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  • Dynamically created controls and the ASP.NET page lifecycle

    - by Dirk
    I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to properly develop and deploy features for existing asp.net applications on IIS

    - by Tomh
    My question actually consists of multiple questions. I'm frequently reading about companies who deploy a small subset of features for a select amount of customers using the live "database". Ruby on Rails and its ecosystem have deployment tools and database migrations to deploy or rollback such features in a live production or staging environment. My question, how is this done for an asp.net (mvc in particular) application? How do you test your newly released features against live data? Do you have any tools to modify the existing database and roll back changes if necessary? Do you make backups before deployment? Update Maybe I should point out that my question is not really clear, getting more answers here will help me phrase the question better. To make it easier I will describe a situation I'm commonly seeing with some of my clients. My clients have large deployments of popular web applications. They do not have staging/QA/testing servers. (yes this is not optimal). The data their apps consist of are images, xml files, user uploads and data in Sql Server. Having a few records, of their production database and a couple of dummy files is not a substitute of testing against real data in my opinion. How would you design a workflow that can create a acceptable environment to mimic a production environment before going live?

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  • Insane Graphics.lineStyle behavior

    - by Simon
    Hi all, I'd like some help with a little project of mine. Background: i have a little hierarchy of Sprite derived classes (5 levels starting from the one, that is the root application class in Flex Builder). Width and Height properties are overriden so that my class always remembers it's requested size (not just bounding size around content) and also those properties explicitly set scaleX and scaleY to 1, so that no scaling would ever be involved. After storing those values, draw() method is called to redraw content. Drawing: Drawing is very straight forward. Only the deepest object (at 1-indexed level 5) draws something into this.graphics object like this: var gr:Graphics = this.graphics; gr.clear(); gr.lineStyle(0, this.borderColor, 1, true, LineScaleMode.NONE); gr.beginFill(0x0000CC); gr.drawRoundRectComplex(0, 0, this.width, this.height, 10, 10, 0, 0); gr.endFill(); Further on: There is also MouseEvent.MOUSE_WHEEL event attached to the parent of the object that draws. What handler does is simply resizes that drawing object. Problem: Screenshot When resizing sometimes that hairline border line with LineScaleMode.NONE set gains thickness (quite often even 10 px) + it quite often leaves a trail of itself (as seen in the picture above and below blue box (notice that box itself has one px black border)). When i set lineStile thickness to NaN or alpha to 0, that trail is no more happening. I've been coming back to this problem and dropping it for some other stuff for over a week now. Any ideas anyone? P.S. Grey background is that of Flash Player itself, not my own choise.. :D

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  • Why this method does not use any properties of the object?

    - by Roman
    Here I found this code: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class FunWithPanels extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { FunWithPanels frame = new FunWithPanels(); frame.doSomething(); } void doSomething() { Container c = getContentPane(); JPanel p1 = new JPanel(); p1.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); p1.add(new JButton("A"), BorderLayout.NORTH); p1.add(new JButton("B"), BorderLayout.WEST); JPanel p2 = new JPanel(); p2.setLayout(new GridLayout(3, 2)); p2.add(new JButton("F")); p2.add(new JButton("G")); p2.add(new JButton("H")); p2.add(new JButton("I")); p2.add(new JButton("J")); p2.add(new JButton("K")); JPanel p3 = new JPanel(); p3.setLayout(new BoxLayout(p3, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); p3.add(new JButton("L")); p3.add(new JButton("M")); p3.add(new JButton("N")); p3.add(new JButton("O")); p3.add(new JButton("P")); c.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); c.add(p1, BorderLayout.CENTER); c.add(p2, BorderLayout.SOUTH); c.add(p3, BorderLayout.EAST); pack(); setVisible(true); } } I do not understand how "doSomething" use the fact that "frame" is an instance of the class JFrame. It is not clear to me because there is no reference to "this" in the code for the method "doSomething".

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  • Crystal Report: Missing Parameter Values

    - by Chintan
    Hi! I am new to Crystal report, application is on ASP.net 3.5 and MySQL 5.1 with, going to develop report with between dates from date and to date, first page of report is shown good but when i tried to navigate on another page i got error like Missing Parameter Values Thanks in advance public partial class BookingStatement : System.Web.UI.Page { //DAL is my Data Access Layer Class //Book is ReportClass DAL obj = new DAL(); Book bkStmt = new Book(); protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { //crvBooking is Crystal Report Viewer //reportFill method is to fill Report reportFill(); crvBooking.EnableViewState = true; crvBooking.EnableParameterPrompt = false; } /* Also try reportFill() out side !IsPostBack but didn't work */ //Check if the parmeters have been shown. /* if ((ViewState["ParametersShown"] != null) && (ViewState["ParametersShown"].ToString() == "True")) { bkStmt.SetParameterValue(0, "20/04/2010"); bkStmt.SetParameterValue(1, "20/04/2010"); }*/ } protected void crvBooking_navigate(object sender, CrystalDecisions.Web.NavigateEventArgs e) { // reportFill(); } protected void reportFill() { //bkStmt.rpt is Report file //bookingstatment is View //bkStmt is ReportClass object of Book string rptPath = "bkStmt.rpt"; string query = "select * from bookingstatment"; crvBooking.RefreshReport(); crvBooking.Height = 600; crvBooking.Width = 900; bkStmt.ResourceName = rptPath; String dtFrm = bkStmt.ParameterFields[0].CurrentValues.ToString(); obj.SetCommandType(CommandType.Text); obj.CommText = query; DataTable dtst = obj.GetDataTable(); crvBooking.ParameterFieldInfo.Clear(); ParameterDiscreteValue discretevalue = new ParameterDiscreteValue(); discretevalue.Value = "20/04/2010"; // Assign parameter ParameterValues values = new ParameterValues(); values.Add(discretevalue); bkStmt.SetDataSource(dtst); ViewState["ParametersShown"] = "True"; crvBooking.EnableViewState = true; bkStmt.DataDefinition.ParameterFields[0].ApplyCurrentValues(values); bkStmt.DataDefinition.ParameterFields[1].ApplyCurrentValues(values); crvBooking.ReportSource = bkStmt; } }

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  • 301 Redirecting URLs based on GET variables in .htaccess

    - by technicalbloke
    I have a few messy old URLs like... http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=1 http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=2 ...that I want to redirect to the newer, cleaner form... http://www.example.com/page.php/welcome http://www.example.com/page.php/prices I understand I can redirect one page to another with a simple redirect i.e. Redirect 301 /bunch.of/unneeded/crap http://www.example.com/page.php But the source page doesn't change, only it's GET vars. I can't figure out how to base the redirect on the value of these GET variables. Can anybody help pls!? I'm fairly handy with the old regexes so I can have a pop at using mod-rewrite if I have to but I'm not clear on the syntax for rewriting GET vars and I'd prefer to avoid the performance hit and use the cleaner Redirect directive. Is there a way? and if not can anyone clue me in as to the right mod-rewrite syntax pls? Cheers, Roger.

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  • HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

    - by pq
    Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

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  • SQL Concurrent test update question

    - by ptoinson
    Howdy Folks, I have a SQLServer 2008 database in which I have a table for Tags. A tag is just an id and a name. The definition of the tags table looks like: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tag]( [ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [varchar](255) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [PK_Tag] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ) Name is also a unique index. further I have several processes adding data to this table at a pretty rapid rate. These processes use a stored proc that looks like: ALTER PROC [dbo].[lg_Tag_Insert] @Name varchar(255) AS DECLARE @ID int SET @ID = (select ID from Tag where Name=@Name ) if @ID is null begin INSERT Tag(Name) VALUES (@Name) RETURN SCOPE_IDENTITY() end else begin return @ID end My issues is that, other than being a novice at concurrent database design, there seems to be a race condition that is causing me to occasionally get an error that I'm trying to enter duplicate keys (Name) into the DB. The error is: Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.Tag' with unique index 'IX_Tag_Name'. This makes sense, I'm just not sure how to fix this. If it where code I would know how to lock the right areas. SQLServer is quite a different beast. First question is what is the proper way to code this 'check, then update pattern'? It seems I need to get an exclusive lock on the row during the check, rather than a shared lock, but it's not clear to me the best way to do that. Any help in the right direction will be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to remove extra white spaces using javascript or jquery?

    - by Amr ElGarhy
    I got HTML element contains this: <!--Product Style--> <div style="float: right; padding-top: 4px; padding-bottom: 5px;"> P6C245RO </div> <div style="text-transform: uppercase; font-weight: bold; padding-top: 4px; padding-bottom: 5px;"> Style </div> <div style="clear: both; border-top: 1px solid rgb(216, 216, 216); padding-top: 4px;"> <!--Product Description--> <div style="font-size: 11px ! important;"></div> <div style="background: url(&quot;http://ii.armaniexchange.com/ArmaniExchange/images/en_US/global/globalgraphics/bullet.gif&quot;) no-repeat scroll 0pt 4px transparent; padding-left: 12px;">fine tonal striped fabric</div> <div style="background: url(&quot;http://ii.armaniexchange.com/ArmaniExchange/images/en_US/global/globalgraphics/bullet.gif&quot;) no-repeat scroll 0pt 4px transparent; padding-left: 12px;">epaulettes and sleeve tab</div> <div style="background: url(&quot;http://ii.armaniexchange.com/ArmaniExchange/images/en_US/global/globalgraphics/bullet.gif&quot;) no-repeat scroll 0pt 4px transparent; padding-left: 12px;">metal logo plate on the chest pocket</div> When i read it using jquery i get the .text() contains a lot of spaces and /n in between the text but without the html tags. How to remove all these white spaces and return the clean text using jquery or pure javascript?

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  • nhibernate - mapping with contraints

    - by Tobias Müller
    Hello everybody, I am having a Problem with my nhibernate-mapping and I can't find a solution by searching on stackoverflow/google/documentation. The database I am using has (amongst others) two tables. One is unit with the following fields: id enduring_id starts ends damage_enduring_id [...] The other one is damage, which has the following fields: id enduring_id starts ends [...] The units are assigned to a damage and one damage can have zero, one or more units working on it. Every time a unit moves to annother damage, the dataset is copied. The field "ends" of the old record and "starts" of the new record are set to the current time stamp, enduring_id stays the same. So if I want to know which units were working on a damage at a certain time, I do the following select: select * from unit join damage on damage.enduring_id = unit.damage_enduring_id where unit.starts <= 'time' and unit.ends = 'time' (This is not an actualy query from the database, I made it up to make clear what I mean. The the real database is a little more complex) Now I want to map it that way, so I can load all the damages which are valid at one time (starts <= wanted time <= ends) and that each of them has a Bag with all the attached units at that time (again starts <= wanted time <= ends). Is this possible within the mapping? Sorry if this is a stupid question, but I am pretty new to nhibernate and I have no clue how to do it. Thanks a lot for reading my post! Bye, Tobias

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  • XML Parseing Error when serving a PDF

    - by Andy
    I'm trying to serve a pdf file from a database in ASP.NET using an Http Handler, but every time I go to the page I get an error XML Parsing Error: no element found Location: https://ucc489/rc/NoteFileHandler.ashx?noteId=1,msdsId=3 Line Number 1, Column 1: ^ Here is my HttpHandler code: public class NoteFileHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { if (context.Request.QueryString.HasKeys()) { if (context.Request.QueryString["noteId"] != null && context.Request.QueryString["msdsId"] != null) { string nId = context.Request.QueryString["noteId"]; string mId = context.Request.QueryString["msdsId"]; DataTable noteFileDt = App_Models.Notes.GetNoteFile(nId, mId); if (noteFileDt.Rows.Count > 0) { try { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + noteFileDt.Rows[0][0] + ".pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] file = (byte[])noteFileDt.Rows[0][1]; context.Response.BinaryWrite(file); context.Response.End(); } catch { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write("File Not Found"); context.Response.StatusCode = 404; } } } } } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } Is there anything else I need to do (server configuration/whatever) to get my pdf file to load?

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  • Retrieve a list of the most popular GET param variations for a given URL?

    - by jamtoday
    I'm working on building intelligence around link propagation, and because I need to deal with many short URL services where a reverse-lookup from an exact URL address is required, I need to be able to resolve multiple approximate versions of the same URL. An example would be a URL like http://www.example.com?ref=affil&hl=en&ct=0 Of course, changing GET params in certain circumstances can refer to a completely different page, especially if the GET params in question refer to a profile or content ID. But a quick parse of the page would quickly determine how similar the pages were to each other. Using a bit of machine learning, it could quickly become clear which GET params don't effect the content of the pages returned for a given site. I'm assuming a service to send a URL and get a list of very similar URLs could only be offered by the likes of Google or Yahoo (or Twitter), but they don't seem to offer this feature, and I haven't found any other services that do. If you know of any services that do cluster together groups of almost identical URLs in the aforementioned way, please let me know. My bounty is a hug.

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  • Performance issue on Android's MapView Navigation-App

    - by poeschlorn
    Hey Guys, I've got a question on making an navigation app more faster and more stable. The basic layer of my app is a simple mapview, covered with several overlays (2 markers for start and destination and one for the route). My idea is to implement a thread to display the route, so that the app won't hang up during the calculation of a more complex route (like it does right now). After implementing the thread there are no updates shows any more, maybe you can help me with a short glance at an excerpt of my code below: private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { posUser = new GeoPoint((int) (loc.getLatitude() * 1E6), (int) (loc .getLongitude() * 1E6)); new Thread(){ public void run(){ mapView.invalidate(); // Erase old overlays mapView.getOverlays().clear(); // Draw updated overlay elements and adjust basic map settings updateText(); if(firstRefresh){ adjustMap(); firstRefresh = false; } getAndPaintRoute(); drawMarkers(); } }; } Some features have been summarized to a method like "drawMarkers()" or "updateText()"...(they don't need any more attention ;-))

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  • httpHandler - subfolder issue

    - by Patto
    Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Entity Framework 4 / POCO - Where to start?

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, I've been programming for a while and have used LINQ-To-SQL and LINQ-To-Entities before (although when using entities it has been on a Entity/Table 1-1 relationship - ie not much different than L2SQL) I've been doing a lot of reading about Inversion of Control, Unit of Work, POCO and repository patterns and would like to use this methodology in my new applications. Where I'm struggling is finding a clear, concise beginners guide for EF4 which doesn't assume knowledge of EF1. The specific questions I need answered are: Code first / model first? Pros/cons in regards to EF4 (ie what happens if I do code first, change the code at a later date and need to regenerate my DB model - Does the data get preserved and transformed or dropped?) Assuming I'm going code-first (I'd like to see how EF4 converts that to a DB schema) how do I actually get started? Quite often I've seen articles with entity diagrams stating "So this is my entity model, now I'm going to ..." - Unfortunately, I'm unclear if they're created the model in the designer, saved it to generate code then stopped any further auto-code generation -or- They've coded (POCO)? classes and the somehow imported them into the deisgner view? I suppose what I really need is an understanding of where the "magic" comes from and how to add it myself if I'm not just generating an EF model directly from a DB. I'm aware the question is a little vague but I don't know what I don't know - So any input / correction / clarification appreciated. Needless to say, I don't expect anyone to sit here and teach me EF - I'd just like some good tutorials/forums/blogs/etc. for complete entity newbies Many thanks in advance

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  • Avoiding anemic domain model - a real example

    - by cbp
    I am trying to understand Anemic Domain Models and why they are supposedly an anti-pattern. Here is a real world example. I have an Employee class, which has a ton of properties - name, gender, username, etc public class Employee { public string Name { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } // Etc.. mostly getters and setters } Next we have a system that involves rotating incoming phone calls and website enquiries (known as 'leads') evenly amongst sales staff. This system is quite complex as it involves round-robining enquiries, checking for holidays, employee preferences etc. So this system is currently seperated out into a service: EmployeeLeadRotationService. public class EmployeeLeadRotationService : IEmployeeLeadRotationService { private IEmployeeRepository _employeeRepository; // ...plus lots of other injected repositories and services public void SelectEmployee(ILead lead) { // Etc. lots of complex logic } } Then on the backside of our website enquiry form we have code like this: public void SubmitForm() { var lead = CreateLeadFromFormInput(); var selectedEmployee = Kernel.Get<IEmployeeLeadRotationService>() .SelectEmployee(lead); Response.Write(employee.Name + " will handle your enquiry. Thanks."); } I don't really encounter many problems with this approach, but supposedly this is something that I should run screaming from because it is an Anemic Domain Model. But for me its not clear where the logic in the lead rotation service should go. Should it go in the lead? Should it go in the employee? What about all the injected repositories etc that the rotation service requires - how would they be injected into the employee, given that most of the time when dealing with an employee we don't need any of these repositories?

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  • How can I programmatically add more than just one view object to my view controller?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    I'm diving into iPhone OS development and I'm trying to understand how I can add multiple view objects to the "Left/Root" view of my SplitView iPad app. I've figured out how to programmatically add a TableView to that view based on the example code I found in Apple's online documentation... RootViewController.h @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; UITableView *tableView; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } RootViewController.m - (void)loadView { UITableView *newTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame] style:UITableViewStylePlain]; newTableView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight|UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; newTableView.delegate = self; newTableView.dataSource = self; [newTableView reloadData]; self.view = newTableView; [newTableView release]; } but there are a few things I don't understand about it and I was hoping you veterans could help clear up some confusion. In the statement self.view = newTableView, I assume I'm setting the entire view to a single UITableView. If that's the case, then how can I add additional view objects to that view alongside the table view? For example, if I wanted to have a DatePicker view object and the TableView object instead of just the TableView object, then how would I programmatically add that? Referencing the code above, how can I resize the table view to make room for the DatePicker view object that I'd like to add? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • Capturing time intervals when somebody was online? How would you impement this feature?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Our aim is to build timelines saying about periods of time when user was online. (It really doesn't matter what user we are talking about and where he was online) To get information about onliners we can call API method, someservice.com/api/?call=whoIsOnline whoIsOnline method will give us a list of users currently online. But there is no API method to get information about who IS NOT online. So, we should build our timelines using information we got from whoIsOnline. Of course there will be a measurement error (we can't track information in realtime). Let's suppose that we will call whoIsOnline method every 2 minutes (yes, we will run our script by cron every 2 minutes). For example, calling whoIsOnline at 08:00 will return Peter_id Michal_id Andy_id calling whoIsOnline at 08:02 will return Michael_id Andy_id George_id As you can see, Peter has gone offline, but we have new onliner - George. Available instruments are Db(MySQL) / text files / key-value storage (Redis/memcache); feel free to choose any of them (or even all of them). So, we have to get information like this George_id was online... 12 May: 08:02-08:30, 12:40-12:46, 20:14-22:36 11 May: 09:10-12:30, 21:45-23:00 10 May: was not online And now question... How would you store information to implement such timelines? How would you query/calculate information about periods of time when user was online? Additional information.. You cannot update information about offline users, only users who are "currently" online. Solution should be flexible: timeline information could be represented relating to any timezone. We should keep information only for last 7 days. Every user seen online is automatically getting his own identifier in our database. Uff.. it was really hard for me to write it because my English is pretty bad, but I hope my question will be clear for you. Thank you.

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  • Optimizing drawing on UITableViewCell

    - by Brian
    I am drawing content to a UITableViewCell and it is working well, but I'm trying to understand if there is a better way of doing this. Each cell has the following components: Thumbnail on the left side - could come from server so it is loaded async Title String - variable length so each cell could be different height Timestamp String Gradient background - the gradient goes from the top of the cell to the bottom and is semi-transparent so that background colors shine through with a gloss It currently works well. The drawing occurs as follows: UITableViewController inits/reuses a cell, sets needed data, and calls [cell setNeedsDisplay] The cell has a CALayer for the thumbnail - thumbnailLayer In the cell's drawRect it draws the gradient background and the two strings The cell's drawRect it then calls setIcon - which gets the thumbnail and sets the image as the contents of the thumbnailLayer. If the image is not found locally, it sets a loading image as the contents of the thumbnailLayer and asynchronously gets the thumbnail. Once the thumbnail is received, it is reset by calling setIcon again & resets the thumbnailLayer.contents This all currently works, but using Instruments I see that the thumbnail is compositing with the gradient. I have tried the following to fix this: setting the cell's backgroundView to a view whose drawRect would draw the gradient so that the cell's drawRect could draw the thumbnail and using setNeedsDisplayInRect would allow me to only redraw the thumbnail after it loaded --- but this resulted in the backgroundView's drawing (gradient) covering the cell's drawing (text). I would just draw the thumbnail in the cell's drawRect, but when setNeedsDisplay is called, drawRect will just overlap another image and the loading image may show through. I would clear the rect, but then I would have to redraw the gradient. I would try to draw the gradient in a CAGradientLayer and store a reference to it, so I can quickly redraw it, but I figured I'd have to redraw the gradient if the cell's height changes. Any ideas? I'm sure I'm missing something so any help would be great.

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  • Question about using adaptive layout + print style sheet

    - by Michael
    Hey everyone, In my web design class, we looked at creating different style sheets for different window sizes and using a javascript that detects the window size and loads the right style sheet. In the head, I'm linking to three external style sheets, as well as a link to the javascript file. So the adaptive layout works fine. However... I also need to be able to use a print style sheet with this particular webpage (it's the requirement for this project). The problem is this that the way the javascript was written makes it so that it ignores the print style sheet. When I go to print preview, it ignores the print style sheet and the preview shows me all of my webpage unstyled. It looks like just the html when opened in a browser. I am using the javascript by Kevin Hale at ParticleTree, and I'm sure there are those familiar with this :] http://particletree.com/examples/dynamiclayouts/ I would like to know what needs to be changed so that the print style sheet isn't ignored. I've shown this to my professor. However, her email wasn't clear enough, but I understand that somehow the script is ignoring the print.css and that's why the print preview shows a css-less preview. Since it's the weekend, I won't be able to get an answer until Monday, and I was hoping someone can help me out. Thank you very much! Michael

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  • Combining multiple content types into a single search result with Drupal 6 and Views 2

    - by Chaulky
    Hi all, I need to create a somewhat advanced search functionality for my Drupal 6 site. I have a one-to-many relationship between two content types and need to search them, respecting that relationship. To make things more clear... I have content types TypeX and TypeY. TypeY has a node reference CCK field that relates it to a single node of TypeX. So, many nodes of TypeY reference the same node of TypeX. I want to use Views 2 to create a search page for these nodes. I want each search result to be a node of TypeX, along with all the nodes of TypeY that reference it. I know I could just theme the individual results and use a view to add the nodes of TypeY to the single node of TypeX... but that won't allow users to actually search TypeY... it would only search TypeX and merely display some nodes of TypeY along with it. Is there anyway to get the search to account for content in nodes of both content types, but merge the TypeY results into the "parent" node of TypeX? In database terms, it seems like I need to do a join, then filter by the search terms. But I can't figure out how to do this in Views. Thanks for any help i can get!!!

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  • How to update a custom dependency property when the datasource list changes

    - by John
    Hi We have a user control with a custom dependency property (DP). The DP is bound to an ObservableCollection. When a new item is added to the collection programatically, the databinding does not update the target DP. Why? We think it's because, unfortunately, in our case the target is not a ListBox or ListView, but a Canvas. The DP, when changed or initialized, is supposed to draw a Shape (!) onto the Canvas, and the shape's position and size is bound to the collection item's two properties: WIDTH, LEFT. Ideally we don't want to clear the Canvas and redraw all items just becasue one has been added (or deleted). But how? So: How can the custom DP take care of drawing the shape for the new collection item? What callback do we need, at what point in time does this have to happen, and what specific MetaDataOptions might there? Also, are there any good resources out there concerning all these dependency property options. They are quite confusing. MSDN does not really help with what we're trying to do. Thanks!

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  • DataTable won't DataBind with a DataTable.NewRow()

    - by David
    Is DataRow.NewRow() insufficient as the only row in a DataTable? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't. It's near the end of my Page_Load inside my If(!Postback) block. gridCPCP is GridView DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("ID", int.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Code", string.Empty.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Date2", DateTime.MinValue.GetType()); dt.Columns.Add("Filename", string.Empty.GetType()); //code to add rows if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); } else { dt.Rows.Add(dt.NewRow()); gridCPCP.DataSource = dt; gridCPCP.DataBind(); //EXCEPTION int TotalColumns = gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Count; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Clear(); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells.Add(new TableCell()); gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].ColumnSpan = TotalColumns; gridCPCP.Rows[0].Cells[0].Text = "No Record Found"; } The exception throws on gridCPCP.DataBind() and only when execution reaches the else block. If there were rows added above via dt.Rows.Add(new object[] { ... } binding works. System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Length cannot be less than zero. Parameter name: length

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  • How to distinguish between two different UDP clients on the same IP address?

    - by Ricket
    I'm writing a UDP server, which is a first for me; I've only done a bit of TCP communications. And I'm having trouble figuring out exactly how to distinguish which user is which, since UDP deals only with packets rather than connections and I therefore cannot tell exactly who I'm communicating with. Here is pseudocode of my current server loop: DatagramPacket p; socket.receive(p); // now p contains the user's IP and port, and the data int key = getKey(p); if(key == 0) { // connection request key = makeKey(p); clients.add(key, p.ip); send(p.ip, p.port, key); // give the user his key } else { // user has a key // verify key belongs to that IP address // lookup the user's session data based on the key // react to the packet in the context of the session } When designing this, I kept in mind these points: Multiple users may exist on the same IP address, due to the presence of routers, therefore users must have a separate identification key. Packets can be spoofed, so the key should be checked against its original IP address and ignored if a different IP tries to use the key. The outbound port on the client side might change among packets. Is that third assumption correct, or can I simply assume that one user = one IP+port combination? Is this commonly done, or should I continue to create a special key like I am currently doing? I'm not completely clear on how TCP negotiates a connection so if you think I should model it off of TCP then please link me to a good tutorial or something on TCP's SYN/SYNACK/ACK mess. Also note, I do have a provision to resend a key, if an IP sends a 0 and that IP already has a pending key; I omitted it to keep the snippet simple. I understand that UDP is not guaranteed to arrive, and I plan to add reliability to the main packet handling code later as well.

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