Search Results

Search found 13909 results on 557 pages for 'old man'.

Page 464/557 | < Previous Page | 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471  | Next Page >

  • .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

    - by Orborde
    I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

    Read the article

  • Spell checker software

    - by Naren
    Hello Guys, I have been assigned a task to find a decent spell checker (UK English) preferably the free one for a project that we are doing. I have looked at Google AJAX API for this. The project contains some young person's (kids less than 18 years old) data which shouldn't allow exposing or storing outside the application boundaries. Google logs the data for research purpose that means Google owns the data whatever we send over the wire through Google API. Is this right? I fired an email to Google regarding the privacy of data and storage but they haven't come back. If you have some knowledge regarding this please share with me. At this point our servers might not have access to external entities that means we might not be able to use Web API for this over the wire. But it may change in the future. That means I have to find out some spell checker alternatives that can sit in our environment and do the job or an external APIs. Would you mind share your findings and knowledge in this regard. I would prefer free services but never know if you have some cracking spell checker for a few quid’s then I don't mind recommending to the project board. Technology using ASP.NET 3.5/4.0, MVC, jQuery, SQL Sever 2008 etc Cheers, Naren

    Read the article

  • PHP Localization Best Practices? gettext?

    - by nute
    We are in the process of making our website international, allowing multiple languages. I've looked into php's "gettext" however, if I understand it right, I see a big flaw: If my webpage has let's say "Hello World" as a static text. I can put the string as <?php echo gettext("Hello World"); ?>, generate the po/mo files using a tool. Then I would give the file to a translator to work on. A few days later we want to change the text in English to say "Hello Small World"? Do I change the value in gettext? Do I create an english PO file and change it there? If you change the gettext it will consider it as a new string and you'll instantly loose the current translation ... It seems to me that gradually, the content of the php file will have old text everywhere. Or people translating might have to be told "when you see Hello World, instead, translate Hello Small World". I don't know I'm getting confused. In other programming languages, I've seen that they use keywords such as web.home.featured.HelloWorld. What is the best way to handle translations in PHP? Thanks

    Read the article

  • A problem of trying to implement scrolling inertia with jQuery

    - by gargantaun
    I'm trying to add some iPhone style scrolling inertia to a web page that will only be viewed on the iPad. I have the scrolling working in one direction (scrollLeft), but it doesn't work in the other direction. It's a pretty simple function function onTouchEnd(event){ event.preventDefault(); inertia = (oldMoveX - touchMoveX); // Inertia Stuff if( Math.abs(inertia) > 10 ){ $("#feedback").html(inertia); $("#container").animate({ 'scrollLeft': $("#container").scrollLeft() + (inertia * 10) }, inertia * 20); }else{ $("#feedback").html("No Inertia"); } } I've bound it to the 'touchend' event on the body. The intertia is the difference betweent he old moveX position and the latest moveX position when a touch ends. I then try to animate the scrollLeft property of a div that contains a bunch of thumbnails. As I've said, this works when scrolling to the left, but not when scrolling to the right. You can view the full source code (all in one page) or test it on your iPhone or iPad (or in the simulator) here http://www.appliedworks.co.uk/files/times/swipegal.html Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Web.Routing for the site root or homepage

    - by Aquinas
    I am doing some work with Web.Routing, using it to have friendly urls and nice Rest like interfaces to a site that is essentially rendered by a single IHttpHandler. There are no webforms, the handler generates all the html/json and writes it as part of process request. This works well for things like /Sites/Accounting for example, but I can't get it to work for the site root, i.e. '/'. I have tried registering a route with an empty string, with 'default.aspx' (which is the empty aspx file I keep in my root folder to play nice with cassini and iis). I set RouteExistingFiles to false explicitly, but whatever I do when hitting the root url it still opens default.axpx, which has no code it inherits from, and contains a simple h1 tag to show that I've hit it. I don't want to change the default file to redirect to a desired route, I just want the equivalent of a 'default' route that is applied when no other routes are found, similar to MVC. For reference, the previous version of the site didn't use Web.Routing, but had a handler referenced in the web.config that was perfectly capable of intercepting requests for the root or default.aspx. Specs: ASP.NET 3.5sp1, C#, no webforms, MVC or openrasta. Plain old IHttpHandlers.

    Read the article

  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

    Read the article

  • 'memcache-client' problem - app can't load the gem

    - by Max Williams
    Hi all - i'm trying to get memcached and the Interlock plugin working with a new rails app. The weird thing is that they both work fine in another app on the same machine and i can't figure out the difference that's stopping this app. The new app is rails 2.3.4 and the old one is 2.2.2 in case that's a factor. When the app starts, i get a warning from interlock: `install_memcached':Interlock::ConfigurationError: 'memcache-client' client requested but not installed. Try 'sudo gem install memcache-client'. Now, i have memcache-client installed: $> gem list | grep memcache memcache-client (1.7.8) The gem is in /var/lib/gems/1.8, which is in my GEM_PATH variable. On a bit of further investigation, the above error is raised by interlock when it refers to the MemCache class, which doesn't exist and so raises an 'anonymous module' error. So, ultimately, the problem is that MemCache isn't loaded. I have a memcached.yml in my config folder (below) however. I'm stuck - any advice anyone? #contents of config/memcached.yml defaults: namespace: millionaire #sessions: true sessions: false client: memcache-client with_finders: true development: servers: - 127.0.0.1:11211 production: servers: - 127.0.0.1:11211

    Read the article

  • Silverlight HttpWebRequest.Create hangs inside async block

    - by jack2010
    I am trying to prototype a Rpc Call to a JBOSS webserver from Silverlight (4). I have written the code and it is working in a console application - so I know that Jboss is responding to the web request. Porting it to silverlight 4, is causing issues: let uri = new Uri(queryUrl) // this is the line that hangs let request : HttpWebRequest = downcast WebRequest.Create(uri) request.Method <- httpMethod; request.ContentType <- contentType It may be a sandbox issue, as my silverlight is being served off of my file system and the Uri is a reference to the localhost - though I am not even getting an exception. Thoughts? Thx UPDATE 1 I created a new project and ported my code over and now it is working; something must be unstable w/ regard to the F# Silverlight integration still. Still would appreciate thoughts on debugging the "hanging" web create in the old model... UPDATE 2 let uri = Uri("http://localhost./portal/main?isSecure=IbongAdarnaNiFranciscoBalagtas") // this WebRequest.Create works fine let req : HttpWebRequest = downcast WebRequest.Create(uri) let Login = async { let uri = new Uri("http://localhost/portal/main?isSecure=IbongAdarnaNiFranciscoBalagtas") // code hangs on this WebRequest.Create let request : HttpWebRequest = downcast WebRequest.Create(uri) return request } Login |> Async.RunSynchronously I must be missing something; the Async block works fine in the console app - is it not allowed in the Silverlight App?

    Read the article

  • How do I repopulate the view model in ASP.NET MVC 2 after a validation error?

    - by Keltex
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2 and here's the issue. My View Model looks something like this. It includes some fields which are edited by the user and others which are used for display purposes. Here's a simple version public class MyModel { public decimal Price { get; set; } // for view purpose only [Required(ErrorMessage="Name Required")] public string Name { get; set; } } The controller looks something like this: public ActionResult Start(MyModel rec) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } The issue is when there's a validation error and I call View(rec), I'm not sure the best way to populate my view model with the values that are displayed only. The old way of doing it, where I pass in a form collection, I would do something like this: public ActionResult Start(FormCollection collection) { var rec = Repository.LoadModel(); UpdateModel(rec); if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } But doing this, I get an error on UpdateModel(rec): The model of type 'MyModel' could not be updated. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Is SQLDataReader slower than using the command line utility sqlcmd?

    - by Andrew
    I was recently advocating to a colleague that we replace some C# code that uses the sqlcmd command line utility with a SqlDataReader. The old code uses: System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo procStartInfo = new System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("cmd", "/c " + sqlCmd); wher sqlCmd is something like "sqlcmd -S " + serverName + " -y 0 -h-1 -Q " + "\"" + "USE [" + database + "]" + ";+ txtQuery.Text +"\"";\ The results are then parsed using regular expressions. I argued that using a SQLDataReader woud be more in line with industry practices, easier to debug and maintain and probably faster. However, the SQLDataReader approach is at least the same speed and quite possibly slower. I believe I'm doing everything correctly with SQLDataReader. The code is: using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection()) { try { SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(connectionString); connection.ConnectionString = builder.ToString(); ; SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); // do stuff w/ reader reader.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { outputMessage += (ex.Message); } } I've used System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch to time both approaches and the command line utility (called from C# code) does seem faster (20-40%?). The SqlDataReader has the neat feature that when the same code is called again, it's lightening fast, but for this application we don't anticipate that. I have already done some research on this problem. I note that the command line utility sqlcmd uses OLE DB technology to hit the database. Is that faster than ADO.NET? I'm really suprised, especially since the command line utility approach involves starting up a process. I really thought it would be slower. Any thoughts? Thanks, Dave

    Read the article

  • 3D Web Sites and Applications

    - by Scott Evernden
    I have for the last several years been struggling to understand why the Internet has so few actually useful 3D web applications. It's 2009 and still everything looks like pages from a Sears catalog. You can turn on your TV and find flying logos every night. After that you can get nostalgic and flip on ol' N-64 and play some Zelda or Mario Kart. On the PC, Sims 2 is approaching 6 years old already.. And then there's WoW. Current generation of users - the Facebook crowd, let's say - has ~no~ problem dealing with multi-dimensional environments.. And yet, nothing really immersive seems to happen on the web. I've been hearing about VRML and X3D for at least 10 years and ... pffft .. - nothing earth shaking going on there. Java 3D ? .. cool ! .. but ...... Still .... waiting and waiting. Do you think it will take a killer-web app before people become accustomed-to or will seek to use what could more more engaging web experiences? I am not talking about Second Life and other dedicated downloaded applications. I probably am more focused on apps like Lively or SceneCaster or Hangout or a half dozen others that are delivered 'painlessly' directly into web pages. My own particular interest is in the domain of virtual stores and immersive shopping. Its been a challenge trying to understand why an average user would not want to browse and wander a changing mall-space - like in the real world -- entertained by unexpected discovery. Is the 3D web always going to be 5 years in the future ?

    Read the article

  • Telerik Silverlight RadComboBox Selected Item

    - by Chirag
    i am customize telerik Datapager control in that control create one resource file and add one combobox for change page size of grid <UserControl.Resources> ....... <telerik:RadComboBox x:Name="CmbPageSize" MinWidth="40" telerik:StyleManager.Theme="{StaticResource Theme}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=BindPageSize, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=DataPagerPageSize_string, Mode=TwoWay}"></telerik:RadComboBox> ....... Bind a combo with public string DataPagerPageSize_string { get { if (_DataPagerPageSize_string == null || _DataPagerPageSize_string == string.Empty) { //DatapagerIndex = 1; return DefaultPageSize.ToString(); } return _DataPagerPageSize_string; } set { _DataPagerPageSize_string = value; OnPropertyChanged("_DataPagerPageSize_string"); } } public List<string> BindPageSize { get { List<string> Pagerdata = new List<string>(); Pagerdata.Add("10"); Pagerdata.Add("20"); Pagerdata.Add("50"); Pagerdata.Add("100"); Pagerdata.Add("250"); Pagerdata.Add("500"); Pagerdata.Add("750"); Pagerdata.Add("1000"); Pagerdata.Add("1500"); Pagerdata.Add("2000"); Pagerdata.Add("Automatic"); Pagerdata.Add("All"); return Pagerdata; } } this is working fine in case of if i select a value from combobox but i wan to change it from code behind Like EVP.DataPagerPageSize_string = "All"; this thigs works fine but Combobox display me a old value; if i will check a property then it show me a newly set value but combobox not select newly value

    Read the article

  • Input validation in WPF

    - by irfanali-wpfexpert
    i am developing an application in wpf using MVVM design pattern. i have a listbox when an item is slected then a dialog is open having the same record in editable mode. this dialog is binded with the selected item of the list. i have apply the validation rule for textbox using IDataErrorInfo. when the user update a record on dialogbox then at every key press, the selected record in listbox is also changed. if the user press save button then i submit changes to database. but if user click cancel button then i do not submit changes to database but the list box is updated with the current updation in GUI. when i refresh the list then old value appears again. My requirement is to update the listbox only when the user hit the save button but not on every key press on dialog box. I first fill the generic list with the linq to sql classes then bind the listbox with it. Please let me know what i have to do. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • storing and retrieving socket

    - by Trevor Newhook
    From what I can understand, once I create a socket, I can then create an array to store it with userArray[socket.nickname]=socket; I can then send a message to it with: io.sockets.socket(userArray[data.to]).emit('private message', tstamp(), socket.nickname, message); The basic logic is to store a copy of each socket in an object, identified by nickname. When I want to send a message to that socket, I use the copy of the socket, and send the message via io.sockets.socket(id).emit(). The entire server code is below: io.sockets.on('connection', function (socket) { socket.on('user message', function (msg) { socket.broadcast.emit('user message', tstamp(), socket.nickname, msg); updateLog('user message', socket.nickname, msg); }); socket.on('private message', function(data) { socket.get(data.nickname, function (err, name) { console.log('Chat message by ', name); }); updateLog('private message', socket.nickname, data.message); message=data.message; io.sockets.socket(userArray[data.to]).emit('private message', tstamp(), socket.nickname, message); }); socket.on('get log', function () { updateLog(); // Ensure old entries are cleared out before sending it. io.sockets.emit('chat log', log); }); socket.on('nickname', function (nick, fn) { var i = 1; var orignick = nick; while (nicknames[nick]) { nick = orignick+i; i++; } fn(nick); nicknames[nick] = socket.nickname = nick; userArray[socket.nickname]=socket; socket.set('nickname', nick, function () { socket.emit('ready'); }); socket.broadcast.emit('announcement', nick + ' connected'); // io.sockets.socket(userArray[nick]).emit('newID', 'Your name is: ' + nick, '. Your ID is: '+ userArray[nick]); io.sockets.emit('nicknames', nicknames); });

    Read the article

  • Javascript Error with DataTable jQuery plugin

    - by stevoyoung
    I am getting a JS error and what to know what it means and how to solve it. (JS noob here) Error: "tId is not defined" Line of JS with error: "if (s[i].sInstance = tId) { " More Information I am using the Data Table (http://datatables.net) jQuery plugin. I have a two tables with a class of "dataTable" loaded on a page (inside of jQuery UI tabs). The tables render as expected but I get the error above in Firebug. Attached is my Data Table config file... $(document).ready(function() { //Take from: http://datatables.net/forums/comments.php?DiscussionID=1507 // before creating a table, make sure it is not already created. // And if it is, then remove old version before new one is created var currTable = $(".dataTable"); if (currTable) { // contains the dataTables master records var s = $(document).dataTableSettings; if (s != 'undefined') { var len = s.length; for (var i=0; i < len; i++) { // if already exists, remove from the array if (s[i].sInstance = tId) { s.splice(i,1); } } } } oTable = $('.dataTable').dataTable({ "bJQueryUI": true, "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "bFilter": false }); }); What does the error mean and how do I resolve it?

    Read the article

  • RubyGems installation errors when using 'sudo' or not

    - by Kenny Peng
    I have a machine that is running Ubuntu Hardy, which provides its own RubyGems package. Unfortunately that version of RubyGems (1.1.1) is too old to do anything useful with, so I decided to manually update RubyGems to the current version (1.3.6). That part went smoothly, and if I do gem -v, I get 1.3.6 which is expected. The problem is when I try to do: sudo gem install rack, it returns this error: ERROR: While executing gem ... (Errno::EACCES) Permission denied - /home/username/.gem Usually when I install gems as root, it knows to install it into /usr/lib/ruby/gems, so why is it checking my home directory at all? Another quirk is when I do gem install rack (not as root), it says: ERROR: While executing gem ... (Gem::FilePermissionError) You don't have write permissions into the /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 directory. which is where I want it to go. I've already tried clearing source_caches, trying different versions of RubyGems (1.3.5), forcing installation into /usr/lib with -i to no avail. Any ideas on why RubyGems is so insistent on checking my /home directory when installing as root?

    Read the article

  • iPhone programming - problem with CoreFoundation forking, PLEASE for the love of god help! lol

    - by Tom
    Hello all, I've been working on an iPhone for several months. It's a 2d shooting game akin to the old Smash TV type games. I'm doing everything alone and it has come out well so far, but now I am getting unpredictable crashes which seem to be related to CoreFoundation forking and not exec()ing, as the message THE_PROCESS_HAS_FORKED_AND_YOU_CANNOT_USE_THIS_COREFOUNDATION_FUNCTIONA LITY_YOU_MUST_EXEC__ always shows up somewhere in the debugger. Usually it shows up around a CFRunLoopRunSpecific and is related to either a timer firing or _InitializeTouchTapCount. I cannot figure out exactly what is causing the fork to occur. My main game loop is running on a timer, first updating all the logic and then drawing everything with openGL. There is nothing highly complex or unusual. I understand you cannot make CF calls on the childside of a fork, or access shared memory and things like that. I am not explicitly trying to fork anything. My question is: can anyone tell me what type of activity might cause CoreFoundation to randomly fork like this? I'd really like to finish this game and I don't know how to solve this problem. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Machine Learning Algorithm for Predicting Order of Events?

    - by user213060
    Simple machine learning question. Probably numerous ways to solve this: There is an infinite stream of 4 possible events: 'event_1', 'event_2', 'event_4', 'event_4' The events do not come in in completely random order. We will assume that there are some complex patterns to the order that most events come in, and the rest of the events are just random. We do not know the patterns ahead of time though. After each event is received, I want to predict what the next event will be based on the order that events have come in in the past. The predictor will then be told what the next event actually was: Predictor=new_predictor() prev_event=False while True: event=get_event() if prev_event is not False: Predictor.last_event_was(prev_event) predicted_event=Predictor.predict_next_event(event) The question arises of how long of a history that the predictor should maintain, since maintaining infinite history will not be possible. I'll leave this up to you to answer. The answer can't be infinte though for practicality. So I believe that the predictions will have to be done with some kind of rolling history. Adding a new event and expiring an old event should therefore be rather efficient, and not require rebuilding the entire predictor model, for example. Specific code, instead of research papers, would add for me immense value to your responses. Python or C libraries are nice, but anything will do. Thanks! Update: And what if more than one event can happen simultaneously on each round. Does that change the solution?

    Read the article

  • managed beans as managed properties

    - by Sean
    I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

    Read the article

  • Why can't the compiler/JVM just make autoboxing "just work"?

    - by Pyrolistical
    Autoboxing is rather scary. While I fully understand the difference between == and .equals I can't but help have the follow bug the hell out of me: final List<Integer> foo = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); final List<Integer> bar = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); System.out.println(foo.get(0) == bar.get(0)); System.out.println(foo.get(1) == bar.get(1)); That prints true false Why did they do it this way? It something to do with cached Integers, but if that is the case why don't they just cache all Integers used by the program? Or why doesn't the JVM always auto unbox to primitive? Printing false false or true true would have been way better. EDIT I disagree about breakage of old code. By having foo.get(0) == bar.get(0) return true you already broke the code. Can't this be solved at the compiler level by replacing Integer with int in byte code (as long as it is never assigned null)

    Read the article

  • Any Red5 Working Example Project for 0.9 release

    - by Daryl
    I'm trying to find 1, just 1, working sample project for Red5 that's updated to work against the latest 0.9 release without missing jars and other nonsense. Right now, it's at v0.9 and the libs are different from other versions. They have 5 pathetic examples on their website, but all were built with the older versions, and who knows which version since they don't seem to be putting any effort into updating or marketing their open source project. For these 5 old examples, I could use the Add External JARS feature to try and add libs from previous versions, they don't mention which versions they were built against and I'm not going to try each previous version to see which works (I already did and nothing works). P.S. Voted the worst documented project on the planet. It's hilarious, one of their developers posted a few videos on youtube, without bothering to attach a sample zip for the get-started project he's demoing. No offense, but that's seriously #(#$$#($!@#*. Not a good start for any tech decision maker to assess a technology for commercial use. Anyone who's more intelligent and can shed some light on behalf of these fools?

    Read the article

  • XmlSerializer equivalent of IExtensibleDataObject

    - by demoncodemonkey
    With DataContracts you can derive from IExtensibleDataObject to allow round-tripping to work without losing any unknown additional data from your XML file. I can't use DataContract because I need to control the formatting of the output XML. But I also need to be able to read a future version of the XML file in the old version of the app, without losing any of the data from the XML file. e.g. XML v1: <Person> <Name>Fred</Name> </Person> XML v2: <Person> <Name>Fred</Name> <Age>42</Age> </Person> If reading an XML v2 file from v1 of my app, deserializing and serializing it again turns it into an XML v1 file. i.e. the "Age" field is erased. Is there anything similar to IExtensibleDataObject that I can use with XmlSerializer to avoid the Age field disappearing?

    Read the article

  • Apache Axis: How to set call properties using code generated from wsdl2java?

    - by marc esher
    I'm using Apache Axis 1.4 (yes, the old one), with wsdl2java to generate the client code for a webservice. I'd like to set additional properties on the Call object before calling methods on the generated stub. For example, I'd like to set username, password, perhaps add or modify existing headers, and change the client handlers to use different implementations. Currently, I'm doing this by modifying the generated Stub class and calling the appropriate setters. However, I'd like to achieve this without touching the generated files. I"m confused, though, because the Stub class has: createCall() which creates the call object and sets some properties. Currently, this is where I'm modifying the generated source code; then, the Stub contains: clientMethod1(){ blahblah Call _call = createCall(); ...... _call.invoke(); } So I can't see a way that I can use the serviceLocator to get a stub, modify the properties I want to modify, and then use the stub to call the methods I want to call, given that the stub methods call createCall() and then call invoke. There doesn't appear to be a way to intercept the new Call object before it's invoked. So: How do you modify properties in the call without modifying the generated Stub class's source code? Thanks for info or even pointers to existing documentation.

    Read the article

  • Java List with Objects - find and replace (delete) entry if Object with certain attribute already ex

    - by Sophomore
    Hi there I've been working all day and I somehow can't get this probably easy task figured out - probably a lack of coffee... I have a synchronizedList where some Objects are being stored. Those objects have a field which is something like an ID. These objects carry information about a user and his current state (simplified). The point is, that I only want one object for each user. So when the state of this user changes, I'd like to remove the "old" entry and store a new one in the List. protected static class Objects{ ... long time; Object ID; ... } ... if (Objects.contains(ID)) { Objects.remove(ID); Objects.add(newObject); } else { Objects.add(newObject); } Obviously this is not the way to go but should illustrate what I'm looking for... Maybe the data structure is not the best for this purpose but any help is welcome!

    Read the article

  • Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I ran into a situation where the lack of some features has become somewhat frustrating while developping in VB.NET 2.0. Since my first day of programming, I've always been a C programmer, and still am. Naturally, I chose C# as my favorite .NET language. Recently, a customer of mine has obliged that all of his development projects which disregard SharePoint development have to be written in VB.NET 2.0, that is to avoid conflictual systems to come into some problems. That is a legitimate choice of his which I approve somehow, since he's running some old central systems and is slowly migrating toward latest technologies. As for me, I would have prefered to go with C#, but then, never having done much VB in my life, I see it as an opportunity to learn somethings new, how to handle this and that in VBNET, etc. Except that the syntax is really too verbose for me, which is a pain! I got used to it and that is fine. However, I recently wanted to use the InternalsVisibleToAttribute which I discovered lastly here on SO. But then, in addition to not being able to have lambda expression that returns no value, which I discovered months ago, today I learn that I can't use the attribute in VBNET! Here is what I have read in an article: [...] Sorry VB.Net developers, Microsoft is again shunning you guys and this attribute is NOT available to you.... :( And here is the link: InternalsVisibleTo: Testing internal methods in .Net 2.0 I have heard from Anders Hejlsberg mouth while watching a Webcast from his presentation of .NET 4.0 Framework that the VBNET team was working or has worked in collaboration with the C# team (Eric Lippert and others) in order to bring VBNET to offer the same features as C# offers. But then, I say to myself that the VBNET team has a huge step forward to make, if already in .NET 2.0, some of the most important features lacked! So my question is this: Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET? Will VBNET ever be lacking the C# features?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471  | Next Page >