Search Results

Search found 22912 results on 917 pages for 'hosted service'.

Page 471/917 | < Previous Page | 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478  | Next Page >

  • What can cause Bonjour to not call me back during browsing?

    - by millenomi
    I have a rather popular Bonjour-based application in App Store. It works perfectly, but around 0.2% of my users report a bizarre bug: "no arrows appear on the edges of the screen, so I can't share stuff with other people!". Needless to say, displaying these arrows is tied to the browsing of a particular Bonjour service on the local domain. The problem is, the Apple review team seems to intermittently happen to be in this 0.2%. This isn't good for review results, as you might imagine. No matter how much I try, I cannot reproduce this bug. From the few logs I have, it looks like my app is running correctly, just not receiving NSNetServiceBrowser delegate calls. What can cause this? Things I've tried: Having a shorter service name < 14 chars in length to be in spec. Publishing on @"local." rather than @"" (aka Go Look For The Default Registration Domain). My app is rather useless on a wide-area network anyway. Things I haven't tried: restarting the browsing machinery periodically. (I have two browsers, though, one looking for the legacy longer name, one for the new shorter one.) What to do?

    Read the article

  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

    Read the article

  • How to keep your unit tests simple and isolated and still guarantee DDD invariants ?

    - by ian31
    DDD recommends that the domain objects should be in a valid state at any time. Aggregate roots are responsible for guaranteeing the invariants and Factories for assembling objects with all the required parts so that they are initialized in a valid state. However this seems to complicate the task of creating simple, isolated unit tests a lot. Let's assume we have a BookRepository that contains Books. A Book has : an Author a Category a list of Bookstores you can find the book in These are required attributes : a book has to have an author, a category and at least a book store you can buy the book from. There's likely to be a BookFactory since it is quite a complex object, and the Factory will initialize the Book with at least all the mentioned attributes. Now we want to unit test a method of the BookRepository that returns all the Books. To test if the method returns the books, we have to set up a test context (the Arrange step in AAA terms) where some Books are already in the Repository. If the only tool at our disposal to create Book objects is the Factory, the unit test now also uses and is dependent on the Factory and inderectly on Category, Author and Store since we need those objects to build up a Book and then place it in the test context. Would you consider this is a dependency in the same way that in a Service unit test we would be dependent on, say, a Repository that the Service would call ? How would you solve the problem of having to re-create a whole cluster of objects in order to be able to test a simple thing ? How would you break that dependency and get rid of all these attributes we don't need in our test ? By using mocks or stubs ? If you mock up things a Repository contains, what kind of mock/stubs would you use as opposed to when you mock up something the object under test talks to or consumes ?

    Read the article

  • once VPNed into pfSense, unable to hit the public URLs of my websites - they are routed to the pfSense box

    - by Sean
    I have a pfSense box setup as the firewall/router/VPN appliance at my colo. Once I VPN into the colo (either pptp or openvpn, pptp preferred due to multiple clients and ease of configuration), I am able to hit all my servers by their private 10.10.10.x ip and am able to browse the public internet without issue. When I try and hit the URL of a domain hosted by one of my servers, I am prompted for credentials. If I login using the pfSense credentials, I'm connected to pfSense as if I'd used it's internal IP. If I hack my hosts file to point url - server private IP it works fine, but this is obviously not a good solution. To recap: not connected to VPN - www.myurl.com works connected to VPN - www.myurl.com never makes it to the correct server, but is sent only to the pfSense box I'm sure it's something small that I've missed in the pfSense config.

    Read the article

  • A commercial software but open and free for personal/edu. How to license?

    - by Ivan
    I am developing a software to sell for business use but am willing to make it free and open-source for personal and educational use. Actually I can see the flowing requirements I would like the license to set: Personal and educational usage of the program and its source codes is to be free. In case of publishing of derivative works the original work and author (me) must be mentioned (incl. textual link to my website in a not-very-far-hidden place) and the derivative work must have different name. A derivative work can be closed-source. In every case of commercial (when the end-user is a commercial body (as a company (expect of non-profit organizations), an individual entrepreneur or government office)) usage of my work or any of derivative works made by anyone, the end-user, service provider or the derivative author must buy a commercial license from me. I mean no guarantees or responsibilities, whether expressed or implied... (except the case when one explicitly purchases a support service contract from me and the particular contract specifies a responsibility). Is there a known common license for this case? As far as I can see now it can not be OSI-approved as it does not comply to the §6. of OSI definition of open source. But there still can be an a common known reusable license for this case as it looks quite natural, I think.

    Read the article

  • How can I read the value of a radio button in JavaScript?

    - by Corey
    <html> <head> <title>Tip Calculator</title> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- function calculateBill(){ var check = document.getElementById("check").value; /* I try to get the value selected */ var tipPercent = document.getElementById("tipPercent").value; /* But it always returns the value 15 */ var tip = check * (tipPercent / 100) var bill = 1 * check + tip; document.getElementById('bill').innerHTML = bill; } --></script> </head> <body> <h1 style="text-align:center">Tip Calculator</h1> <form id="f1" name="f1"> Average Service: 15% <input type="radio" id="tipPercent" name="tipPercent" value="15" /> <br /> Excellent Service: 20% <input type="radio" id="tipPercent" name="tipPercent" value="20" /> <br /><br /> <label>Check Amount</label> <input type="text" id="check" size="10" /> <input type="button" onclick="calculateBill()" value="Calculate" /> </form> <br /> Total Bill: <p id="bill"></p> </body> </html> I try to get the value selected with document.getElementById("tipPercent").value, but it always returns the value 15.

    Read the article

  • Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

    - by Ryan
    Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

    Read the article

  • Blocking non-virtual host access in Apache?

    - by cmbrnt
    I'm running an apache-server, with a bunch of virtual hosts for about seven domain names. Now I'd like to disallow access for clients who try to access my server using only its IP-adress. So: When someone accesses my website through www.domain.com, they reach the site hosted in /var/www/domain.com/public_html/. When someone enters the ip-address of the server they reach a 403 Forbidden-message. The problem with this is that they are theoretically able to reach my other sites through bruteforce, when getting http://11.22.33.44/domain.com/public_html/. I rather want them to reach a 403 Forbidden all the time, as long as they don't access my server by a valid domain name. How do I solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • WCF with SSL- not finding localhost

    - by SteveCav
    Hi guys, I'm trying to get WCF to use SSL with ANYTHING for FIVE DAYS now. I've gone through countless walkthroughs, generated more certificates than a mail order diploma company, even tried hot fixes. After working with MS dev tools since VB1, I am now considering flipping burgers as a career option. WCF, as far as I can see, is a complete lemon. Anyway, to get to my actual question: If I run through this walkthrough: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff648840.aspx I get to step 11 (adding the service reference) and get "There was an error downloading metadata from the address. Please verify that you have entered a valid address". Details of the error gives: There was an error downloading 'https://localhost/SSL6/Service.svc'. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:443 I'm using VS2008 on Windows 7 with IIS7. I followed the walkthrough exactly (apart from step 5 which was different on IIS7- I went into "SSL Settings" for the VD), so it shows my config (yes I've used httpsGetEnabled and mexHttpsBinding). Anyone care to save my sanity and job?

    Read the article

  • StrcutureMap Wiring - Sanity Check Please

    - by Steve Ward
    Hi - Im new to IOC and StructureMap and have an n-level application and am looking at how to setup the wirings (ForRequestedType ...) and just want to check with people with more experience that this is the best way of doing it! I dont want my UI application object to reference my persistence layer directly so am not able to wire everything up in this UI project. I now have it working by defining a Registry class in each project which wires up the types in the project as needed. The layer above registers its types and also calls the assembly below and looks for registries so that all types are registered throught the hierrachy. E.g. I have UI, Service, Domain, and Persistence libraries. In my service layer the registry looks like Scan(x => { x.Assembly("MyPersistenceProject"); x.LookForRegistries(); }); ForRequestedType<IService>().TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<MyService>(); Is this a recommended way of doing this in a setup such as this? Are there better ways and what are the advantages / disadvantages of these approaches in this case?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use an Interface as the Type for a Strongly Typed View

    - by Rake36
    I'd like to keep my concrete classes separate from my views. Without using strongly typed views, I'm fine. I just use a big parameter list in the controller method signatures and then use my service layer factory methods to create my concrete objects. This is actually just fine with me, but it got me thinking and after a little playing, I realized it was literally impossible for a controller method to accept an interface as a method parameter - because it has no way of instantiating it. Can't create a strongly-typed view using an interface through the IDE either (which makes sense actually). So my question. Is there some way to tell the controller how to instantiate the interface parameter using my service layer factory methods? I'd like to convert from: [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, String TypeCode, String TimeCode, String[] SelectedSchoolSystems, String PositionChoice1, String PositionChoice2, String PositionChoice3, String Reason, String LocationPreference, String AvailableDate, String RecipientsNotSelected, String RecipientsSelected) { //New blank app IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id); to something like [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, IApplication app) { //Don't need to do this anymore //IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id);

    Read the article

  • Advice for migrating email server

    - by Chris Adams
    Hi there, I'm planning to migrate a Zimbra server with about 200gb of data from a server hosted in an office into a datacentre, to increase uptime (we've had a couple of outages when our network here started flaking out, and we have people in other countries relying on this server too). However, I'm not sure how best to migrate the data into the data centre without rendering the connection unusable during office hours, because there's far too much to send in over night over the two meg upstream connection we have here. I'm familiar with using tools like nice to stop a long running process degrading machine performance - is there a simple way to throttle a connection between office hours, so the long running transfer doesn't block the pipe, but then opens up outside of office hours to make the most of the bandwidth? I'm aware the alternative here is to simply mail a hard drive to the data centre, but I'd like to avoid doing that if I could. We're using Centos Linux for our servers, in the office and the datacentre, so extra points for an open source linux answer.

    Read the article

  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

    Read the article

  • Windows Firewall rule based on domain name instead of IP

    - by DennyDotNet
    I'm trying to allow a service to a set of machines via Windows Firewall. I'd like to add my home machine to the firewall but my home machine has a dynamic ip address. I use dyndns so that I have a hostname which I can always connect to. So I'm trying to see if there is a way I can use my hostname instead of an IP. Thanks Update Let me add a little more information, perhaps there are other ways to resolve my issue. The server is a web server hosted by RackSpace. I only want to allow RDP access from my work (static IP, so no problem) and home (dynamic). My home IP doesn't change too often, just often enough to annoy me. So maybe there is a better way to do this... maybe VPN?

    Read the article

  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to set default permissions for automounted FAT drives in Ubuntu

    - by piman
    I've got many FAT32 drives that I'd like to mount in Ubuntu such that they have permission mode 700 for directories and 600 for all other files. By default, they have 755 for all files, which is not particularly useful since almost no non-directories should be executable, and it screws up version control repos hosted on the drives. "Back in the day" I would have had the drives listed in /etc/fstab with the umask/dmask I want and there was no such thing as a default. These days, drives automount under their volume names. Which is great, except now I have no idea how to set the default. I have tried changing the /system/storage/default_options/vfat/mount_options gconf key with no apparently effect. It was 077 initially but the mounted drive reflected a default of 022; changing it and re-inserting the drives resulted in the files still having permission bits of 755.

    Read the article

  • Problem accessing MICROSOFT##SSEE database (Error: 18456, Severity: 14, State: 16.)

    - by Philipp Schmid
    After an unexpected server shutdown due to a power failure, I can no longer connect to the internal windows database MICROSOFT##SSEE which is hosting Central Admin for my SBS 2008 server. The log shows: Error: 18456, Severity: 14, State: 16. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE'. [CLIENT: <named pipe>] I've tried to connect using the SQL Management studio (connecting to .pipemssql$microsoft##sseesqlquery) but no luck. The SQL Server Configuration Manager doesn't show a entry for 'Protocols for MICROSOFT##SSEE' (but shows it for 2 other database hosted on the same SQL server 2005 Express edition. I have tried to restore the master.ldf and mastlog.log files from a backup, but the issue persists.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC multi-instance session management on amazon ec2

    - by gandil
    I have a web application written in asp.net mvc2. Currently hosted on amazon cloud ec2. Because of growing traffic we want move multi instance enviorenment. I have a custom session class which currently initiate at session start (global asax) and i am using via getter or setter class in application. Because of multi instance chore i have to handle hole security architecture. I am looking a better way to handle this problem. I am looking for good implementation of session and how to apply on amazon ec2 multi instance environment. What is road blocks for system architecture?

    Read the article

  • changing WCF endpoint does not persist data.

    - by Vinay Pandey
    Hi All, I have an application that has reference of a WCF service on machine A, now on certain situation I want tu use similar service hosted on machine B. When I changed the endpoint using following:- EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress(new Uri(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceURLForMachineB"])); BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(); binding.SendTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.OpenTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.CloseTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(10); binding.AllowCookies = false; binding.BypassProxyOnLocal = false; binding.HostNameComparisonMode = HostNameComparisonMode.StrongWildcard; binding.MessageEncoding = WSMessageEncoding.Mtom; binding.TextEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Buffered; binding.UseDefaultWebProxy = true; repositoryService = new WorkflowRepositoryServiceClient(binding, endpoint); When I call login method although method is called from machine B, but username and password in Login(string username,string password) are coming null on machine B. Any Idea what I am doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Connecting to localhost with smartphone: possible?

    - by Arturas Molcanovas
    I am currently developing a mobile PHP project on localhost (or, to be more precise, a locally hosted website reachable at http://azgoth/) on my desktop computer and wish to check out how the design looks on my phone's various browsers, however, since the project's actually in my computer rather than the public net, I am unable to do so. Both my Desktop computer and smartphone connect to the internet via the same router, so I wondered, would it be possible to somehow make http://azgoth/ accessible to my smartphone in a similar way that my desktop computer accesses it, without making it public for everyone to see? OS: Windows XP SP 3 Service: Apache HTTPD Router: D-Link DIR-300 FTP Directory

    Read the article

  • Spring Security 3.0- Customise basic http Authentication Dialog

    - by gav
    Rather than reading; A user name and password are being requested by http://localhost:8080. The site says: "Spring Security Application" I want to change the prompt, or at least change what the "site says". Does anyone know how to do this via resources.xml? In my Grails App Spring configuration, my current version is as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans>

    Read the article

  • Setting up sendmail to perform mail routing

    - by Diden
    Is sendmail is able to do the following: Forward many user emails to office 365:- [email protected] -> [email protected] [email protected] -> [email protected] [email protected] -> [email protected] [email protected] -> [email protected] Forward the following to a separate server to run php scripts:- [email protected] [email protected] An autoresponder will be sent to the sender. Does anyone know of any sample configuration I could get this started on? Is there a good autoresponder for sendmail? Our emails are hosted on Office365 and it does not allow us to run scripts. Therefore I was considering this option. Is this viable? Please refer to the diagram for more information. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How do I get rid of auto-generated line breaks by Blogger from plain-text emails?

    - by Avry
    I'm trying to use plain-text emails to submit posts to my blog that's hosted on Blogger. I've set my email client to use plain-text but every time I send a post, Blogger hard wraps it instead of letting the text just flow. I've tried this with different mail clients and gotten the same results. I'm 100% sure that I'm sending plain text each time. Does anyone know how to get Blogger to quit doing this? Sigh. Maybe I'll switch to Wordpress...

    Read the article

  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

    Read the article

  • WCF code generation for large/complex schema (HR-XML/OAGIS) - is there an alternative?

    - by Sasha Borodin
    Hello, and thank you for reading. I am implementing a WCF Service based on a predefined specification (HR-XML 3.0). As such, I am starting with the schema, and working my way back to code. There are a number of large Schema documents (which import yet more Schema documents) related to my implementation, provided by this specification. I am able to generate code using xsd.exe, by supplying the "main" and "supporting" xsd files as arguments. But there are several issues, and I am wondering if this is the right approach. there are litterally hundreds of classes - the code file is half a meg in size duplicate classes (ex. Type, Type1 - which both represent the same type) there are classes declared as inheriting from a base class, but that base class is not generated/defined I understand that there are limitations to the types of Schema supported by svcutil.exe/xsd.exe when targeting the DataContractSerializer and even XmlSerializer. My question is two-fold: Are code generation "issues" fairly common when dealing with larger, modular xsd files? Has anyone had success with generating data contracts from OAGIS or HR-XML schema? Given the above issues, are there better approaches to this task, avoiding generating code and working with concrete objects? Does it make better sence to read and compose a SOAP message directly, while still taking advantage of the rest of the WCF framework? I understand that I am loosing the convenience of working with .NET objects, and the framekwork-provided (de)serialization; given these losses, would it still be advantageous to base my Service on WCF? Is there some "middle ground" between working with .NET types and pure XML? Thank you very much! -Sasha Borodin DFWHC.org

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478  | Next Page >