a 'OK' button. After clicking the 'OK' button, I want to retrieve the selected combobox value. The GetUserForm has 2 controls: combobox named cmbUser, with a list of 2 values button named btnOK Nothing has been done to the GetUserForm class itself. The class contains: public partial class GetUserForm : Form { public STAMP_GetUser() { InitializeComponent(); } } GetUserForm f = new GetUserForm(); f.ShowDialog(); // not sure how to access the combobox selected value? Do I need to initialize something in the class? Or can I access the controls on the form using the 'f' variable above?

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  • ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

    - by John
    I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

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  • Progressing Alfresco workflows through web script

    - by Domchi
    I have an Alfresco document reference; what I'm looking for is a way to access workflow attached to that document and finish it (or progress it to the next transition) through Javascript. Almost every example on the web shows how to start workflow, and from the dashlet I could call task command processor (/alfresco/command/task/end/[/transition]) if I knew the task ID, but how do I do the same thing from server-side web script starting only from the document reference? There must be a way to access workflows from document and manage them programatically.

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  • Are JSF 2.x ViewScoped Beans Thread Safe?

    - by Mark
    I've been googling for a couple hours on this issue to no eval. WELD docs and the CDI spec are pretty clear regarding thread safety of the scopes provided. For example: Application Scope - not safe Session Scope - not safe Request Scope - safe, always bound to a single thread Conversation Scope - safe (due to the WELD proxy serializing access from multiple request threads) I can't find anything on the View Scope defined by JSF 2.x. It is in roughly the same bucket as the Conversation Scope in that it is very possible for multiple requests to hit the scope concurrently despite it being bound to a single view / user. What I don't know is if the JSF implementation serializes access to the bean from multiple requests. Anyone have knowledge of the spec or of the Morraja/MyFaces implementations that could clear this up?

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  • Testing Django web app with Hudson and Selenium

    - by ycseattle
    This might be a newbie question for Hudson. I am trying to setup Selenium testing for my Django website in my Hudson CI server. The question is, the Hudson will use subversion to checkout my Django code into its own path, how do I "deploy" the code into the same server for testing? This is not a question about deploying django, but instead how to access the source file in hudson workspace. Most tutorials/blogs is about building and running tests, but I couldn't find useful information about how to setup the web application on the server to run the test against. 1) Should I write some shell script to copy the source files from the hudson workspace? Is there an environment variable to use to access the workspace? 2) Is there a tutorial on how to grab web app files in hudson workspace and deploy them? I am sure this apply for other technologies like PHP as well. Thanks!

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  • Impersonation and Delegation

    - by Samuel Kim
    I am using impersonation is used to access file on UNC share as below. var ctx = ((WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity).Impersonate(); string level = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().ImpersonationLevel); On two Windows 2003 servers using IIS6, I am getting different impersonation levels: Delegation on one server and Impersonation on the other server. This causes issues where I am unable to access the UNC share on the server with 'Impersonation' level. What could be causing this difference? I searched through machine.config and IIS settings for the app pool, site and virtual directories - but aren't able to find the cause of this problem.

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  • when to use the abstract factory pattern?

    - by hguser
    Hi: I want to know when we need to use the abstract factory pattern. Here is an example,I want to know if it is necessary. The UML THe above is the abstract factory pattern, it is recommended by my classmate. THe following is myown implemention. I do not think it is necessary to use the pattern. And the following is some core codes: package net; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.HashMap; import java.util.Map; import java.util.Properties; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException, InstantiationException, IllegalAccessException, ClassNotFoundException { DaoRepository dr=new DaoRepository(); AbstractDao dao=dr.findDao("sql"); dao.insert(); } } class DaoRepository { Map<String, AbstractDao> daoMap=new HashMap<String, AbstractDao>(); public DaoRepository () throws IOException, InstantiationException, IllegalAccessException, ClassNotFoundException { Properties p=new Properties(); p.load(DaoRepository.class.getResourceAsStream("Test.properties")); initDaos(p); } public void initDaos(Properties p) throws InstantiationException, IllegalAccessException, ClassNotFoundException { String[] daoarray=p.getProperty("dao").split(","); for(String dao:daoarray) { AbstractDao ad=(AbstractDao)Class.forName(dao).newInstance(); daoMap.put(ad.getID(),ad); } } public AbstractDao findDao(String id) {return daoMap.get(id);} } abstract class AbstractDao { public abstract String getID(); public abstract void insert(); public abstract void update(); } class SqlDao extends AbstractDao { public SqlDao() {} public String getID() {return "sql";} public void insert() {System.out.println("sql insert");} public void update() {System.out.println("sql update");} } class AccessDao extends AbstractDao { public AccessDao() {} public String getID() {return "access";} public void insert() {System.out.println("access insert");} public void update() {System.out.println("access update");} } And the content of the Test.properties is just one line: dao=net.SqlDao,net.SqlDao So any ont can tell me if this suitation is necessary?

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  • Using the ASP.NET membership provider database with your own database?

    - by Shaharyar
    Hello everybody, We are developing an ASP.NET MVC Application that currently uses it's own databse ApplicationData for the domain models and another one Membership for the user management / membership provider. We do access restrictions using data-annotations in our controllers. [Authorize(Roles = "administrators, managers")] This worked great for simple use cases. As we are scaling our application our customer wants to restrict specific users to access specific areas of our ApplicationData database. Each of our products contains a foreign key referring to the region the product was assembled in. A user story would be: Users in the role NewYorkManagers should only be able to edit / see products that are assembled in New York. We created a placeholder table UserRightsRegions that contains the UserId and the RegionId. How can I link both the ApplicationData and the Membership databases in order to work properly / having cross-database-key-references? (Is something like this even possible?) All help is more than appreciated!

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  • Entity Framework connection metadata extraction

    - by James
    Hi, I am using the EntityFramework POCO adapter and since there are limitations to what microsoft gives access to with regards to the meta data, i am manually extracting the information i need out of the xml. The only problem is i want to get the ssdl, msl, csdl file names to load without having to directly check for the connection string node in app.config. In short where in the ObjectContext/EntityConnection can i get access to these file names? Worst case scenario i need to get the connection name from the EntityConnection object then load this from app.config and parse the string itself and extract the filenames myself. (But i obviously don't want to do that). Thanks

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  • Mutating the expression tree of a predicate to target another type

    - by Jon
    Intro In the application I 'm currently working on, there are two kinds of each business object: the "ActiveRecord" type, and the "DataContract" type. So for example, we have: namespace ActiveRecord { class Widget { public int Id { get; set; } } } namespace DataContracts { class Widget { public int Id { get; set; } } } The database access layer takes care of "translating" between hierarchies: you can tell it to update a DataContracts.Widget, and it will magically create an ActiveRecord.Widget with the same property values and save that. The problem I have surfaced when attempting to refactor this database access layer. The Problem I want to add methods like the following to the database access layer: // Widget is DataContract.Widget interface DbAccessLayer { IEnumerable<Widget> GetMany(Expression<Func<Widget, bool>> predicate); } The above is a simple general-use "get" method with custom predicate. The only point of interest is that I 'm not passing in an anonymous function but rather an expression tree. This is done because inside DbAccessLayer we have to query ActiveRecord.Widget efficiently (LINQ to SQL) and not have the database return all ActiveRecord.Widget instances and then filter the enumerable collection. We need to pass in an expression tree, so we ask for one as the parameter for GetMany. The snag: the parameter we have needs to be magically transformed from an Expression<Func<DataContract.Widget, bool>> to an Expression<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>>. This is where I haven't managed to pull it off... Attempted Solution What we 'd like to do inside GetMany is: IEnumerable<DataContract.Widget> GetMany( Expression<Func<DataContract.Widget, bool>> predicate) { var lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>>( predicate.Body, predicate.Parameters); // use lambda to query ActiveRecord.Widget and return some value } This won't work because in a typical scenario, for example if: predicate == w => w.Id == 0; ...the expression tree contains a MemberAccessExpression instance which has a MemberInfo property (named Member) that point to members of DataContract.Widget. There are also ParameterExpression instances both in the expression tree and in its parameter expression collection (predicate.Parameters); After searching a bit, I found System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor (its source can be found here in the context of a how-to, very helpful) which is a convenient way to modify an expression tree. Armed with this, I implemented a visitor. This simple visitor only takes care of changing the types in member access and parameter expressions. It may not be complete, but it's fine for the expression w => w.Id == 0. internal class Visitor : ExpressionVisitor { private readonly Func<Type, Type> dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter; public Visitor(Func<Type, Type> dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter) { this.dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter = dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter; } protected override Expression VisitMember(MemberExpression node) { var dataContractType = node.Member.ReflectedType; var activeRecordType = this.dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter(dataContractType); var converted = Expression.MakeMemberAccess( base.Visit(node.Expression), activeRecordType.GetProperty(node.Member.Name)); return converted; } protected override Expression VisitParameter(ParameterExpression node) { var dataContractType = node.Type; var activeRecordType = this.dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter(dataContractType); return Expression.Parameter(activeRecordType, node.Name); } } With this visitor, GetMany becomes: IEnumerable<DataContract.Widget> GetMany( Expression<Func<DataContract.Widget, bool>> predicate) { var visitor = new Visitor(...); var lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>>( visitor.Visit(predicate.Body), predicate.Parameters.Select(p => visitor.Visit(p)); var widgets = ActiveRecord.Widget.Repository().Where(lambda); // This is just for reference, see below Expression<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>> referenceLambda = w => w.Id == 0; // Here we 'd convert the widgets to instances of DataContract.Widget and // return them -- this has nothing to do with the question though. } Results The good news is that lambda is constructed just fine. The bad news is that it isn't working; it's blowing up on me when I try to use it (the exception messages are really not helpful at all). I have examined the lambda my code produces and a hardcoded lambda with the same expression; they look exactly the same. I spent hours in the debugger trying to find some difference, but I can't. When predicate is w => w.Id == 0, lambda looks exactly like referenceLambda. But the latter works with e.g. IQueryable<T>.Where, while the former does not (I have tried this in the immediate window of the debugger). I should also mention that when predicate is w => true, it all works just fine. Therefore I am assuming that I 'm not doing enough work in Visitor, but I can't find any more leads to follow on. Can someone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • How to structure an enterprise MVC app, and where does Business Logic go?

    - by James
    I am an MVC newbie. As far as I can tell: Controller: deals with routing requests View: deals with presentation of data Model: looks a whole lot like a Data Access layer Where does the Business Logic go? Take a large enterprise application with: Several different sources of data (WCF, WebServices and ADO) tied together in a data access layer (useing multiple different DTOs). A lot business logic segmented over several dlls. What is an appropriate way for an MVC web application to sit on top of this (in terms of code and project structure)? The example I have seen where everything just goes in the Model folder don't seem like they are appropriate for very large applications. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Using VRaptor3 with Tomcat UnpackWARs property setted to false

    - by VinTem
    Hi there, I have to deploy my web app to a tomcat container with the unpackWARs property defined to false. When I do that, although the application is successfully deployed, when I try to access my url I always got a 404 error. I just don't receive that error when I try to access a direct file like index.html for instance. But I can't do that, the VRaptor framework is responsible for routing my url to the jsp file. Does anyone know if I have do anything else? Thanx

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  • Reverse proxy for a REST web service using ADFS/AD and WebApi

    - by Kai Friis
    I need to implement a reverse proxy for a REST webservice behind a firewall. The reverse proxy should authenticate against an enterprise ADFS 2.0 server, preferably using claims in .net 4.5. The clients will be a mix of iOS, Android and web. I’m completely new to this topic; I’ve tried to implement the service as a REST service using WebApi, WIF and the new Identity and Access control in VS 2012, with no luck. I have also tried to look into Brock Allen’s Thinktecture.IdentityModel.45, however then my head was spinning so I didn’t see the difference between it and Windows Identity Foundation with the Identity and Access control. So I think I need to step back and get some advice on how to do this. There are several ways to this, as far as I understand it. In hardware. Set up our Citrix Netscaler as a reverse proxy. I have no idea how to do that, however if it’s a good solution I can always hire someone who knows… Do it in the webserver, like IIS. I haven’t tried it; do not know if it will work. Create a web service to do it. 3.1 Implement it as a SOAP service using WCF. As I understand it ADFS do not support REST so I have to use SOAP. The problem is mobile device do not like SOAP, neither do I… However if it’s the best way, I have to do it. 3.2 Use Azure Access Control Service. It might work, however the timing is not good. Our enterprise is considering several cloud options, and us jumping on the azure wagon on our own might not be the smartest thing to do right now. However if it is the only options, we can do it. I just prefer not to use it right now. Right now I feel there are too many options, and I do not know which one will work. If someone can point me in the right directions, which path to pursue, I would be very grateful.

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  • (Zywall USG 300) NAT bypassed when accessing in-house-server From LAN Via domain name

    - by mschr
    My situations is like this; i host a number of websites from within our joint network solution. On the network is basically 3 categories: the known public, registered via mac, given static dhcp lease the anonymous lan connections, given lease from specific dhcp range switches, unix hosts firewall Now, consider following hosts which are of interest 111.111.111.111 (Zywall USG 300 WAN) 192.168.1.1 (ZyWall USG 300 LAN) load balances and bw monitors plus handles NAT 192.168.1.2 (Linux www) serves mydomain1.tld and mydomain2.tld 192.168.123.123 (Random LAN client) accesses mydomain1.tld from LAN 23.234.12.253 (Random External client) accesses mydomain1.tld via WAN DNS A records are setup so that both mydomain1.tld and mydomain2.tld points to 111.111.111.111 - and the Linux www serves the http parts with VirtualHost configurations, setting up the document roots pr ServerName, this is not so interesting though.. NAT rule translates 111.111.111.111:80 to 192.168.1.2:80 (1:1 NAT) Our problem follows; When accessing http://mydomain1.tld from outside (23.234.12.253 example host) the joint network - everything is fine, zywall receives requests via port 80 and maps it to the linux host' httpd. However - once trying to go through the NAT from LAN side (in-house, 192.168.123.123 example host) then one gets filtered in the Zywall port 80 firewall. I know this only because port 443 is open for administration interface and https://mydomain1.tld prompts for zywall login. So my conclusion is, that the LAN that accesses 111.111.111.111 in fact are routed to 192.168.1.1 whilst bypassing the NAT table. I need to know how to setup NAT / Policy Route, so that LAN WAN LAN will function with proper network translations instead of doing the 'quick nameserver lookup' or whatever this might be.

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  • Automating WebTrends analysis

    - by tridium
    Every week I access server logs processed by WebTrends (for about 7 profiles) and copy ad clickthrough and visitor information into Excel spreadsheets. A lot of it is just accessing certain sections and finding the right title and then copying the unique visitor information. I tried using WebTrends' built-in query tool but that is really poorly done (only uses a drag-and-drop system instead of text-based) and it has a maximum number of parameters and maximum length of queries to query with. As far as I know, the tools in WebTrends are not suitable to my purpose of automating the entire web metrics gathering process. I've gotten access to the raw server logs, but it seems redundant to parse that given that they are already being processed by WebTrends. To me it seems very scriptable, but how would I go about doing that? Is screen-scraping an option?

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  • C++ Unlocking a std::mutex before calling std::unique_lock wait

    - by Sant Kadog
    I have a multithreaded application (using std::thread) with a manager (class Tree) that executes some piece of code on different subtrees (embedded struct SubTree) in parallel. The basic idea is that each instance of SubTree has a deque that store objects. If the deque is empty, the thread waits until a new element is inserted in the deque or the termination criteria is reached. One subtree can generate objects and push them in the deque of another subtree. For convenience, all my std::mutex, std::locks and std::variable_condition are stored in a struct called "locks". The class Tree creates some threads that run the following method (first attempt) : void Tree::launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::lock_guard<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem is that "deque_lock" is still locked while the thread is waiting. Hence no object can be added in the deque of the current thread by a concurrent one. So I turned the lock_guard into a unique_lock and managed the lock/unlock manually : void launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::unique_lock<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { deque_lock.unlock() ; // unlock the access to the deque to enable the other threads to add objects // DATA RACE : nothing must happen to the unprotected deque here !!!!!! // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem now, is that there is a data race, and I would like to make sure that the "wait" instruction is performed directly after the "deque_lock.unlock()" one. Would anyone know a way to create such a critical instruction sequence with the standard library ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Microsoft Application Request Routing with Windows Authentication

    - by theplatz
    I'm running into a problem trying to get Windows Authentication working in an environment that uses Microsoft Application Request Routing and was hoping someone might be able to help. The problem I'm running into is that only some requests are authenticated, while others fail with 401 errors. I have followed the Special Case of Running IIS 7.0 in a Web Farm instructions found at http://blogs.msdn.com/b/webtopics/archive/2009/01/19/service-principal-name-spn-checklist-for-kerberos-authentication-with-iis-7-0.aspx to no avail. My current server setup looks like the following: ARR Two servers set up with IIS shared configuration using IIS 7.5 on Windows 2008 R2 Anonymous authentication turned on for the Default Web Site Web Farm Two servers running IIS 7.5 on Windows 2008 R2 Three web sites set up using port binding to differentiate between virtual hosts. Ports being used are 8000, 8001, and 8002 Application pools for Windows Authentication all use a common domain account SPN added to domain account for http/<virthalhost-name>:<port-number> and http/<virtualhost-name>.<fully-qualified-domain>:<port-number> The IIS logs show the following when authentication is working/failing. If I understand correctly, all requests should show DOMAIN\User_Name: 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/stylesheets/techweb.landing.css - 8002 DOMAIN\User_Name ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 200 0 0 62 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-background-right.gif - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 2 5 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-background-left.gif - 8002 DOMAIN\User_Name ARR-HOST-IP-ADDRESS 200 0 0 31 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-icon.png - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 2 5 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-icon.png - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 1 2148074248 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/application-icon.png - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 1 2148074248 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-background-right.gif - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 1 3221225581 15 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/building.gif - 8002 DOMAIN\User_Name ARR-HOST-2-IP-ADDRESS 200 0 0 218 Does anyone know what might cause this problem and how I can resolve it?

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  • UrlHelper and ViewContext inside an Authorization Attribute

    - by DM
    I have a scenario that I haven't been able to solve: I'm toying around with creating my own custom authorization attribute for mvc. The main bit of functionality I would like to add is to have the ability to change where the user gets redirected if they are not in a certain role. I don't mind that the system sends them back to the login page if they're not authenticated, but I would like to choose where to send them if they are authenticated but not allowed to access that action method. Here's is what I would like to do: public class CustomAuthorizeAttribute : AuthorizeAttribute { public string Action; public string Controller; protected override bool AuthorizeCore(System.Web.HttpContextBase httpContext) { // if User is authenticated but not in the correct role string url = Url.Action(this.Action, this.Controller); httpContext.Response.Redirect(url); } } And as an added bonus I would like to have access to ViewContext and TempData before I do the redirect. Any thoughts on how I could get instantiate a UrlHelper and ViewContext in the attribute?

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  • Dangers of Windows API and Administrator accounts?

    - by Brett Powell
    I wrote a game server plugin last night that allowed me to create a user account and set it as administrator, which is a huge problem. Of course the simple fix is to create a basic user account with limited privileges for the game servers, so they would not have access to do things like this. I wanted to find out if there's anything else in the Windows API that would create such a huge vulnerability though? I guess I want to just make sure that when the client's game servers accounts are moved to limited access accounts, we won't have to worry about any of them using the windows API to sabotage the machines. There is already enough exploits in the game itself to worry about, without having to worry about client's taking over the machines with plugins lol. Some of the questions relative would be... Can you disable/enable Remote Desktop from c++? Can you get a list of AD user groups from c++? (not that a user belongs to, but a complete list)

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  • Release Excel Object In My Destructor

    - by Murat
    Hi all, I'm writing a Excel class using Microsoft.Interropt.Excel DLL. I finish all function but I have an error in my Destructor. I Want to save all changes to my file and I want to release all source. I want to all of them in my destructor. But In my destructor, Excel.ApplicationClass, Workbook and Worksheet objects are fill by an Exception which have message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW cannot be used." So I can't save nothing, close nothing because i can't access workbook or worksheet object. Can't I access the class private members in Destructor?

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  • Web service performance testing plan, Microsoft .NET WS, SQL

    - by zxed
    Trying to answer a question to come up with a testing plan. It has to do with using a website and/or webservice that queries a sql server to get data and display to user. * Solution must be able to handle an estimated 2000 users, approximately 700 concurrent users, 10,000 + website hits a month. Database calls should handle 100,000 queries via the website/webservice a month. The system is used at multiple times during a 24 hour period; however networking and bandwidth traffic decreases after 5 pm * two windows 2003 servers are used, one for web, another for sql. Both are located in the same room. User access is varied and users can be far/near (its a centralized system), users access via www

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  • Parsing prototype AJAX.response XML in IE

    - by adam
    Hi I have an xml webservice which I'm fetching using PrototypeJS. The xml has the correct content type and is well-formed, and looks like this: <GetTokenResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <GetTokenResult>F655100D64F098F0AC33AFF414A4A0D5</GetTokenResult> </GetTokenResponse> The AJAX request is completing successfully, and I can access the GetTokenResult node in both IE and FF but can only get the text content of the node in FF. My code is below: node = transport.responseXML.documentElement.getElementsByTagName('GetTokenResult')[0]; rawToken = (document.all) ? node.innerText : node.textContent; I've tried innerText and innerHTML, as well as children[0] and a few other chance guesses but IE returns 'undefined' when I access rawToken. Anyone able to lend a hand? Thanks, Adam

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  • Is is possible to programmatically change the resourceProviderFactoryType?

    - by Robert Massa
    I have a custom implementation of IResourceProvider and ResourceProviderFactory. Now the default way of making sure ASP.NET uses these custom types is to use the web.config and specify the factory like so: <globalization resourceProviderFactoryType="Product.Globalization.TranslationResourceProviderFactory" /> This works perfectly, except that in my resource provider I need database access. I want to use my IoC-container(Ninject) to inject the repositories needed to access this data into the CustomResourceProvider. But how am I going to do this? I have no control over the instantiation of the factory, so the factory can't get a reference to my IoC. Is there any way to register a custom provider programmatically, in for example the Global.asax?

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  • KO 2.3.4 - Accessing validation array from callbacks in models

    - by kenny99
    Hi, Apologies if this is an oversight or sheer stupidity on my part but I can't quite figure out how to access the validation array from a callback in a model (using ORM and KO 2.3.4). I want to be able to add specific error messages to the validation array if a callback returns false. e.g This register method: public function register(array & $array, $save = FALSE) { // Initialise the validation library and setup some rules $array = Validation::factory($array) ->pre_filter('trim') ->add_rules('email', 'required', 'valid::email', array($this, 'email_available')) ->add_rules('confirm_email', 'matches[email]') ->add_rules('password', 'required', 'length[5,42]') ->add_rules('confirm_password', 'matches[password]'); return ORM::validate($array, $save); } Callback: public function email_available($value) { return ! (bool) $this->db ->where('email', $value) ->count_records($this->table_name); } I can obviously access the current model from the callback, but I was wondering what the best way to add custom error from the callback would be?

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  • NTDS Replication Warning (Event ID 2089)

    - by Chris_K
    I have a simple little network with 3 AD servers in 2 sites. Site A has Win2k3 SP2 and Win2k SP4 servers, site B has a single Win2k3 SP2 server. All have been in place for at least 3 years now. Just last week I started getting Event 2089 "not backed up" warnings (example below) on both of the win2k3 servers. I understand what the message means, no need to send me links to the technet article explaining it. I'll improve my backups. What I'm more curious about is why did I just start getting this message now? Why haven't I been getting it for the past 3 years?!? Perhaps this is related: I recently decommissioned a few other sites and AD controllers (there used to be 3 more sites, each with their own controller). Don't worry, I did proper DCpromo exercises and made sure we didn't lose anything. But would shutting those down possibly be related to why I get this error now? This won't keep me awake at night but I am curious as to what changed... Event Type: Warning Event Source: NTDS Replication Event Category: Backup Event ID: 2089 Date: 3/28/2010 Time: 9:25:27 AM User: NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON Computer: RedactedName Description: This directory partition has not been backed up since at least the following number of days. Directory partition: DC=MyDomain,DC=com 'Backup latency interval' (days): 30 It is recommended that you take a backup as often as possible to recover from accidental loss of data. However if you haven't taken a backup since at least the 'backup latency interval' number of days, this message will be logged every day until a backup is taken. You can take a backup of any replica that holds this partition. By default the 'Backup latency interval' is set to half the 'Tombstone Lifetime Interval'. If you want to change the default 'Backup latency interval', you could do so by adding the following registry key. 'Backup latency interval' (days) registry key: System\CurrentControlSet\Services\NTDS\Parameters\Backup Latency Threshold (days) For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp.

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