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• Windows based development environment: HyperV, VMWare, or VirtualBox on development machine?

  - by bleepzter

  I am a software engineer with a little bit of an informal "support" functionality... I am trying to figure out what is the best possible approach to employing virtualization technologies into our development process. Since the code we develop is server-centric, testing it often requires a VM with specific software requirements. I used to use VM Ware player (free version) to run my VM's until both of my laptops started exhibiting issues with corrupted windows 7 services and dying hard drives. All leads pointed to VMWare, which by the way seems to be a solid product if you pay for the Workstation edition ($300). On a side note, I have always been a fan of the Windows Server product line. I think it makes for one of the best development environments out there - it is highly scalable, highly reliable, and very efficient. So to be fair I replaced the drives of the laptops and installed Windows Server 2008R2, VS2010 Ultimate SP1, SQL Server 2008R2, TFS Server 2010 and all other tools and API's needed do do my work properly. So now I am stuck with a bunch of VMWare VMs. I don't want to repeat of what happened before, and I certainly don't want to bog down my machine with an inefficient hypervisor or services that are not needed. Futhermore the VMDK hard-disk format used by VMWare is not compatible with the VHD format of Hyper V. It is my understanding that converting from one format to the other can only happen by Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine which I have downloaded from MSDN and ready to install. I guess the question at this point is: Does SCVM run as another service in Windows? Is it a memory hog? What is a better virtualization technology - Hyper-V or Virtual Box in terms of efficiency ease of use and most importantly - memory footprint? (Keep in mind the development environment already has a ton of services running such as TFS Server, SQL Server, IIS, etc...) How would you advise to proceed at this point so that the VMs are still used in the test process? Thanks Martin

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• Http-Only cookies in WebLogic: what versions support them/how and why are they supported?

  - by John

  We want to make all cookies set by our webapp http-only. I only have a basic understanding of the benefits of doing this but I'm told by security people that it's a Good Thing (tm) Our app is running under JDK1.6.05 and WebLogic10.3.0 After way too much digging around Oracle's website for documentation, I've found good evidence that the first version of WebLogic to support http-only cookies is 10.3.1. By "support," I mean the cookie-http-only deployment-descriptor element. Before we go about upgrading, I'd be nice to have these questions answered: 1a) Is it accurate that WL10.3.1 is the first version to support http-only cookies and that we're out of luck with 10.3.0? 1b) If we do indeed need to upgrade, is there an easy to do so under Windows? I've heard people mention an "upgrade jar" that you just stick in the classpath but I can't find any mention of this by Oracle. Does an easy way exist, or do we need to do a full-install of the new version? 2) What does the cookie-http-only deployment-descriptor element do when enabled? Will it ensure all cookies set by the application have an http-only=true attribute? Will it do more or less? Is there anything I'll have to do programmatically? 3) Is there anything in general I should know about http-only cookies, getting my web app to take advantage of them, or other security concerns?

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• Give Access to a Subdirectory Without Giving Access to Parent Directories

  - by allquixotic

  I have a scenario involving a Windows file server where the "owner" wants to dole out permissions to a group of users of the following sort: \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3: Read & Execute and Write \\server\dir1\dir2: No permissions. \\server\dir1: No permissions. \\server: Read & Execute To my understanding, it is not possible to do this because Read & Execute permission must be granted to all the parent directories in a directory chain in order for the operating system to be able to "see" the child directories and get to them. Without this permission, you can't even obtain the security context token when trying to access the nested directory, even if you have full access to the subdirectory. We are looking for ways to get around this, without moving the data from \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3 to \\server\dir4. One workaround I thought of, but which I am not sure if it will work, is creating some sort of link or junction \\server\dir4 which is a reference to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3. I am not sure which of the available options (if any) would work for this purpose if the user does not have Read & Execute permission on \\server\dir1\dir2 or \\server\dir1, but as far as I know, the options are these: NTFS Symbolic Link, Junction, Hard Link. So the questions: Are any of these methods suitable to accomplish my goal? Are there any other methods of linking or indirectly referencing a directory, which I haven't listed above, which might be suitable? Are there any direct solutions that don't involve granting Read & Execute to \\server\dir1 or \\server\dir2 but still allowing access to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3?

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• How to make an x.509 certificate from a PEM one?

  - by Ken

  I'm trying to test a script, locally, which involves uploading a file using a Java-based program to a FileZilla FTPES server. For the real thing, there is a real certificate on the FZ server, and the upload step (tested alone) seems to work fine. I've installed FileZilla Server on my dev box (so it'll test uploading from localhost to localhost). I don't have a real certificate for it, of course, so I used the "Generate new certificate..." button in FZ. It works fine from an interactive FTPES program (as long as I OK the unknown cert), but from my Java program it throws a javax.net.ssl.SSLHandshakeException ("unable to find valid certification path to requested target"). So how do I tell Java that this certificate is OK with me? (I know there's a way to change the Java program to accept any certificate, but I don't want to go down that route. I want to test it just as it will happen in production, and I don't want to ignore unknown certificates in production.) I found that Java has a program called "keytool" that seems to be for managing this sort of thing, but it complains that the certificate file that FZ generated is not an "x.509" file. A posting from the FZ side said it was "PEM encoded". I have "openssl" here, which looks like it's perfect for converting between certificate formats, but I think my understanding of certificate formats is wrong because I'm not seeing anything obvious. My knowledge of security certificates is a bit shaky, so if my title is stupidly wrong, please help by fixing that. :-)

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• Set up Linux box as WAP for MyBookLive?

  - by AcidFlask

  I inherited an old Linux box as well as a MyBookLive and would like to make the MyBookLive available over my wireless, essentially using the Linux box as a wireless access point. I just wiped the Linux box (home) and installed Ubuntu 12.04 on it. My network setup currently looks like this: (192.168.0.1 netmask 255.255.255.0) ISP --- wireless router --- wlan0 on home (192.168.0.12) | eth0 on home --- MyBookLive MacBook (192.168.0.11) so that the MyBookLive is basically a glorified external hard drive. The router does have an Ethernet port, but it is being used by my roommate's computer so I can't plug the MyBookLive directly into it. Right now I can ping MyBookLive.local and MacBook.local from home, but I am having trouble understanding and figuring out what the correct iptables commands are to make my MacBook see my MyBookLive through the Bonjour network. Also, I'm not sure if I need to set up DNS to forward xxx.local Bonjour/Zeroconf addresses. I tried the following to forward my entire wired network (which has only my MyBookLive) to a single IP address: sysctl net.ipv4.ip_forward=1 iptables -A FORWARD -i wlan0 -o eth0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o wlan0 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i eth0 -p tcp -j DNAT --to 192.168.0.66 iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i eth0 -p udp -j DNAT --to 192.168.0.66 but I can't ping this address from my MacBook. This is probably horribly wrong, but I am a complete noob at setting up this kind of network and could use some expert help with setting this up properly.

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• Strange IP address showing up with OS X ssh

  - by user50799

  I was futzing around with DTrace on Mac OS X and found the following script that prints out information about connections being established: $ cat script.d syscall::connect:entry { printf("execname: %s\n", execname); printf("pid: %d\n", pid); printf("sockfd: %d\n",arg0); socks = (struct sockaddr*)copyin(arg1, arg2); hport = (uint_t)socks->sa_data[0]; lport = (uint_t)socks->sa_data[1]; hport <<= 8; port = hport + lport; printf("Port number: %d\n", port); printf("IP address: %d.%d.%d.%d\n", socks->sa_data[2], socks->sa_data[3], socks->sa_data[4], socks->sa_data[5]); printf("======\n"); } I run it in one window: $ sudo dtrace -s ./script.d Then I ssh to another machine from another window. I get this output from my dtrace window: CPU ID FUNCTION:NAME 0 18696 connect:entry execname: ssh pid: 5446 sockfd: 3 Port number: 22 IP address: 192.168.0.207 ====== 0 18696 connect:entry execname: ssh pid: 5446 sockfd: 5 Port number: 12148 IP address: 109.112.47.108 ====== ^C The first IP address I can explain (192.168.0.207), that's the machine I'm connecting to. But what's with the 109.112.47.108 machine? It doesn't show up in tcpdump nor netstat -an Is there something with my dtrace code or my understanding of how the connect system call works?

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• Manual NAT on Checkpoint (Redirect all http requests to a local web server)

  - by kulakli

  Hi, We have a proxy server in internal network and I want to redirect all internet http requests to a web server in local network. It'll be like a Network Billboard that say "No direct connection is available. Set up your proxy etc." For example: A user starts the computer Opens the browser Trys to open www.google.com Should see web server output on local network Trys another web site on internet Should see web server output on local network Sets up proxy Trys to connect to a web site Web site should be loaded I have added a simple manual NAT rule to address translation in Checkpoint firewall but it simply does not work. Here is my address translation rule Source Destination Service T.Source T.Destination T.Service MY_PC A_GOOGLE_IP ALL ORIGINAL INT_WEB_SRV ORIGINAL Then when I ping A_GOOGLE_IP, replies come from INT_WEB_SRV, as I expected. However, when I try to connect A_GOOGLE_IP from browser (http://A_GOOGLE_IP), No replies come from SYN_SENT and falls into timeout. When I look at the firewall log of INT_WEB_SRV, I can see the incoming connection requests from MY_PC is accepted and NO denies. By the way, there is no problem to see INT_WEB_SRV (http://INT_WEB_SRV) from browser. My understanding is, my nat rule at checkpoint NGX R60 does not include return packets. I definitely need some help. Regards, Burak

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• Why does BitLocker need a minimum volume size of 64 MB?

  - by Iszi

  Since the future of TrueCrypt appears to be still unclear, I figured I'd try to get my stuff migrated into BitLocker at least for the time being. I nearly never have to access my encrypted data from anything that's not BitLocker-capable, so cross-platform compatibility isn't a big deal to me at this time. However, I am having a bit of an issue understanding the minimum requirement of a 64 MB volume. With TrueCrypt, I was able to protect small files (and most of my protected files are fairly small) in containers down to 300 KB or even less. When I finally created a VHD of an appropriate size last night (100 MB), it seemed the file system itself only took up about 3 MB and encrypting it with BitLocker didn't appear to take up any more. While 3 MB is still an order of magnitude larger than the smallest volume I could make with TrueCrypt, it's still relatively reasonable in comparison to 64 MB. This is an especially large amount of overhead (and largely wasted at that, since it's mostly empty space for now) when I consider that some of these volumes will be stored and synced in the cloud. What possible reasons could BitLocker have for needing volumes to be 64 MB large, when it's not even appearing to use that space? BitLocker FAQ on TechNet

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• Batch Script to Trim lines in text to first 30 or 50 characters only

  - by SuperUserMan

  I am now new to scripts but i find it really difficult understanding "for" command (especially with that tokens and delimiters etc) . Saying so, i think that for command can be used to do what i am doing. If its not and there is an easier way, ignore my ignorance :( Say i have multiple lines in a text file abc.txt with each line starting and ending with " (quotes) E.g. a file of 3 lines "hey what is going on @mike220. I am working on your car. Its engine is in very bad condition" "Because if you knew, you'd get shredded and do it with certainty" "@honey220 Do you know someone who has busted their ass on a diet only for results to come to a screeching halt after a few weeks" How can i trim each line, within the quotes, to a Fixed length say 30 or 50 or 100 characters (including spaces) I want to enter the number of character in batch and it can trim accordingly and produce a file def.txt with trimmed lines within quotes. Say i enter 50, results of above example should be "hey what is going on @mike220. I am working on you" "Because if you knew, you'd get shredded and do it" "@honey220 Do you know someone who has busted their" Thanks P.S. if you use For command, kindly please explain the command. EDIT: Though the answer provided worked, there is an issue with non english text. I am getting garbled text in Output file for non english text in input file . Any help @barlop here is the nonenglish text ( 1 line) "???? ?? ???? ?? ???? ???? ??? ?????? ???"

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• Active Directory: how to be SURE users can change their own passwords?

  - by Latro

  Working on some project where a tool we have has to authenticate against AD connecting via LDAPS and perform password changes if required or requested. IN THEORY, the tool does that, and we have seen it work in other projects. IN PRACTICE, against this particular directory, it fails. Been driving me crazy. The particulars of the situation: Windows 2003 AD Defined a "technical user" for the LDAP connection with rights to change users passwords When password change is required - in this case, because pwdLastSet is 0 - the tool uses the technical account to go, bind to the controller and change the user password. If password change is not required but the user request it, then the bind is done with the user account. That last condition is the one that doesnt work. With the technical user the password change is possible, but with the user itself, it isnt. We get an error like this: LDAP access failed: javax.naming.directory.InvalidAttributeValueException: [LDAP: error code 19 - 0000052D: AtrErr: DSID-03190F00, #1: 0: 0000052D: DSID-03190F00, problem 1005 (CONSTRAINT_ATT_TYPE), data 0, Att 9005a (unicodePwd) no idea what DSID-03190F00 means cause it doesnt seem to be anywhere in google :-/ Been looking at several MS documentation pages and frankly, I'm not understanding one bit of it. There is some "control access right" called User-Change-Password that may, or may not, control what objects have the right to change their own password, which may, or may not, have to do with ACE and ACLs... There is GPO. There is maybe the password policy but it is only set to ask for passwords of 6 chars or more... Can anybody explain to me in easy-to-check steps how can I go and tell the AD admin guy (who is as lost as me) what to do to ensure that users in the AD directory (objectClass top,person,organizationalPerson and user) are able to change their own passwords by themselves? Thanks in advance

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• Simple electric DC question. Current consumption

  - by Bobb

  Suppose you have DC power supply and a consumer connected to it (i.e. computer PSU and a hard drive). Suppose PSU which was supplied with the consumer has output 5V 1A. So I assume that the consumer should not consume more than 1A. Suppose the original PSU is broken now and I want to replace it with the one I have which is 5V 10A. My guess is that current is something which depends on the consumer. So if the consumer consumes normally 1A then it will not consume more than that even if it is connected to 10A PSU. In other word - am I right assuming that the consumer will not burn out being connected to a power supply with higher current output? P.S. my understanding is that voltage is something independent from the consumer. If you give it higher voltage it will burn (voltage is from PSU to the consumer). However current must be in opposite - consumer sucks as much current as it need not as much as PSU can provide (of course given that max PSU current is greater than the consumer needs)

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• Looking for some IIS redirect help/ideas

  - by CoreyT

  Right now we have a site with a LOT of static asp pages such as, www.site.com/123.asp. This is due to how our current site's CMS builds it's pages by default. I don't have an exact count but we have roughly 6000 asp files in the site right now. We are in the middle of a redesign and restructuring of the site, and are looking to migrate to SEO friendly URLs. The problem we're having right now is what do we do to redirect the old pages to the new friendly URLs? I know how to do redirects that is not the issue here. The problems I am coming up with right now are listed below. 1 - Is there a limit to the number of redirects in IIS? 2 - Would having even a few thousand redirects affect IIS performance? 3 - My understanding is that we would not be passing along page rank to the new URLs, is that true? (not a major question I can ask on more SEO forums if nobody here is sure) 4 - Would using something like the IIS URL Rewrite 2 module for IIS 7 help us out? Or would I still need to define several thousand unique redirects in it? Our server right now is running Server 2003, however in the redesign I would be open to migrating to Server 2008 R2 if there is a good case for it (i.e. the URL Rewrite module). Thanks for any guidance or help. I have been looking for a good way to do this for a while now and keep coming up with things that sound problematic and bad (such as having 6000 redirects).

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• How to Deploy an ASP.NET Web API- and Browser-based Application to a Production Environment [closed]

  - by lmttag

  Possible Duplicate: How to Deploy an ASP.NET Web API- and Browser-based Application to a Production Environment We have an ASP.NET Web API server that serves up a SQL Server data driven website. The API uses JSON to transfer data from SQL Server to the front end. We need to move it to an internal production environment (nothing will be exposed on the public Internet) and we’re having problems - or just not understanding what needs to be done. There are two domains: The corporate domain - where all users login normally. The process domain - contains the database the Web API needs to access. The IT staff wants to put a DMZ between the two domains to house the IIS app and shield the users on the corporate domain from having access into the process domain directly. The ideal configuration is: corp domain (end users) <–> firewall (open port 80) <–> DMZ (web server running IIS) <–> firewall (open port 80 or 1433????) <–> process domain (IIS for Web API and SQL Server) We don’t really understand how to deploy our browser/Web API application in this scenario. Do we need to break up our application so that all the client code is on the IIS server in the DMZ, while the Web API gets installed on the server in the process domain? Does the entire app (client code and Web API) stay together on the IIS server in the DMZ, which then somehow accesses the SQL Server instance to get data? From the IIS server and app in the DMZ, would you simply access the Web API on the server in the process domain by going to http://server/appname/api/getitmes? In the second firewall between the DMZ and the process domain, would you have to open port 1433 or just port 80 since the Web API is a HTTP endpoint? Or, is there some better way of deployment (i.e., how ASP.NET Web API single page applications written all in HTML5 and JavaScript supposed to be deployed to production environments?)? NB: The servers are Win2k8 R2, SQL Server 2k8 R2, and IIS 7.5.

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• Simple electric DC question. Currency consumption

  - by Bobb

  Suppose you have DC power supply and a consumer connected to it (i.e. computer PSU and a hard drive). Suppose PSU which was supplied with the consumer has output 5V 1A. So I assume that the consumer should not consume more than 1A. Suppose the original PSU is broken now and I want to replace it with the one I have which is 5V 10A. My guess is that current is something which depends on the consumer. So if the consumer consumes normally 1A then it will not consume more than that even if it is connected to 10A PSU. In other word - am I right assuming that the consumer will not burn out being connected to a power supply with higher current output? P.S. my understanding is that voltage is something independent from the consumer. If you give it higher voltage it will burn (voltage is from PSU to the consumer). However current must be in opposite - consumer sucks as much current as it need not as much as PSU can provide (of course given that max PSU current is greater than the consumer needs)

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• what are valid 'ack' values?

  - by WileECanisLatrans

  having an issue with a vendor who claims the cause of a problem is an invalid 'ack' value in the tcp data. I'm using java so I didn't write this layer. I used snoop to capture the traffic on the wire and am using wireshark to display the data. Here is what is happening. After receiving a multi-packet(5) message I see a multi-pack(3) response. The first packet in the response has a value for 'ack' that is different than the 'ack' value in the other two packets. The vendor claims this data is suspect. I've provided sample data below. I'm not a tcp expert so I don't know if this is a problem or not. I've tried to find something on valid ack values and it seems to me the value should be 80018 but that doesn't mean the 78345 is wrong. I found this on the web and it seems to apply but I'm not sure: "the ack value of any data segment is considered valid as long as it does not acknowledge data ahead of the next segment to send". Thanks for your help. My understanding is the vendor has written their own tcp layer. * source seq ack len * vendor 75465 10924 0 * vendor 75465 10924 1440 * vendor 76905 10924 1440 * vendor 78345 10924 1440 * vendor 79785 10924 233 * me 10924 78345 0 * me 10924 80018 0 * me 10924 80018 197

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• Matched or unmatched drives for RAID arrays?

  - by Will

  Looking around there is conflciting information on this, with some strongly suggesting one or the other. From my understanding the issue with matched drives is that the wear on both drives is more or less the same, so the potential for the second drive failing with or very soon after the first is pretty high. People also claim matched drives give substianatally higher performance however assuming the unmatched drives are more or less the same (eg 2, 1 TB STATA II 7200rpm drives with 32MB cache), would the minor differences between say a Seagate and a Western Digital one (say one has a 128MB/s read rate, and the other a 150MB/s read rate, as well as I guess various other minor differences) actually cause any notable performance loss, ie potentialy worse than two matched 128MB/s drives, or does RAID not really care and give you essentially an optimal solution (eg upto 278MB/s total read speed for RAID 0 and 1) and similar for other RAID with more "unmatched" drives (5 and 1+0 come to mind as possibilities)? Also I couldnt find much info on how this is different on different RAID setups, eg RAID 0 or RAID 1, software or hardware RAID, etc. I'm assuming such things have an effect, and thats it's not all the same for RAID in general?

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• SQL Server 2000, large transaction log, almost empty, performance issue?

  - by Mafu Josh

  For a company that I have been helping troubleshoot their database. In SQL Server 2000, database is about 120 gig. Something caused the transaction log to grow MUCH larger than normal to over 100 gig, some hung transaction that didn't commit or roll back for a few days. That has been resolved and it now stays around 1% full or less, due to its hourly transaction log backups. It IS my understanding that a GROWING transaction log file size can cause performance issues. But what I am a little paranoid about is the size. Although mainly empty, MIGHT it be having a negative effect on performance? But I haven't found any documentation that suggests this is true. I did find this link: http://www.bigresource.com/MS_SQL-Large-Transaction-Log-dramatically-Slows-down-processing-any-idea-why--2ahzP5wK.html but in this post I can't tell if their log was full or empty, and there is not any replies to the post in this link. So I am guessing it is not a problem, anyone know for sure?

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• Kerberos issues after new server of same name joined to domain

  - by MentalBlock

  Environment: Windows Server 2012, 2 Domain Controllers, 1 domain. A server called Sharepoint1 was joined to the domain (running Sharepoint 2013 using NTLM). The fresh install for Sharepoint1 (OS and Sharepoint) is performed and set up for Kerberos and joined to the domain using the same name. Two SPNs added for HTTP/sharepoint1 and HTTP/sharepoint1.somedomain.net for account SPFarm. Active Directory shows a single, non-duplicate computer account with a create date of the first server and a modify date of the second server creation. A separate server also on the domain has the server added to All Servers in Server Manager. This server shows a local error in the events exactly like This from Technet (Kerberos error 4 - KRB_AP_ERR_MODIFIED). Question: Can someone help me understand if the problem is: The computer account is still the old account and causing a Kerberos ticket mismatch (granted some housekeeping in AD might have prevented this) (In my limited understanding of Kerberos and SPNs) that the SPFarm account used for the SPNs is somehow mismatched with HTTP calls made by the remote server management tools services in Windows Server 2012 Something completely different? I am leaning towards the first one, since I tested the same SPNs on another server and it didn't seem to cause the same issue. If this is the case, can it be easily and safely repaired? Is there a proper way to either reset the account or better yet, delete and re-add the account? Although it sounds simple enough with some powershell or clicking around in AD Users and Computers, I am uncertain what impact this might have on an existing server, particularly one running SharePoint. What is the safest and simplest way to proceed? Thanks!

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• Dead Linux server - need help and options

  - by Choi S.

  All, I have a Dell PE 1950 w/ 2 SATA drives in a software RAID1. OS is CentOS 5.5 (2.6.18.x). Starting this afternoon we received HW errors (something on the bus is bad, E171F) and the machine became unresponsive. We hard booted and it came back up for about 5 hours but then it happened again. I'm trying to figure out our options. Unfortunately we do not have similar hardware but I have a small desktop that I can use. I was contemplating putting one of the drives into the desktop and then starting it up. My goal was to then P2V it using Vmware converter but apparently the free v5.x doesn't support hot cloning/converting on a RAID volume, only the Enterprise 4.x version of Converter does. My questions are: 1.) Is putting a single drive out of a RAID1 pair into another piece of HW is safe? Based on my research and understanding it appears to be but would like confirmation. 2.) Is there any work around to the Vmware Converter not supporting RAID volumes during a hot clone/convert session? 3.) Are there other options I'm overlooking? Thanks in advance for reading and responding. --Choi S.

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• How to have LiveJournal delegate my OpenID to something else?

  - by T-Boy

  I understand that if I have full control over my domain, I can set it up so that I can delegate the task of authenticating to another OpenID service provider. The problem is, what I'd like to do is to get the LiveJournal server to pass the authentication to someone else, instead of having LJ doing it. Preferably what I'd like to do is get LiveJournal, when asked by a web site, say, "No, I don't do it anymore -- go to this address". The plan was that this address would then be in a domain I fully control, which then would pass it on to whichever service provider I choose. I don't even know if I've gotten my understanding of OpenID right, if all this shenanigans are necessary, if my question makes sense, or if it's even possible with a service provider like Livejournal. ETA: Doing a little more reading up, and examining the source for my LiveJournal user page, I note that this particular line in the file's <header> area: <link rel="openid.server" href="http://www.livejournal.com/openid/server.bml" /> I suspect that changing this will allow me to forward OpenID requests to whomever I wish, I think; so far so good. Now comes the hard part -- figuring out how to change all of that using LiveJournal's customization options, if that is at all possible (here's hoping I don't need to pay to get that functionality).

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• Possible for linux bridge to intercept traffic?

  - by A G

  I have a linux machine setup as a bridge between a client and a server; brctl addbr0 brctl addif br0 eth1 brctl addif br0 eth2 ifconfig eth1 0.0.0.0 ifconfig eth2 0.0.0.0 ip link set br0 up I also have an application listening on port 8080 of this machine. Is it possible to have traffic destined for port 80 to be passed to my application? I have done some research and it looks like it could be done using ebtables and iptables. Here is the rest of my setup: //set the ebtables to pass this traffic up to ip for processing; DROP on the broute table should do this ebtables -t broute -A BROUTING -p ipv4 --ip-proto tcp --ip-dport 80 -j redirect --redirect-target DROP //set iptables to forward this traffic to my app listening on port 8080 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 80 -j TPROXY --on-port 8080 --tproxy-mark 1/1 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -p tcp -j MARK --set-mark 1/1 //once the flows are marked, have them delivered locally via loopback interface ip rule add fwmark 1/1 table 1 ip route add local 0.0.0.0/0 dev lo table 1 //enable ip packet forwarding echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward However nothing is coming into my application. Am I missing anything? My understanding is that the target DROP on the broute BROUTING chain will push it up to be processed by iptables. Secondly, are there any other alternatives I should investigate? Edit: IPtables gets it at nat PREROUTING, but it looks like it drops after that; the INPUT chain (in either mangle or filter) doesn't see the packet.

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• Linux on MacBook Air

  - by enduser

  I'm thinking of getting a MacBook Air. The answers to this post will help me make my decision. My questions and my understanding of current solutions are: How difficult is it to install a Linux-based OS (like Fedora or Ubuntu)? I've heard a little about rEFIt, but am not sure what to make of it. Is it completely necessary? Do I still need it if I don't plan to dual boot with Mac OS X? Also a dual-boot isn't necessary, I'd just like to run Fedora/Ubuntu by itself, but I'm curious to know if a dual boot is simple. Does everything 'just work'? In my current laptop I need to add a wireless driver (Broadcom card). I've heard Macs use Broadcom wireless cards. Will this be an issue? How about graphics/touchpad (& multitouch)/sound? I'm aware there are tutorials out there on how to install some older version of some os on your Mac, but my questions are a bit more general: Will it be easy to use (install and configure drivers for) recent Linux distributions with a new MacBook Air? Note: I don't mind extra configuration, but would like to know where it'll be necessary, because if it's too much of a hassle I'll look at other hardware.

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• Can next hop address be same as destination address?

  - by Raj

  Like if host address is 100.0.0.1 and next hop address is 100.0.0.2 and destination ip address is also 100.0.0.2 Is this a valid use case? Any real life usage? <dest ip> <next hop> ip route 100.0.0.2 255.255.255.255 100.0.0.2 weight 1 next-hop-vrf GlobalRouter Above is the command on a router inside a VRF. 100.0.0.2 is pingable from host. 100.0.0.1 & 100.0.0.2 are an ip address assigned to a VLAN on host & destination respectively. On a linux box, Such configuration is valid. [root]# netstat -r -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags MSS Window irtt Iface 55.55.55.55 55.55.55.55 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 eth0 [root]# ip route show 55.55.55.55 via 55.55.55.55 dev eth0 As per my understanding, If a destination IP is reachable (i.e in the same subnet of host IP) we dont need a next hop. I came across one application for using next hop for destination IP in same subnet (i.e for VPN) See this: Will packets send to the same subnet go through routers? If next hop != destination IP but they are in same subnet as that of host, is a valid scenario for VPN, then i am wondering what are the applications of next_hop==dest_ip & subnet same as host? This is my first post in Super User. Extremely happy with the quick and warm response.

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• Skipping nginx PHP cache for certain areas of a site?

  - by DisgruntledGoat

  I have just set up a new server with nginx (which I am new to) and PHP. On my site there are essentially 3 different types of files: static content like CSS, JS, and some images (most images are on an external CDN) main PHP/MySQL database-driven website which essentially acts like a static site dynamic PHP/MySQL forum It is my understanding from this question and this page that the static files need no special treatment and will be served as fast as possible. I followed the answer from the above question to set up caching for PHP files and now I have a config like this: location ~ \.php$ { try_files $uri =404; fastcgi_cache one; fastcgi_cache_key $scheme$host$request_uri; fastcgi_cache_valid 200 302 304 30m; fastcgi_cache_valid 301 1h; include /etc/nginx/fastcgi_params; fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/php-fastcgi/php-fastcgi.socket; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /srv/www/example$fastcgi_script_name; fastcgi_param HTTPS off; } However, now I want to prevent caching on the forum (either for everyone or only for logged-in users - haven't checked if the latter is feasible with the forum software). I've heard that "if is evil" inside location blocks, so I am unsure how to proceed. With the if inside the location block I would probably add this in the middle: if ($request_uri ~* "^/forum/") { fastcgi_cache_bypass 1; } # or possible this, if I'm able to cache pages for anonymous visitors if ($request_uri ~* "^/forum/" && $http_cookie ~* "loggedincookie") { fastcgi_cache_bypass 1; } Will that work fine, or is there a better way to achieve this?

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• Have to run auto-negotiate between clients and switch - "old" switch works fine - "new" switch results in "port flapping"?

  - by ConfusedAboutSwitching

  I need some help understanding a problem we're having at work: We run Altiris/Deployment Solution and have to use auto-negotiate between client systems and our switches (Altiris apparently requires this for imaging, PXE boot and other functions). We have several areas with old wiring (Cat 3 & Cat 5) that have old 10/100 Cisco switches in them - and we can set these systems up to "auto/auto" (auto-negotiate on both the NIC and the switch port), and everything has been working fine. But - our networking crew changed out a couple of old switches for 10/100/1000 Cisco switches, and now - they are claiming that "auto/auto" won't work because the switches can't auto-negotiate the way the old 10/100 switches did - and that if we try to set the new gig switches to auto-negotiate, the switch port starts "port flapping", and shuts the port down. But - if we put the old switch back in - they work using "auto/auto" just fine - no port flapping. The networking crew is telling me that the problem is that we're putting "new switches" on "old wire", and that the old cabling can't/won't support the auto-negotiation with these new switches....??? There's something about this that doesn't make sense to me - can someone explain this to me? Or is our networking crew just doing something wrong in the configuration of these new switches? While will the old switches work "auto/auto", but the new switches won't?? HELP!!....and Thanks!! M

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