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  • How can I turn a string of text into a BigInteger representation for use in an El Gamal cryptosystem

    - by angstrom91
    I'm playing with the El Gamal cryptosystem, and my goal is to be able to encipher and decipher long sequences of text. I have come up with a method that works for short sequences, but does not work for long sequences, and I cannot figure out why. El Gamal requires the plaintext to be an integer. I have turned my string into a byte[] using the .getBytes() method for Strings, and then created a BigInteger out of the byte[]. After encryption/decryption, I turn the BigInteger into a byte[] using the .toByteArray() method for BigIntegers, and then create a new String object from the byte[]. This works perfectly when i call ElGamalEncipher with strings up to 129 characters. With 130 or more characters, the output produced is garbled. Can someone suggest how to solve this issue? Is this an issue with my method of turning the string into a BigInteger? If so, is there a better way to turn my string of text into a BigInteger and back? Below is my encipher/decipher code. public static BigInteger[] ElGamalEncipher(String plaintext, BigInteger p, BigInteger g, BigInteger r) { // returns a BigInteger[] cipherText // cipherText[0] is c // cipherText[1] is d BigInteger[] cipherText = new BigInteger[2]; BigInteger pText = new BigInteger(plaintext.getBytes()); // 1: select a random integer k such that 1 <= k <= p-2 BigInteger k = new BigInteger(p.bitLength() - 2, sr); // 2: Compute c = g^k(mod p) BigInteger c = g.modPow(k, p); // 3: Compute d= P*r^k = P(g^a)^k(mod p) BigInteger d = pText.multiply(r.modPow(k, p)).mod(p); // C =(c,d) is the ciphertext cipherText[0] = c; cipherText[1] = d; return cipherText; } public static String ElGamalDecipher(BigInteger c, BigInteger d, BigInteger a, BigInteger p) { //returns the plaintext enciphered as (c,d) // 1: use the private key a to compute the least non-negative residue // of an inverse of (c^a)' (mod p) BigInteger z = c.modPow(a, p).modInverse(p); BigInteger P = z.multiply(d).mod(p); byte[] plainTextArray = P.toByteArray(); String output = null; try { output = new String(plainTextArray, "UTF8"); } catch (Exception e) { } return output; }

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  • hibernate column uniqueness question

    - by Seth
    I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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  • DataRelation Insert and ForeignKey

    - by Steve
    Guys, I have a winforms application with two DataGridViews displaying a master-detail relationship from my Person and Address tables. Person table has a PersonID field that is auto-incrementing primary key. Address has a PersonID field that is the FK. I fill my DataTables with DataAdapter and set Person.PersonID column's AutoIncrement=true and AutoIncrementStep=-1. I can insert records in the Person DataTable from the DataGridView. The PersonID column displays unique negative values for PersonID. I update the database by calling DataAdapter.Update(PersonTable) and the negative PersonIDs are converted to positive unique values automatically by SQL Server. Here's the rub. The Address DataGridView show the address table which has a DataRelation to Person by PersonID. Inserted Person records have the temporary negative PersonID. I can now insert records into Address via DataGridView and Address.PersonID is set to the negative value from the DataRelation mapping. I call Adapter.Update(AddressTable) and the negative PersonIDs go into the Address table breaking the relationship. How do you guys handle primary/foreign keys using DataTables and master-detail DataGridViews? Thanks! Steve EDIT: After more googling, I found that SqlDataAdapter.RowUpdated event gives me what I need. I create a new command to query the last id inserted by using @@IDENTITY. It works pretty well. The DataRelation updates the Address.PersonID field for me so it's required to Update the Person table first then update the Address table. All the new records insert properly with correct ids in place! Adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); Adapter.RowUpdated += (s, e) => { if (e.StatementType != StatementType.Insert) return; //set the id for the inserted record SqlCommand c = e.Command.Connection.CreateCommand(); c.CommandText = "select @@IDENTITY id"; e.Row[0] = Convert.ToInt32( c.ExecuteScalar() ); }; Adapter.Fill(this); SqlCommandBuilder sb = new SqlCommandBuilder(Adapter); sb.GetDeleteCommand(); sb.GetUpdateCommand(); sb.GetInsertCommand(); this.Columns[0].AutoIncrement = true; this.Columns[0].AutoIncrementSeed = -1; this.Columns[0].AutoIncrementStep = -1;

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  • UIViewController not oreintating. Methods not called

    - by capple
    Greetings, This question does seem to be an ongoing saga in the world of iphone SDK... so heres my contribution... Had two separate projects from the same template... one semi-works, the other not at all... Please let me explain my steps... used this basic GL ES template //iphonedevelopment.blogspot.com/2008/12/opengl-project-template-for-xcode.html had to sort out some of the 'Release' configuration but otherwises has eveything I need to add orientation to a GL ES project. One my first project, did my stuff, then added these methods.... -(BOOL)shouldAutoRotateToInterfaceOrientation ..... -(void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)willAnimateRotationToInterfaceOrientation .... And understand what they do (or are trying to do in my case), the (BOOL)should... gets called once when the view controller is created, and returns 'YES'. But after that none of the other methods are called! So I started from scratch with a blank template (GL ES one from above)...and added minimum to support auto rotation. But this time none of the methods get called! So I investigated .... //developer.apple.com/iphone/library/qa/qa2010/qa1688.html as it said, I added the GLViewController.view first, then added the GLview as subviews of the application delegate. Nothing! Then found this //www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/44993-how-determine-ipad-launch-orientation.html which states to enable orientation notifications [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; and then subsequently disable them in the view controller... makes sense...did it, nothing... I think the notifications might be on by default though, since I didn't need to enable them in the first project, yet it still try to verify a orientation (i.e (BOOL)shouldAutoRotate... )... If any one could help me out it would be greatly appreciated as this issue is driving me insane. Thanks in advance. The code can be found here ... http://rapidshare.com/files/392053688/autoRotation.zip N.B These projects avoid nib/xib resources, would like to keep it that way if possible. P.S iPad device not out where I am so I cannot test on a device yet. Would be nice for it to work on the simulator.

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  • launching mapview from main activity (button)

    - by arc
    Hi all. Going round in circles here i think. I have an activity called Locate; public class Locate extends Activity { public static String lat; public static String lon; public static String number; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.locate); final Button buttonMaps = (Button) findViewById(R.id.ButtonMaps); buttonMaps.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Button Pressed", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); try { Intent i = new Intent(getBaseContext(), displayMap.class); i.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); } catch (ActivityNotFoundException e) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Activity Not Found", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }}); // Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "lat: " + lat + " long: " + lon + " from: " + testname, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } If I make the displayMap class into a normal Activity, and just have display a toast message confirming it has loaded - then it works fine. If i do this though; public class displayMap extends MapActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ public void onCreate() { setContentView(R.layout.displaymap); Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Display Map", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } } Then as soon as I click the Button, I get a force close. I have the correct 'uses-library' tag in my manifest; <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> I don't get what it just force closes everytime i try and load it. If I make this my onClick handler then it will fire up a working googlemaps/default mapview public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Button Pressed", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Uri uri=Uri.parse("geo:"+Locate.lat+","+Locate.lon); StartActivity(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, uri)); } But that is not what I am trying to do, I want my own - so that I can add overlays etc to it. But it does prove that the permission are set correctly and that the lib is there. The logcat error when the app FCs is a Unexpected DEX error. Can anyone point in the right direction here?

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  • paypal ipn case is not calling in paypal "pay now"

    - by Ipsita Rout
    paypal ipn case is not calling in paypal "pay now". In paypal button the following is set. return : "http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=return" cancel_return : "cancel_return" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=cancel" notify_url : value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=ipn" paypal_form.php <form name="paypal" action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="rm" value="2"> <input type="hidden" name="no_notes" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="custom" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]"> <input type="hidden" name="return" id="return" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=return"> <input type="hidden" name="cancel_return" id="cancel_return" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=cancel"> <input type="hidden" name="notify_url" id="notify_url" value="http://localhost/paypal.php?ch=ipn"> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/WEBSCR-640-20110429-1/en_GB/i/btn/btn_paynow_SM.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online."> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/WEBSCR-640-20110429-1/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> paypal.php <? include('db_connect.php'); $choice=isset($_GET['ch'])?$_GET['ch']:''; switch($choice){ case 'return': print "Thank You For Buying this product,Please Visit Again,If is there any complements Then suggest us.."; break; case 'ipn': $sql="INSERT INTO paypal(add_date) VALUES(now())"; mysql_query($sql); $x = fopen('test1.txt','w+'); $str2 = 'post data:dfydfhgfhjg'; foreach($_POST as $k=>$v){ $str2 .= $k.'--'.$v; } fwrite($x,$str2); fclose($x); break; case 'cancel': print "Thank You for visiting this site,Please inform your friend to buy products through paypal which is easy service... "; break; } ?>

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  • Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

    - by Paul Burney
    Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

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  • shopify_app syntax error

    - by Pete171
    Edit: Debugging has got me further. Question clarified. We have installed Ruby, RubyGems and Rails and have forked the shopify_app project. We have created a new rails applications and added three items to the Gemfile: execjs, therubyracer and shopify_app. Running rails s in order to start our rails application returns this trace: root@ubuntu:/usr/local/pete-shopify/cart# rails s Faraday: you may want to install system_timer for reliable timeouts /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app.rb:15:in `require': /var/lib /gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app/login_protection.rb:5: syntax error, unexpected ':', expecting kEND (SyntaxError) ...rce::UnauthorizedAccess, with: :close_session ^ from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app.rb:15 from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:68:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:68:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:66:in `each' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:66:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:55:in `each' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:55:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/bundler-1.2.1/lib/bundler.rb:128:in `require' from /usr/local/pete-shopify/cart/config/application.rb:7 from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:53:in `require' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:53 from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:50:in `tap' from /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/railties-3.2.8/lib/rails/commands.rb:50 from script/rails:6:in `require' from script/rails:6 I haven't modified any files since forking from Github. Lines 1 - 6 of login_protection.rb are as follows: module ShopifyApp::LoginProtection extend ActiveSupport::Concern included do rescue from ActiveResource::UnauthorizedAccess, with: :close_session end I've looked into this and it seems that the error is caused by a new-style hash syntax between Ruby 1.8 and 1.9; key : value instead of key => value. Running ruby -v from the command line returns ruby 1.9.3p0 (2011-10-30 revision 33570) [x86_64-linux]. This would seem to be OK... but I did some debugging, and inside the file /var/lib/gems/1.8/gems/shopify_app-4.1.0/lib/shopify_app.rb (at the top) by putting this: puts RUBY_VERSION exit It printed 1.8.7. **Why are ruby -v and RUBY_VERSION giving me different results? And am I correct in assuming this is the cause of my problems? Note: To upgrade Ruby I installed the later version with apt-get and then switched to it by using update-alternatives --config ruby and selecting option 2 like this: root@ubuntu:/usr/local/pete-shopify/cart# update-alternatives --config ruby There are 2 choices for the alternative ruby (providing /usr/bin/ruby). Selection Path Priority Status ------------------------------------------------------------ 0 /usr/bin/ruby1.8 50 auto mode 1 /usr/bin/ruby1.8 50 manual mode * 2 /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 10 manual mode Also note: We're PHP/Python developers so this is all new to us! Summary: 1 - Am I right in determining the cause of the syntax error? 2 - Why does RUBY_VERSION and ruby -v give me different results?

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  • Can't read excel file after creating it using File.WriteAllText() function

    - by Srikanth Mattihalli
    public void ExportDataSetToExcel(DataTable dt) { HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.Clear(); response.Charset = "utf-8"; response.ContentEncoding = Encoding.GetEncoding("utf-8"); response.ContentType = "application/vnd.ms-excel"; Random Rand = new Random(); int iNum = Rand.Next(10000, 99999); string extension = ".xls"; string filenamepath = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "graphs\\" + iNum + ".xls"; string file_path = "graphs/" + iNum + extension; response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=\"" + iNum + "\""); string query = "insert into graphtable(graphtitle,graphpath,creategraph,year) VALUES('" + iNum.ToString() + "','" + file_path + "','" + true + "','" + DateTime.Now.Year.ToString() + "')"; try { int n = connect.UpdateDb(query); if (n > 0) { resultLabel.Text = "Merge Successfull"; } else { resultLabel.Text = " Merge Failed"; } resultLabel.Visible = true; } catch { } using (StringWriter sw = new StringWriter()) { using (HtmlTextWriter htw = new HtmlTextWriter(sw)) { // instantiate a datagrid DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; //ds.Tables[0]; dg.DataBind(); dg.RenderControl(htw); File.WriteAllText(filenamepath, sw.ToString()); // File.WriteAllText(filenamepath, sw.ToString(), Encoding.UTF8); response.Write(sw.ToString()); response.End(); } } } Hi all, I have created an excel sheet from datatable using above function. I want to read the excel sheet programatically using the below connectionstring. This string works fine for all other excel sheets but not for the one i created using the above function. I guess it is because of excel version problem. OleDbConnection conn= new OleDbConnection("Data Source='" + path +"';provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;";); Can anyone suggest a way by which i can create an excel sheet such that it is readable again using above query. I cannot use Microsoft InterOp library as it is not supported by my host.

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  • Cant get flexigrid to work in Jquery Tools Tab

    - by John
    Im fairly new to jquery and Im using jquery tools for tabs. I am wanting in one of the tabs to show flexigrid, but when I try to do this flexigrid does not show up, its just blank. If I setup flexigrid in a stand alone page outside the tab it works just fine. Below is the code that isnt working. Again Im new so please go easy! <ul class="css-tabs"> <li><a href="#details">Account Details</a></li> <li><a href="#accounts">Sub Accounts</a></li> <li><a href="#groups">Groups</a></li> <li><a href="#support">Tickets</a></li> </ul> <div class="css-panes"> <div>Tab 1</div> <div><table id="flex1" style="display:none"></table></div> <div>Tab 3</div> <div>Tab 4</div> </div> <script> $(function() { $("ul.css-tabs").tabs("div.css-panes > div").history(); }); $('.flexme1').flexigrid(); $('.flexme2').flexigrid({height:'auto',striped:false}); $("#flex1").flexigrid ( { url: '/accounts_list.php', dataType: 'json', colModel : [ {display: 'ID', name : 'id', width : 45, sortable : true, align: 'center'}, {display: 'Username', name : 'username', width : 120, sortable : true, align: 'left'}, {display: 'Display Name', name : 'displayname', width : 150, sortable : true, align: 'left'}, {display: 'Limit', name : 'accounts', width : 50, sortable : true, align: 'center'}, {display: 'Rate', name : 'charge', width : 50, sortable : true, align: 'center'}, {display: 'Subs', name : 'subcount', width : 50, sortable : true, align: 'center'} ], searchitems : [ {display: 'ID', name : 'id'}, {display: 'Username', name : 'username', isdefault: true}, {display: 'Display Name', name : 'displayname'} ], sortname: "id", sortorder: "desc", usepager: true, singleSelect: true, title: 'Test', useRp: true, rp: 20, showTableToggleBtn: false, width: 500, height: 250 }); </script>

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  • How to use second level cache for lazy loaded collections in Hibernate?

    - by Chandru
    Let's say I have two entities, Employee and Skill. Every employee has a set of skills. Now when I load the skills lazily through the Employee instances the cache is not used for skills in different instances of Employee. Let's Consider the following data set. Employee - 1 : Java, PHP Employee - 2 : Java, PHP When I load Employee - 2 after Employee - 1, I do not want hibernate to hit the database to get the skills and instead use the Skill instances already available in cache. Is this possible? If so how? Hibernate Configuration <session-factory> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">pass</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.url">jdbc:mysql://localhost/cache</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">root</property> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">true</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.show_sql">true</property> <mapping class="org.cache.models.Employee" /> <mapping class="org.cache.models.Skill" /> </session-factory> The Entities with imports, getters and setters Removed @Entity @Table(name = "employee") @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) public class Employee { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int id; private String name; public Employee() { } @ManyToMany @JoinTable(name = "employee_skills", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "employee_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "skill_id")) @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) private List<Skill> skills; } @Entity @Table(name = "skill") @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) public class Skill { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int id; private String name; } SQL for Loading the Second Employee and his Skills Hibernate: select employee0_.id as id0_0_, employee0_.name as name0_0_ from employee employee0_ where employee0_.id=? Hibernate: select skills0_.employee_id as employee1_1_, skills0_.skill_id as skill2_1_, skill1_.id as id1_0_, skill1_.name as name1_0_ from employee_skills skills0_ left outer join skill skill1_ on skills0_.skill_id=skill1_.id where skills0_.employee_id=? In that I specifically want to avoid the second query as the first one is unavoidable anyway.

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  • jPlayer widget created with static error as result

    - by goldengel
    I've created a widged with Orchard. Unfortunately I've used the same "Title" for a jPlayer widget twice. Now I receive an error: Server Error in '/wgk' Application. Sequence contains more than one element Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element Source Error: Line 2: <fieldset> Line 3: <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> Line 4: @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { Line 5: <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> Line 6: } Source File: x:\Intepub\wgk\Modules\Orchard.jPlayer\Views\EditorTemplates\Parts\MediaGallery.cshtml Line: 4 Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element] System.Linq.Enumerable.SingleOrDefault(IEnumerable`1 source) +4206966 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.HandleSingleOrDefaultCall(MethodCallExpression call) +51 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.VisitMethodCall(MethodCallExpression call) +411 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) +371 In MediaGallery.cshtml (found in error description above) is written: @model Orchard.jPlayer.Models.MediaGalleryPart <fieldset> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> } else { <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedGallery, Model.AvailableGalleries)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.SelectedType, @T("Media gallery type"))</div> <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedType, Model.AvailableTypes)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.AutoPlay, @T("Auto play"))</div> <div>@Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.AutoPlay)</div> } </fieldset> My problem is now, I cannot find or edit the widget with double used name. I would love to replace it to another name. But I do not know where to do this. Please advice.

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  • dynamic char array sizing

    - by droseman
    Hello, In my application, I have a char array defined which can take one of three options: "okay", "high", "low" which are then sent down a serial port to a remote device. I currently have the array sized to take the 4 character words plus carriage return and line feed, but when I have to send "low" I get a null character in the strings, which I am concerned would confuse the host terminal. array definition char mod1_status_char[6] = {'0','0','0','0','0','0'}; char mod2_status_char[6] = {'0','0','0','0','0','0'}; char mod3_status_char[6] = {'0','0','0','0','0','0'}; sample of switch case statement: void DCOKStatus(uint8_t *ptr_status) { uint8_t status = *ptr_status; switch (status) { case 0x00: strcpy(mod1_status_char, "okay"); strcpy(mod2_status_char, "okay"); strcpy(mod3_status_char, "okay"); break; case 0x10: strcpy(mod1_status_char, "okay"); strcpy(mod2_status_char, "okay"); strcpy(mod3_status_char, "low"); break; } This is the struct which makes the message string to send strcpy(MsgStatus_on.descriptor_msg, "$psu_"); MsgStatus_on.address01 = hex_addr[0]; MsgStatus_on.address02 = hex_addr[1]; MsgStatus_on.space01 = 0x20; strcpy(MsgStatus_on.cmdmsg01, "op_en op1_"); strcpy(MsgStatus_on.statusmsg01, mod1_status_char); MsgStatus_on.space02 = 0x20; strcpy(MsgStatus_on.cmdmsg02, "op2_"); strcpy(MsgStatus_on.statusmsg02, mod2_status_char); MsgStatus_on.space03 = 0x20; strcpy(MsgStatus_on.cmdmsg03, "op3_"); strcpy(MsgStatus_on.statusmsg03, mod3_status_char); MsgStatus_on.CR = 0x0D; MsgStatus_on.LF = 0x0A; and this sends the message void USARTWrite(char *object, uint32_t size) { GPIO_SetBits(GPIOB, GPIO_Pin_1); char *byte; for (byte = object; size--; ++byte) { USART_SendData(USART1,*byte); } Would anyone be able to suggest a good approach to dynamically size the array to one character shorter when I need to send "low"? Thanks

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  • Trouble using CollectionViewSource in Silverlight

    - by Johnny
    Hi, I having some trouble when implementing the CollectionViewSource in silverlight. I'm new in this topic, so basically I've been following what I find searching through the web. Here's what I've been trying to do so far. I'm creating a CollectionViewSource in the resources tag: <UserControl.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="TestCVS"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="Value" Direction="Ascending" /> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </UserControl.Resources> Then I'm binding my TestCVS in a HierarchicalDataTemplate: <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource TestCVS}}"> <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate.ItemTemplate> <common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="#FF464646" BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="3" Padding="5"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding MyClassField}"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </Border> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate.ItemTemplate> </common:HierarchicalDataTemplate> Now, in the code behind I'm assigning the Source for the TestCVS in a property, like this: private ObservableCollection<MyClass> _MyClass; public ObservableCollection<MyClass> MyClass { get { return _MyClass; } set { var testCVS = (this.Resources["TestCVS"] as CollectionViewSource); if (testCVS != null) testCVS.Source = value; } } After testing this I realize that the information is not showing on screen and I don't really know why, can anyone help me on this matter? Hope this makes any sense, thanks in advance!

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  • How to Configure SSL over Database in Spring?

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Hi, I want to add SSL security in the Database layer. I am using Struts2.1.6, Spring 2.5, JBOSS 5.0 and Informix 11.5. Any idea how to do this? I have researched through a lot on the internet but could not find any solution. Please suggest! Here is my datasource and entity manager beans which is working perfect without SSL: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="database" value="INFORMIX" /> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:informix-sqli://SERVER_NAME:9088/DB_NAME:INFORMIXSERVER=SERVER_NAME;DELIMIDENT=y;" /> <property name="username" value="username" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="minIdle" value="2" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean" lazy-init="false"> <property name="targetObject" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="targetMethod" value="addConnectionProperty" /> <property name="arguments"> <list> <value>characterEncoding</value> <value>UTF-8</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="jdbcTemplate" class="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate" scope="prototype"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" />

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  • Can Hudson branch promotion get based on project stability?

    - by Wayne
    Hudson CI server displays stability "weather" which is cool. And it allows one project build to kick off based on the successful build of another. However, how can you make that secondary project dependent additionally on the stability of multiple builds of the first project? Specifically, project "stable_deploy" needs to only kick off to promote a version to "stable" if project "integrate" with version 8.3.4.1233 has built and tested successfully at least 8 times--in a row. Until then, it's still in integration mode. IMPORTANT: A significant caveat to this is that a single set of Hudson projects gets used as a "pipeline" to process each new version through to release. So a project may have built successfully 8 times in a rolw but the latest version 8.3.4.1233 may be only the 2 most recent builds. The builds prior to that may be an earlier version. We're open to completely reorganizing this but the pipeline idea seemed to greatly reduce the amount of manually project creation and deletion. Is there a better way to track version release "pipeline"? In particular, we will have multiple versions in this pipeline simultaneously in the future due to fixes or patches to older versions. We don't see how to do that yet, except to create new pipeline projects for each version which is a real hassle. Here's some background details: The TickZoom application has some very complete unit tests some of which simulates real time trading environments. Add to that TickZoom makes elaborate use of parallelization for leveraging multi-core computers. Needless to say, during development of a new version, there can be stability issues during integration testing which get uncovered by running the build and auto tests repeatedly. A version which builds and tests cleanly 8 times in a row without change plus has undergone some real world testing by users can be deemed "stable" and promoted to the stable branch. Our Hudson projects look like this: test - Only for testing a build, zero user visibility. integrate_deploy - Promotes a test project build to integrate branch and makes it available to public for UA testing. integrate - Repeatedly builds the integrate branch to determine if it's stable enough to promote to stable branch. This runs the builds and test hourly throughout every night. stable_deploy - Promotes an integrate project build to the stable branch and makes it public for users who want the latest and greatest. stable - Builds the stable branch once every night. After 2 weeks of successful builds (14 builds) it can go to "release candidate". And so on... it continues with "release candidate" and then "release".

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  • How to fine tune a Membership Provider?

    - by Venemo
    After all the answers to my last question about fine-tuning turned out to be more useful than I expected, I thought that I would ask another similar Question about the MembershipProviders as well. Okay, so firstly, to clarify: I know what a Membership, Role, and Profile provider is, how to implement my own, and how to configure them, and most of the things about them. Implementing a role and profile provider is pretty straightforward, because they only require simple CRUD most of the time. (A single line of LINQ is enough for about half of the RoleProvider's methods.) However, the Membership provider is a differend beast. Many of you may realize that it violates the SR (Single Responsibility) principle, because it has to do EVERYTHING related to user management. While this leaves a lot of room for customizations, it has its downsides as well. There is no information on the Internet about what their EXACT expected behaviour is, such as when should they throw exceptions or simply return null, and stuff like that. I use this sample implementation for reference, but it also contains several contradictions. For example, it uses its own ValidateUser method for checking for credentials in the ChangePassword method. But the ValidateUser also updates the user's LastLoginDate to the current date. So, does the framework expect that I set it in my own provider as well, or is it simply a mistake in the sample? The other is: the ChangePassword method throws an exception every time when validating the new password, but CreateUser doesn't ever throw an exception, it simply returns false. And last, but not least: it counts the invalid password attempts of the user and locks them if it passes a threshold. While this is good, but it requires manual action to unlock the users. Is it a problem if my provider automatically unlocks the user after a certain amount of time? (EDIT) I almost forgot: the CreateUser method in the sample inserts the ID from the method parameter. I actually think this is bad practice, because I use inters with auto incement as IDs, so inserting them from some method parameter is not an option. Should I just ignore the parameter, or require that its value is null and throw an exception if it isn't? All in all, does ASP.NET have any assumptions about the behaviour of a MembershipProvider? Is there any documentation which describes when should I throw an exception or just return null? I also tried to find a set of generic unit tests which would provide some guidance about the expected behaviour, but no luck, I found plenty of articles about "Unit testing is good", and "How to unit test a MembershipProvider", but not one where there would be any actual tests. Thanks in advance for everyone!

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  • How should Application.Run() be called for the main presenter of a MVP WinForms app?

    - by Mr Roys
    I'm learning to apply MVP to a simple WinForms app (only one form) in C# and encountered an issue while creating the main presenter in static void Main(). Is it a good idea to expose a View from the Presenter in order to supply it as a parameter to Application.Run()? Currently, I've implemented an approach which allows me to not expose the View as a property of Presenter: static void Main() { IView view = new View(); Model model = new Model(); Presenter presenter = new Presenter(view, model); presenter.Start(); Application.Run(); } The Start and Stop methods in Presenter: public void Start() { view.Start(); } public void Stop() { view.Stop(); } The Start and Stop methods in View (a Windows Form): public void Start() { this.Show(); } public void Stop() { // only way to close a message loop called // via Application.Run(); without a Form parameter Application.Exit(); } The Application.Exit() call seems like an inelegant way to close the Form (and the application). The other alternative would be to expose the View as a public property of the Presenter in order to call Application.Run() with a Form parameter. static void Main() { IView view = new View(); Model model = new Model(); Presenter presenter = new Presenter(view, model); Application.Run(presenter.View); } The Start and Stop methods in Presenter remain the same. An additional property is added to return the View as a Form: public void Start() { view.Start(); } public void Stop() { view.Stop(); } // New property to return view as a Form for Application.Run(Form form); public System.Windows.Form View { get { return view as Form(); } } The Start and Stop methods in View (a Windows Form) would then be written as below: public void Start() { this.Show(); } public void Stop() { this.Close(); } Could anyone suggest which is the better approach and why? Or there even better ways to resolve this issue?

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  • CSS3 Hover transition strange behavior

    - by Aleksandar Ivanov
    So I was playing around with transition/hover effects so that's the code. <pre> <code> /* HTML */ section> a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> // deleted the lt sign for visibility reasons! a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> /section> /********/ /* CSS */ section{ width: 700px; height: 500px; margin: 250px auto; position: relative; background: #08c; } section a{ border-radius: 51px; background: #e60; line-height: 100px; text-align: center; color: #04e; font-size: 24px; font-weight: bold; font-family: tahoma; text-decoration: none; display: block; width: 100px; height: 100px; } section a:nth-child(1){ position: absolute; top: -100px; left: -100px; -webkit-transition: left 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(2){ position: absolute; top: -100px; right: -100px; -webkit-transition: top 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(3){ position: absolute; bottom: -100px; right: -100px; -webkit-transition: right 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(4){ position: absolute; bottom: -100px; left: -100px; -webkit-transition: bottom 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(1):hover,section a:nth-child(1):focus{ left: 800px; } section a:nth-child(2):hover{ top: 600px; } section a:nth-child(3):hover{ right: 800px; } section a:nth-child(4):hover{ bottom: 600px; } /*******/ </code> </pre> BUT, I stumbled upon a strange thing. When I hover over a link its starts getting to its right position applied by the hover, but at some point (always different) the effect stops and it gets back to its original position! Have anyone seen this and know what is the problem ?

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  • Reading Source Code Aloud

    - by Jon Purdy
    After seeing this question, I got to thinking about the various challenges that blind programmers face, and how some of them are applicable even to sighted programmers. Particularly, the problem of reading source code aloud gives me pause. I have been programming for most of my life, and I frequently tutor fellow students in programming, most often in C++ or Java. It is uniquely aggravating to try to verbally convey the essential syntax of a C++ expression. The speaker must give either an idiomatic translation into English, or a full specification of the code in verbal longhand, using explicit yet slow terms such as "opening parenthesis", "bitwise and", et cetera. Neither of these solutions is optimal. On the one hand, an idiomatic translation is only useful to a programmer who can de-translate back into the relevant programming code—which is not usually the case when tutoring a student. In turn, education (or simply getting someone up to speed on a project) is the most common situation in which source is read aloud, and there is a very small margin for error. On the other hand, a literal specification is aggravatingly slow. It takes far far longer to say "pound, include, left angle bracket, iostream, right angle bracket, newline" than it does to simply type #include <iostream>. Indeed, most experienced C++ programmers would read this merely as "include iostream", but again, inexperienced programmers abound and literal specifications are sometimes necessary. So I've had an idea for a potential solution to this problem. In C++, there is a finite set of keywords—63—and operators—54, discounting named operators and treating compound assignment operators and prefix versus postfix auto-increment and decrement as distinct. There are just a few types of literal, a similar number of grouping symbols, and the semicolon. Unless I'm utterly mistaken, that's about it. So would it not then be feasible to simply ascribe a concise, unique pronunciation to each of these distinct concepts (including one for whitespace, where it is required) and go from there? Programming languages are far more regular than natural languages, so the pronunciation could be standardised. Speakers of any language would be able to verbally convey C++ code, and due to the regularity and fixity of the language, speech-to-text software could be optimised to accept C++ speech with a high degree of accuracy. So my question is twofold: first, is my solution feasible; and second, does anyone else have other potential solutions? I intend to take suggestions from here and use them to produce a formal paper with an example implementation of my solution.

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  • How can we define more than one table,define columns and write data in xml file ?

    - by Harikrishna
    I am writing my xml file manually. And I am writing that for storing data and retrieving data from that. I have written file like for the table PersonalInfo. <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <PersonalInfo> <xs:schema id="PersonalInfo" xmlns="" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:msdata="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-msdata"> <xs:element name="PersonalInfo" msdata:IsDataSet="true" msdata:UseCurrentLocale="true"> <xs:complexType> <xs:choice minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element name="PesonalInfo."> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <!--Define Column Here....--> <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string" /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:choice> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> <!--First Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <!--Second Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> </PersonalInfo> Please suggest any mistake with writing file here. And now I want define more than table in this file. And here I have to write data for the table like <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> Is not possible some thing writing data when defining columns EDIT : <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string",Harikrishna,Jatin.... /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string",India,India.... /> And how to define more than one table in a single xml file ?

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  • client side application not working as intended while using AsyncSocket

    - by Miraaj
    Hi All, I am using AsyncSocket class in a simple client-server application. As a first step I want that - as soon as connection is established between client and server, client transmit a welcome message - "connected to xyz server" to server and server displays it in textview. //The code in ClientController class is: -(void)awakeFromNib{ NSError *error = nil; if (![connectSocket connectToHost:@"192.168.0.32" onPort:25242 error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Error starting client: %@", error); return; } NSLog(@"xyz chat client started on port %hu",[connectSocket localPort]); } - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didConnectToHost:(NSString *)host port:(UInt16)port{ [sock writeData:[@"connected to xyz server" dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] withTimeout:30.0 tag:0]; } - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didReadData:(NSData *)data withTag:(long)tag{ // some relevant code goes here } - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didWriteDataWithTag:(long)tag{ NSLog(@"within didWriteDataWithTag:"); // getting this message, means it should have written something to remote socket but // delegate- onSocket:didReadData:withTag: at server side is not getting invoked } // The code in ServerController class is: - (IBAction)startStop:(id)sender{ NSLog(@"startStopAction"); if(!isRunning) { NSError *error = nil; if(![listenSocket acceptOnPort:INPUT_PORT error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Error starting server: %@", error); return; } NSLog(@"Echo server started on port %hu",[listenSocket localPort]); isRunning = YES; [sender setTitle:@"Stop"]; } else { // Stop accepting connections [listenSocket disconnect]; // Stop any client connections int i; for(i = 0; i < [connectedSockets count]; i++) { // Call disconnect on the socket, // which will invoke the onSocketDidDisconnect: method, // which will remove the socket from the list. [[connectedSockets objectAtIndex:i] disconnect]; } NSLog(@"Stopped Echo server"); isRunning = false; [sender setTitle:@"Start"]; } } - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didAcceptNewSocket:(AsyncSocket *)newSocket{ [connectedSockets addObject:newSocket]; } - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didConnectToHost:(NSString *)host port:(UInt16)port{ NSLog(@"Accepted client %@:%hu", host, port); // it is getting displayed [sock readDataToData:[AsyncSocket CRLFData] withTimeout:READ_TIMEOUT tag:0]; } - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didReadData:(NSData *)data withTag:(long)tag{ NSString *msgReceived = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:data encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; NSLog(@"msgReceived in didReadData- %@",msgReceived); // it is not getting displayed [outputView insertText:msgReceived]; [sock readDataToData:[AsyncSocket CRLFData] withTimeout:READ_TIMEOUT tag:0]; } Can anyone suggest me where I may be wrong?? Thanks in advance...... Miraaj

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  • Can't use attached property on combobox inside hierarchical datatemplate WPF

    - by jesse_t_r
    I'm hoping to use an attached property to assign a command to the selection changed event of a combobox that is embedded inside a treeview. I'm attempting to set the attached property inside the hierchical data template for the tree but the command is not set and does not fire when the item in the combobox is changed. I've found that setting the attached property directly on a combobox outside of a datatemplate works fine; here is how I'm trying to set the property in the template: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="template1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ChildColumns}"> <Border Background="{StaticResource TreeItem_Background}" BorderBrush="Blue" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" Margin="2,5,5,2" HorizontalAlignment="Left" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions > <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock MinWidth="80" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Grid.Column="0" Margin="5,2,2,2" Grid.Row ="0" Text="{Binding Path=ColName}"/> <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Grid> </Border> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I also tried creating a style <Style x:Key="childItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type FrameworkElement}"> <Setter Property="local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected" Value="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Style> and setting the itemcontainerstyle to the style in the hierarchical datatemplate..still no luck .. <HierarchicalDataTemplate> ... <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" ItemContainerStyle={StaticeResource childItemStyle}" /> ... </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I'm still learning a lot about WPF so I'm assuming there is something particular about the hierchical datatemplate that is not allowing the attache dproperty to be set..I have found similar posts in the forums and tried to implement their solutions as above, but after a day of searching and experimenting wiht no luck I'm hoping some one has an idea about this...

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  • VS 2008 irritating copy constructor link dependency

    - by Paul Hollingsworth
    Hi guys, I've run into the following annoying and seemingly incorrect behaviour in the Visual Studio 2008 C++ compiler: Suppose I have a class library - Car.lib - that uses a "Car" class, with a header called "Car.h": class Car { public: void Drive() { Accelerate(); } void Accelerate(); }; What I'm actually trying to do is use the Car headers (for some other functions), but without having to link with Car.lib itself (the actual class is not called "Car" but I am sanitising this example). If I #include "Car.h" in the .cpp file used to build a managed C++ .dll, but never refer to Car, everything compiles and links fine. This is because I never instantiate a Car object. However, the following: namespace { class Car { public: Car(const Car& rhs) { Accelerate(); } void Accelerate(); }; } leaves me with the link error: Error 2 error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "public: void __thiscall `anonymous namespace'::Car::Accelerate(void)" (?Accelerate@Car@?A0xce3bb5ed@@$$FQAEXXZ) CREObjectWrapper.obj CREObjectBuilderWrapper Note I've declared the whole thing inside an anonymous namespace so there's no way that the Car functions could be exported from the .DLL in any case. Declaring the copy constructor out-of-line makes no difference. i.e. the following also fails to link: class Car { public: Car(const Car& rhs); void Accelerate(); }; Car::Car(const Car& rhs) { Accelerate(); } It's something specifically to do with the copy constructor note, because the following, for example, does link: class Car { public: Car() { Accelerate(); } void Accelerate(); }; I am not a C++ standards guru but this doesn't seem correct to me. Surely the compiler still should not have had to even generate any code that calls the Car copy constructor. Can anyone confirm if this behaviour is correct? It's been a while since I used C++ - but I don't think this used to be an issue with Visual Studio 6.0 for example. Can anyone suggest a workaround that allows one to "re-use" the Accelerate method from within the copy constructor and still have the copy constructor declared inline?

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  • CSS Drop-Shadows Without Images

    - by Spencer B.
    I'm trying to use Nicolas Gallagher's brilliant CSS work on applying CSS drop-shadows to elements without images and without extra markup using the :before and :after pseudo-elements. His code is provided below... .drop-shadow { position:relative; width:90%; } .drop-shadow:before, .drop-shadow:after { content:""; position:absolute; z-index:-1; bottom:15px; left:10px; width:50%; height:20%; max-width:300px; -webkit-box-shadow:0 15px 10px rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7); -moz-box-shadow:0 15px 10px rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7); box-shadow:0 15px 10px rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.7); -webkit-transform:rotate(-3deg); -moz-transform:rotate(-3deg); -o-transform:rotate(-3deg); transform:rotate(-3deg); } .drop-shadow:after{ right:10px; left:auto; -webkit-transform:rotate(3deg); -moz-transform:rotate(3deg); -o-transform:rotate(3deg); transform:rotate(3deg); } I'm trying to target all images wrapped with an a tag, which in Wordpress are really full-size images that have been resized to a medium height and width in the backend. When the user clicks on the smaller image in the post, it opens up a new tab with the fullsize view of the image (I'm sure you're already familiar with this if you use Wordpress). For some reason, I can't get his code to work, and I'm wondering if I'm targeting this wrong within my CSS. Can you help? In place of the .drop-shadow class that he uses, I'm target all images wrapped with an a tag within the #main-i div. So, like this... #main-i a img Does anyone know how to target it better than I have so that I can get the drop shadows to be applied for all images within the specified div? Thanks for your help! P.S. An example of the image I am wanting to target with this CSS is the picture of the Haitian boy here: http://lifebridgecypress.org/our-heart/seventy-two/help-haiti

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