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• Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

  - by ServAce85

  I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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• How do I programatically verify, create, and update SQL table structure?

  - by JYelton

  Scenario: I have an application (C#) that expects a SQL database and login, which are set by a user. Once connected, it checks for the existence of several table and creates them if not found. I'd like to expand on this by having the program be capable of adding columns to those tables if I release a new version of the program which relies upon the new columns. Question: What is the best way to programatically check the structure of an existing SQL table and create or update it to match an expected structure? I am planning to iterate through the list of required columns and alter the existing table whenever it does not contain the new column. I can't help but wonder if there's an approach that is different or better. Criteria: Here are some of my expectations and self-imposed rules: Newer versions of the program might no longer use certain columns, but they would be retained for data logging purposes. In other words, no columns will be removed. Existing data in the table must be preserved, so the table cannot simply be dropped and recreated. In all cases, newly added columns would allow null data, so the population of old records is taken care of by having default null values. Example: Here is a sample table (because visual examples help!): id sensor_name sensor_status x1 x2 x3 x4 1 na019 OK 0.01 0.21 1.41 1.22 Then, in a new version, I may want to add the column x5. The "x-columns" are all data-storage columns that accept null.

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• Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

  - by user1071914

  I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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• Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

  - by drovani

  We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

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• Reload images in a UIWebView after they have been downloaded by a background thread

  - by dantastic

  I have an application that frequently checks in with a server and downloads a batch of articles to the iphone. The articles are in html and just stored using core data. An article has 0-n images on the page. Downloading all associated images at the same time as the text will be too slow and take too much bandwidth. Users are not likely to open every article. If they open an article once it is likely they will open it several times. So I want to download and store the images locally when they are needed. These articles are listed in a UITableView. When you tap an article you pop open a UIWebView that displays the article. I have a function that checks if I have downloaded the images associated with the article already. If I have I just pop open the the UIWebView - everything works fine. If I don't have the images downloaded I go off and download them and store them to my Documents directory. Although this i working, the app is hanging while the images are downloading. Not very tidy. I want the article to open in a snap and download the images with the article open. So what I've done is I check if the images are downloaded, if they aren't I go ahead and just "touch" the files I need and load the webview. The UIWebView opens up but the images referenced contain no data. Then in a background thread I download the images and overwrite the "dummy" ones. This will save the images and everything but it won't reload the images in my current UIWebView. I have to go back out of the article back back in again to see the images. Are there any ways around this? reloading just an image in a UIWebView?

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• Getting the ranking of a photo in SQL

  - by Jake Petroules

  I have the following tables: Photos [ PhotoID, CategoryID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID ] Categories [ CategoryID, ... ] PK [ CategoryID ] Votes [ PhotoID, UserID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID, UserID ] A photo belongs to one category. A category may contain many photos. A user may vote once on any photo. A photo can be voted for by many users. I want to select the ranks of a photo (by counting how many votes it has) both overall and within the scope of the category that photo belongs to. The count of SELECT * FROM Votes WHERE PhotoID = @PhotoID being the number of votes a photo has. I want the resulting table to have generated columns for overall rank, and rank within category, so that I may order the results by either. So for example, the resulting table from the query should look like: PhotoID VoteCount RankOverall RankInCategory 1 48 1 7 3 45 2 5 19 33 3 1 2 17 4 3 7 9 5 5 ... ...you get the idea. How can I achieve this? So far I've got the following query to retrieve the vote counts, but I need to generate the ranks as well: SELECT PhotoID, UserID, CategoryID, DateUploaded, (SELECT COUNT(CommentID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.Comments WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS CommentCount, (SELECT COUNT(PhotoID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.PhotoVotes WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS VoteCount, Comments FROM dbo.Photos

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• JDBC transaction dead-lock solution required?

  - by user49767

  It's a scenario described my friend and challenged to find solution. He is using Oracle database and JDBC connection with read committed as transaction isolation level. In one of the transaction, he updates a record and executes selects statement and commits the transaction. when everything happening within single thread, things are fine. But when multiple requests are handled, dead-lock happens. Thread-A updates a record. Thread B updates another record. Thread-A issues select statement and waits for Thread-B's transaction to complete the commit operation. Thread-B issues select statement and waits for Thread-A's transaction to complete the commit operation. Now above causes dead-lock. Since they use command pattern, the base framework allows to issue commit only once (at the end of all the db operation), so they are unable to issue commit immediately after select statement. My argument was Thread-A supposed to select all the records which are committed and hence should not be issue. But he said that Thread-A will surely wait till Thread-B commits the record. is that true? What are all the ways, to avoid the above issue? is it possible to change isolation-level? (without changing underlying java framework) Little information about base framework, it is something similar to Struts action, their each and every request handled by one action, transaction begins before execution and commits after execution.

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• Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

  - by alku83

  I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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• Java-Eclipse-Spring 3.1 - the fastest way to get familiar with this set

  - by Leron

  I, know almost all of you at some point of your life as a programmer get to the point where you know (more or less) different technologies/languages/IDEs and a times come when you want to get things together and start using them once - more efficient and second - more closely to the real life situation where in fact just knowing Java, or some experience with Eclipse doesn't mean nothing, and what makes you a programmer worth something is the ability to work with the combination of 2 or more combinations. Having this in mind here is my question - what do you think is the optimal way of getting into Java+Eclipse+Spring3.1 world. I've read, and I've read a lot. I started writing real code but almost every step is discovering the wheel again and again, wondering how to do thing you know are some what trivial, but you've missed that one article where this topic was discussed and so on. I don't mind for paying for a good tutorial like for example, after a bit of research I decided that instead of losing a lot of time getting the different parts together I'd rather pay for the videos in http://knpuniversity.com/screencast/starting-in-symfony2-tutorial and save myself a lot of time (I hope) and get as fast as possible to writing a real code instead of wondering what do what and so on. But I find it much more difficult to find such sources of info especially when you want something more specific as me and that's the reason to ask this question. I know a lot of you go through the hard way, and I won't give up if I have to do the same, but to be honest I really hope to get post with good tutorials on the subject (paid or not) because in my situation time is literally money. Thanks Leron

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• Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

  - by Jason

  I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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• How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

  - by Ian

  I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

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• Want to display a 3D model on the iPhone: how to get started?

  - by JeremyReimer

  I want to display and rotate a single 3D model, preferably textured, on the iPhone. Doesn't have to zoom in and out, or have a background, or anything. I have the following: an iPhone a MacBook the iPhone SDK Blender My knowledge base: I can make 3D models in various 3D programs (I'm most comfortable with 3D Studio Max, which I once took a course on, but I've used others) General knowledge of procedural programming from years ago (QuickBasic - I'm old!) Beginner's knowledge of object-oriented programming from going through simple Java and C# tutorials (Head Start C# book and my wife's intro to OOP course that used Java) I have managed to display a 3D textured model and spin it using a tutorial in C# I got off the net (I didn't just copy and paste, I understand basically how it works) and the XNA game development library, using Visual Studio on Windows. What I do not know: Much about Objective C Anything about OpenGL or OpenGL ES, which the iPhone apparently uses Anything about XCode My main problem is that I don't know where to start! All the iPhone books I found seem to be about creating GUI applications, not OpenGL apps. I found an OpenGL book but I don't know how much, if any, applies to iPhone development. And I find the Objective C syntax somewhat confusing, with the weird nested method naming, things like "id" that don't make sense, and the scary thought that I have to do manual memory management. Where is the best place to start? I couldn't find any tutorials for this sort of thing, but maybe my Google-Fu is weak. Or maybe I should start with learning Objective C? I know of books like Aaron Hillgrass', but I've also read that they are outdated and much of the sample code doesn't work on the iPhone SDK, plus it seems geared towards the Model-View-Controller paradigm which doesn't seem that suited for 3D apps. Basically I'm confused about what my first steps should be.

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• django-cms lighttpd redirect domain to url

  - by Robert

  Hello, I am using djano-cms for my site, but instead of language alias /en/ /de/ I need to use another domain. I would like to avoid running multiple django instances, and instead I would like to use lighttpd redirects if possible. I would like requests coming to domain2.com getting data from domain.com/en . The best would be if the user entering: domain2.com/offer got transparently data from domain.com/en/offer Tried many solutions with url.redirect, url.rewrite but none seems to work as desired. Also tried with: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/261904/matching-domains-with-regex-for-lighttpd-mod-evhost-www-domain-com-domain-com but that didn't work. Please help. This is my lighttpd configuration. $HTTP["host"] == "^domain2\.com" { url.redirect = ("^/(.*)" => "http://domain.com/en/$1") } $HTTP["host"] =~ "^domain\.com" { server.document-root = "/var/www/django/projects/domain/" accesslog.filename = "/var/log/lighttpd/domain.log-access.log" server.errorlog = "/var/log/lighttpd/www.domain-error.log" fastcgi.server = ( "/domain-service.fcgi" => ( "main" => ( "socket" => "/tmp/django-domain.sock", "check-local" => "disable", ) ), ) alias.url = ( "/media/" => "/var/www/django/projects/domain/media/", ) url.rewrite-once = ( "^(/site_media.*)$" => "$1", "^(/media.*)$" => "$1", "^/favicon\.ico$" => "/media/favicon.ico", "^(/.*)$" => "/domain-service.fcgi$1", } Thanks

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• Have to click twice to submit the form in IE8

  - by phil

  A very peculiar bug in a simple html form. After changing an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. Button is focused after clicking once, but form is not submitted. It's only this way in IE8 and works fine in Chrome and FF. PAY ATTENTION TO 'g^' right before <select>. It has to be a letter or number followed by a symbol to generate this bug. For example, 'a#','f$','3(' all create the same bug. Otherwise it works fine. BTW, if you don't change option and click button right away,there won't be any bug. Very strange, huh? <form method="post" action="match.php"> g^ <select> <option>Select</option> <option>English</option> <option>French</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="Go" /> </form>

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• Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

  - by Guenther Jehle

  I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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• regular expression for emails NOT ending with replace script

  - by corroded

  I'm currently modifying my regex for this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782031/extracting-email-addresses-in-an-html-block-in-ruby-rails basically, im making another obfuscator that uses ROT13 by parsing a block of text for all links that contain a mailto referrer(using hpricot). One use case this doesn't catch is that if the user just typed in an email address(without turning it into a link via tinymce) So here's the basic flow of my method: 1. parse a block of text for all tags with href="mailto:..." 2. replace each tag with a javascript function that changes this into ROT13 (using this script: http://unixmonkey.net/?p=20) 3. once all links are obfuscated, pass the resulting block of text into another function that parses for all emails(this one has an email regex that reverses the email address and then adds a span to that email - to reverse it back) step 3 is supposed to clean the block of text for remaining emails that AREN'T in a href tags(meaning it wasn't parsed by hpricot). Problem with this is that the emails that were converted to ROT13 are still found by my regex. What i want to catch are just emails that WEREN'T CONVERTED to ROT13. How do i do this? well all emails the WERE CONVERTED have a trailing "'.replace" in them. meaning, i need to get all emails WITHOUT that string. so far i have this regex: /\b([A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+.[A-Z]{2,4}('.replace))\b/i but this gets all the emails with the trailing '.replace i want to get the opposite and I'm currently stumped with this. any help from regex gurus out there? MORE INFO: Here's the regex + the block of text im parsing: http://www.rubular.com/r/NqXIHrNqjI as you can see, the first two 'email addresses' are already obfuscated using ROT13. I need a regex that gets the emails [email protected] and [email protected]

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• What database systems should an startup company consider?

  - by Am

  Right now I'm developing the prototype of a web application that aggregates large number of text entries from a large number of users. This data must be frequently displayed back and often updated. At the moment I store the content inside a MySQL database and use NHibernate ORM layer to interact with the DB. I've got a table defined for users, roles, submissions, tags, notifications and etc. I like this solution because it works well and my code looks nice and sane, but I'm also worried about how MySQL will perform once the size of our database reaches a significant number. I feel that it may struggle performing join operations fast enough. This has made me think about non-relational database system such as MongoDB, CouchDB, Cassandra or Hadoop. Unfortunately I have no experience with either. I've read some good reviews on MongoDB and it looks interesting. I'm happy to spend the time and learn if one turns out to be the way to go. I'd much appreciate any one offering points or issues to consider when going with none relational dbms?

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• "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

  - by sam

  I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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• Online file storage similar to Amazon S3

  - by Joel G

  I am looking to code a file storage application in perl similar to amazon s3. I already have a amazon s3 clone that I found online called parkplace but its in ruby and is old also isn't built for high loads. I am not really sure what modules and programs I should use so id like some help picking them out. My requirements are listed below (yes I know there are lots but I could start simple then add more once I get it going): Easy API implementation for client side apps. (maybe RESTful but extras like mkdir and cp (?) Centralized database server for the USERDB (maybe PostgreSQL (?). Logging of all connections, bandwidth used, well pretty much everything to a centralized server (maybe PostgreSQL again (?). Easy server side configuration (config file(s) stored on the servers). Web based control panel for admin(s) and user(s) to show logs. (could work just running queries from the databases) Fast High Uptime Low memory usage Some sort of load distribution/load balancer (maybe a dns based or pound or perlbal or something else (?). Maybe a cache of some sort (memcached or parlbal or something else (?). Thanks in advance

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• Checking if an SSH tunnel is up and running

  - by Jarmund

  I have a perl script which, when destilled a bit, looks like this: my $randport = int(10000 + rand(1000)); # Random port as other scripts like this run at the same time my $localip = '192.168.100.' . ($port - 4000); # Don't ask... backwards compatibility system("ssh -NL $randport:$localip:23 root\@$ip -o ConnectTimeout=60 -i somekey &"); # create the tunnel in the background sleep 10; # Give the tunnel some time to come up # Create the telnet object my $telnet = new Net::Telnet( Timeout => 10, Host => 'localhost', Port => $randport, Telnetmode => 0, Errmode => \&fail, ); # SNIPPED... a bunch of parsing data from $telnet The thing is that the target $ip is on a link with very unpredictable bandwidth, so the tunnel might come up right away, it might take a while, it might not come up at all. So a sleep is necessary to give the tunnel some time to get up and running. So the question is: How can i test if the tunnel is up and running? 10 seconds is a really undesirable delay if the tunnel comes up straight away. Ideally, i would like to check if it's up and continue with creating the telnet object once it is, to a maximum of, say, 30 seconds.

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• asp.net vb user control raising an event on the calling page

  - by jvcoach23

  i'm trying to learn about user controls. I created a user control that has a textbox and a button. What i'd like to be able to do is when i click the button in the user control, populate a label in the aspx page. I understand that i could just have a button on the page that uses some properties on the user control to get that information.. but i'd like to know how to do it with the button the user control.. the reason for this is the button is just an example.. a learning tool. if i can get this working, i'd likely be putting thing in the user control that might require this kind of passing information. Anyway.. i've found some c# examples that i tried to get working as vb.. but once started getting into the delegates and events.. well.. it made me turn to this post. anyway.. hopefully someone can lend a hand.

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• Multiple WPFPreviewHandlers in One Window? Can it be done?

  - by Scott

  Here is the scenario. I am building a part of my desktop app up and I have a need to create a preview handler. I found plenty of examples on the web of a WPF Preview handler, but I wanted to go one step more than just that. Lets say we have multiple documents and I wished to compare them. So the ideal scenario would be able to see documents side by side in a collection. Sort of how BING does their image search. But the more documents I select in a list box, the more documents I can compare all at once. The second Ideal solution would be a tabbed interface. One tab for each document. Sort of like how internet browsers are doing it now. Understand? So here is the question that I have been struggling with. I can get one preview to work in a window, but can’t get the second one to show up. This is all WPF code so maybe im doing something wrong, but can you preview more than one document in a window at a time? My thought is no, because the previewhandler needs a window handler to lock onto. I would love small code sample since COM and handlers aren’t my sort of thing, but I can manage if you are just able to point me down the right track. Here is the code I found for the WPF Handler. http://blogs.microsoft.co.il/blogs/tamir/archive/2008/04/18/using-vista-preview-handlers-in-wpf-application.aspx

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• protocol parsing in c

  - by nomad.alien

  I have been playing around with trying to implement some protocol decoders, but each time I run into a "simple" problem and I feel the way I am solving the problem is not optimal and there must be a better way to do things. I'm using C. Currently I'm using some canned data and reading it in as a file, but later on it would be via TCP or UDP. Here's the problem. I'm currently playing with a binary protocol at work. All fields are 8 bits long. The first field(8bits) is the packet type. So I read in the first 8 bits and using a switch/case I call a function to read in the rest of the packet as I then know the size/structure of it. BUT...some of these packets have nested packets inside them, so when I encounter that specific packet I then have to read another 8-16 bytes have another switch/case to see what the next packet type is and on and on. (Luckily the packets are only nested 2 or 3 deep). Only once I have the whole packet decoded can I handle it over to my state machine for processing. I guess this can be a more general question as well. How much data do you have to read at a time from the socket? As much as possible? As much as what is "similar" in the protocol headers? So even though this protocol is fairly basic, my code is a whole bunch of switch/case statements and I do a lot of reading from the file/socket which I feel is not optimal. My main aim is to make this decoder as fast as possible. To the more experienced people out there, is this the way to go or is there a better way which I just haven't figured out yet? Any elegant solution to this problem?

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• Application Design: Single vs. Multiple Hits to the DB

  - by shyneman

  I'm building a service that performs a set of configured activities based on the type of request that it receives. Each activity involves going to the database and retrieving/updating some kind of information. The logic for each activity can be generalized and re-used across different request types. The activities may need to participate in a transaction for the duration of the servicing the request. One option, I'm considering is having each activity maintain its own access to DAL/database. This fully encapsulates the activity into a stand-alone re-usable piece, but hitting the database multiple times for one request doesn't seem like a viable option. I don't really know how to easily implement the concept of a transaction across the multiple activities here either. The second option is to encapsulate ALL the activities into one big activity and hit the database once. But this does not allow re-use and configuration of these activities for different requests. Does anyone have any suggestions and input about what should be the best way to approach my problem? Thanks for any help.

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• Sending files using Winsock - optimal send() data length?

  - by Meta

  I am using Winsock with non-blocking sockets to send a file to a client. The way I'm doing it right now is that I read a chunk of 8192 bytes from the file, and then loop until all of it successfully goes through send() (obviously handling WSAEWOULDBLOCK as it occurs). I then move on and read the next 8192 bytes, and so on... Although I can use any other number than 8192 when I test the transfer on my local machine, once I try it over a network, it seems like 8191 is the largest number I can use. When I try to use any number higher than 8191 (starting with 8192), the file transfer becomes extremely slow (about 5 times slower). Is there any reason why 8191 is so special? I've done some more testing and it turns out that using 8000 is slightly faster (by 0.5%). If you understand why 8191 is so special, can you tell me if there is a number better than the others (better than 8000)? I have a feeling that it has something to do with the fact that the default send buffer allocated to the socket by Winsock is 8KB, but I don't understand why. It might also have something to do with the Nagle algorithm, but again, I'm not sure how. Note that I have not modified the SO_SNDBUF option nor the TCP_NODELAY option. Or am I doing this all wrong? What's the best way of sending a file over a non-blocking socket?

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