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  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

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  • Converting to a column oriented array in Java

    - by halfwarp
    Although I have Java in the title, this could be for any OO language. I'd like to know a few new ideas to improve the performance of something I'm trying to do. I have a method that is constantly receiving an Object[] array. I need to split the Objects in this array through multiple arrays (List or something), so that I have an independent list for each column of all arrays the method receives. Example: List<List<Object>> column-oriented = new ArrayList<ArrayList<Object>>(); public void newObject(Object[] obj) { for(int i = 0; i < obj.length; i++) { column-oriented.get(i).add(obj[i]); } } Note: For simplicity I've omitted the initialization of objects and stuff. The code I've shown above is slow of course. I've already tried a few other things, but would like to hear some new ideas. How would you do this knowing it's very performance sensitive?

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  • Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

    - by Mark
    Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • php syntax confusion accessing database result

    - by Babak
    I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

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  • Html.ListBox() and MultiselectList

    - by Ivan90
    Hi guys, I've a little problem with an Html.ListBox! I am developing a personal blog in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and I created an adminpanel where I can add and edit a post! During this two operations, I can add also tags! I think of use an Html.ListBox() helper to list all tags, and so I can select multiple tags to add in a post! The problem isn't during the add mode, but in the edit mode, where I have to pre-select post's tags! I read that I have to use a MultiSelectList and so in its constructor pass, tags' list and tag's list(pre-selected value). But I don't know how to use this class! I post, some code: This is my models method that get all list tags in selectlist public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> GetTagsListBox() { return from t in db.Tags orderby t.IDTag descending select new SelectListItem { Text = t.TagName, Value = t.IDTag.ToString(), }; } So in Edit (Get and Post), Add(Get and Post) I use a ViewData to pass this list in Html.ListBox(). ViewData["Tags"] = tagdb.GetTagsListBox(); And in my view <%=Html.ListBox("Tags",ViewData["Tags"] as SelectList) %> So with this code it's ok in Add Mode! But in Edit Mode I need to pre-select those values! So Now, of course I have to create a method that get all tagsbypostid! and then in ViewData what Must I to pass? Any suggest?

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  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

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  • deleting object with template for int and object

    - by Yokhen
    Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

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  • Cross-thread operation not valid: accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on.

    - by user307524
    Hi, I want to remove checked items from checklistbox (winform control) in class file method which i am calling asynchronously using deletegate. but it showing me this error message:- Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'checkedListBox1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. i have tried invoke required but again got the same error. Sample code is below: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Create an instance of the test class. Class1 ad = new Class1(); // Create the delegate. AsyncMethodCaller1 caller = new AsyncMethodCaller1(ad.TestMethod1); //callback delegate IAsyncResult result = caller.BeginInvoke(checkedListBox1, new AsyncCallback(CallbackMethod)," "); } In class file code for TestMethod1 is : - private delegate void dlgInvoke(CheckedListBox c, Int32 str); private void Invoke(CheckedListBox c, Int32 str) { if (c.InvokeRequired) { c.Invoke(new dlgInvoke(Invoke), c, str); c.Items.RemoveAt(str); } else { c.Text = ""; } } // The method to be executed asynchronously. public string TestMethod1(CheckedListBox chklist) { for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { string chkValue = chklist.CheckedItems[i].ToString(); //do some other database operation based on checked items. Int32 index = chklist.FindString(chkValue); Invoke(chklist, index); } return ""; }

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  • Streaming Youtube Videos

    - by Vinay
    Hi All, I am writing an application to play the youtube videos using streaming. First method: I am getting the RTSP URL to the video using GData APIs. Here is the code to play the RTSP url. VideoView mVideoView = new VideoView(this); setContentView(mVideoView); mVideoView.setVideoURI(Uri.parse("rtsp://rtsp2.youtube.com/CiILENy73wIaGQkDwpjrUxOWQBMYESARFEgGUgZ2aWRlb3MM/0/0/0/video.3gp")); mVideoView.start(); But it throws error on both G1 device and emulator (Emulator has some firewall problem as per mailing list) Here is the error message ERROR/PlayerDriver(35): Command PLAYER_INIT completed with an error or info PVMFFailure Second method: A hack way to get the path of 3gp file from http://www.youtube.com/get_video?v=&t=<&<.. After getting the file path and I can call setVideoURI and it plays fine. But it is a hack way to achieve the requirement. I have checked the Youtube App also, it also does the hack way to play the youtube url.(Checked with logcat) I have tried changing from VideoView to MediaPlayer but no change in the error. Is there a "Clean" way to do this? Please let me know your thoughts.

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  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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  • SystemStackError in Rails::ActiveSupport::Callbacks

    - by coreyward
    I'm building a Rails app that connects to Dropbox and syncs with a folder to update a personal site. I'm using Rails 3.0.3, Ruby 1.9.2, and the Dropbox gem. Right now I have a DropboxAccounts Controller, and two models: DropboxSession, which wraps calls to the gem with application-specific functionality, and DropboxAccount, which stores the session and settings in the database. After the user authorizes their account with Dropbox they're redirected back over and the DropboxAccount is saved with the authorized session. That all works just fine. My problem is that when I try to call Dropbox::API#create_folder(any path) I end up with a SystemStackError in lib/activesupport/callbacks.rb:421 which refers to the code below. If I remove the call to create the folder, it works. If I call create folder from another request, it works. I doubled the stack size to 16K to no avail. # This is called the first time a callback is called with a particular # key. It creates a new callback method for the key, calculating # which callbacks can be omitted because of per_key conditions. # def __create_keyed_callback(name, kind, object, &blk) #:nodoc: @_keyed_callbacks ||= {} @_keyed_callbacks[name] ||= begin str = send("_#{kind}_callbacks").compile(name, object) class_eval <<-RUBY_EVAL, __FILE__, __LINE__ + 1 def #{name}() #{str} end # THIS IS LINE 421 protected :#{name} RUBY_EVAL true end end I'm not very familiar with Rails yet, and I'm not sure what the intention of the code above is or why it would cause a stack overflow. I'm not using any method_missing/ghost method magic in my code. I suspected it was something with a callback serialize :files but commenting it out did nothing. My DropboxAccount model contains only a call to belongs_to :user, and DropboxSession is just a handful of methods, none of which contain callbacks. Bypassing them and using the Dropbox::Session methods directly doesn't help. I hope someone on StackOverflow can help me with this stack overflow. ;)

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  • ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

    - by NobleK
    Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

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  • What makes people think that NNs have more computational power than existing models?

    - by Bubba88
    I've read in Wikipedia that neural-network functions defined on a field of arbitrary real/rational numbers (along with algorithmic schemas, and the speculative `transrecursive' models) have more computational power than the computers we use today. Of course it was a page of russian wikipedia (ru.wikipedia.org) and that may be not properly proven, but that's not the only source of such.. rumors Now, the thing that I really do not understand is: How can a string-rewriting machine (NNs are exactly string-rewriting machines just as Turing machines are; only programming language is different) be more powerful than a universally capable U-machine? Yes, the descriptive instrument is really different, but the fact is that any function of such class can be (easily or not) turned to be a legal Turing-machine. Am I wrong? Do I miss something important? What is the cause of people saying that? I do know that the fenomenum of undecidability is widely accepted today (though not consistently proven according to what I've read), but I do not really see a smallest chance of NNs being able to solve that particular problem. Add-in: Not consistently proven according to what I've read - I meant that you might want to take a look at A. Zenkin's (russian mathematician) papers after mid-90-s where he persuasively postulates the wrongness of G. Cantor's concepts, including transfinite sets, uncountable sets, diagonalization method (method used in the proof of undecidability by Turing) and maybe others. Even Goedel's incompletness theorems were proven in right way in only 21-st century.. That's all just to plug Zenkin's work to the post cause I don't know how widespread that knowledge is in CS community so forgive me if that did look stupid. Thank you!

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  • Error handling in C++, constructors vs. regular methods

    - by Dennis Ritchie
    I have a cheesesales.txt CSV file with all of my recent cheese sales. I want to create a class CheeseSales that can do things like these: CheeseSales sales("cheesesales.txt"); //has no default constructor cout << sales.totalSales() << endl; sales.outputPieChart("piechart.pdf"); The above code assumes that no failures will happen. In reality, failures will take place. In this case, two kinds of failures could occur: Failure in the constructor: The file may not exist, may not have read-permissions, contain invalid/unparsable data, etc. Failure in the regular method: The file may already exist, there may not be write access, too little sales data available to create a pie chart, etc. My question is simply: How would you design this code to handle failures? One idea: Return a bool from the regular method indicating failure. Not sure how to deal with the constructor. How would seasoned C++ coders do these kinds of things?

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  • How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

    - by todd412
    Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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  • java.io.StreamCorruptedException: invalid stream header: 7371007E

    - by Alex
    Hello, this is pprobably a simple question . I got a client Server application which communicate using objects. when I send only one object from the client to server all works well. when I attempt to send several objects one after another on the same stream I get StreamCorruptedException. can some one direct me to the cause of this error . Thanks client write method private SecMessage[] send(SecMessage[] msgs) { SecMessage result[]=new SecMessage[msgs.length]; Socket s=null; ObjectOutputStream objOut =null; ObjectInputStream objIn=null; try { s=new Socket("localhost",12345); objOut=new ObjectOutputStream( s.getOutputStream()); for (SecMessage msg : msgs) { objOut.writeObject(msg); } objOut.flush(); objIn=new ObjectInputStream(s.getInputStream()); for (int i=0;i<result.length;i++) result[i]=(SecMessage)objIn.readObject(); } catch(java.io.IOException e) { alert(IO_ERROR_MSG+"\n"+e.getMessage()); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { alert(INTERNAL_ERROR+"\n"+e.getMessage()); } finally { try {objIn.close();} catch (IOException e) {} try {objOut.close();} catch (IOException e) {} } return result; } server read method //in is an inputStream Defined in the server SecMessage rcvdMsgObj; rcvdMsgObj=(SecMessage)new ObjectInputStream(in).readObject(); return rcvdMsgObj; and the SecMessage Class is public class SecMessage implements java.io.Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 3940341617988134707L; private String cmd; //... nothing interesting here , just a bunch of fields , getter and setters }

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  • Socket.Recieve Failing When Multithreaded

    - by Qua
    The following piece of code runs fine when parallelized to 4-5 threads, but starts to fail as the number of threads increase somewhere beyond 10 concurrentthreads int totalRecieved = 0; int recieved; StringBuilder contentSB = new StringBuilder(4000); while ((recieved = socket.Receive(buffer, SocketFlags.None)) > 0) { contentSB.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, recieved)); totalRecieved += recieved; } The Recieve method returns with zero bytes read, and if I continue calling the recieve method then I eventually get a 'An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine'-exception. So I'm assuming that the host actually sent data and then closed the connection, but for some reason I never recieved it. I'm curious as to why this problem arises when there are a lot of threads. I'm thinking it must have something to do with the fact that each thread doesn't get as much execution time and therefore there are some idle time for the threads which causes this error. Just can't figure out why idle time would cause the socket not to recieve any data.

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  • How to Update with LINQ?

    - by DaveDev
    currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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  • Managed bean property value not set to null

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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  • jQuery dynamic css loading weired behavior

    - by jimpsr
    The app I am working on requires dynamic loading of css and js, right now the solution is as follows: myapp.loadCss = function(css){ $("head").append("<link>"); cssDom = $("head").children(":last"); cssDom.attr({rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: css }); } myapp.loadJs = funciton(js){ ... //$.ajax call is used in synchronized mode to make sure the js is fully loaded } } When some widgets need to be load, the usual call with be myapp.loadCss('/widgets/widget1/css/example.css'); myapp.loadJs('/wiggets/widget1/js/example.js'); The weired thing is that once a while (1 out of 10 or 20), the newly created dom elements from example.js will not be able to get its css from example.css, it seems however my loadCss method does not load the css in a synchronized mode? I have tried to replace my loadCss with the the following code: myapp.loadCss(css){ $('<link href="' + css + '" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />').appendTo($('head')); } It seems to be OK then (I refreshed the webpage a hundred times for verification :-( ) But unfortunately this method failed in IE(IE7, not tested in IE6, 8) Is there any better solution for this?

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  • Security header is not valid - using curl php

    - by toni
    Hi all, Im implementing the Express Checkout, Paypal API using PHP. I have no problem with the first step:SetExpressCheckout. I a have awk=success. But in method GetExpressCheckout I get "Security header is not valid". I try to figure out the problem and i think found out maybe it was the curl not working well.. What i did i copy the whole URL: https://api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp?USER=sanbox_1276609583_biz_api1.gmail.com&PWD=1276609589&SIGNATURE=AYVosblmD7khKkvvb.bNxvFT0OQ2A8GopwByEuC.CfMHt65VaUmvAEy-&VERSION=62.0&token=EC-3YG18670X88588437&METHOD=GetExpressCheckoutDetails and paste it to the browser. This will result to: TOKEN=EC%2d3YG18670X88588437&CHECKOUTSTATUS=PaymentActionNotInitiated&TIMESTAMP=2010%2d06%2d16T07%3a40%3a12Z&CORRELATIONID=e1a1e469bf066&ACK=Success&VERSION=62%2e0&BUILD=1356926... But when that url executed in the function I made it will not work. Below is my function: function mycurl($url,$querystr){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $querystr); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $response; } I hope somebody can help on this. thanks so much. Note: - I Used the sandbox for this. I created a sandbox account, I have a Business account to represent a merchant, and a Personal account to represent a buyer. And I used this: endpoint url: api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp sandbox url: www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr This should not be the issue.

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  • Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

    - by Mike
    I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

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  • C++ function overloading and dynamic binding compile problem

    - by Olorin
    #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A { public: virtual void foo(void) const { cout << "A::foo(void)" << endl; } virtual void foo(int i) const { cout << i << endl; } virtual ~A() {} }; class B : public A { public: void foo(int i) const { this->foo(); cout << i << endl; } }; class C : public B { public: void foo(void) const { cout << "C::foo(void)" << endl; } }; int main(int argc, char ** argv) { C test; test.foo(45); return 0; } The above code does not compile with: $>g++ test.cpp -o test.exe test.cpp: In member function 'virtual void B::foo(int) const': test.cpp:17: error: no matching function for call to 'B::foo() const' test.cpp:17: note: candidates are: virtual void B::foo(int) const test.cpp: In function 'int main(int, char**)': test.cpp:31: error: no matching function for call to 'C::foo(int)' test.cpp:23: note: candidates are: virtual void C::foo() const It compiles if method "foo(void)" is changed to "goo(void)". Why is this so? Is it possible to compile the code without changing the method name of "foo(void)"? Thanks.

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