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  • Google Chrome and (cache or memory leaks).

    - by Alexey Ogarkov
    Hello All, I have a big problem with Google Chrome and its memory. My app is displaying to user several image charts and reloads them every 10s. In the interval i have code like that var image = new Image(); var src = 'myurl/image'+new Date().getTime(); image.onload = function() { document.getElementById('myimage').src = src; image.onload = image.onabort = image.onerror = null; } image.src = src; So i have no memory leaks in Firefox and IE. Here the response headers for images Server Apache-Coyote/1.1 Vary * Cache-Control no-store (// I try no-cache, must-revalidate and so on here) Content-Type image/png Content-Length 11131 Date Mon, 31 May 2010 14:00:28 GMT Vary * taken from here In about:cache page there is no my cached images. If i enable purge-memory-button for chrome (--purge-memory-button parameter) it`s not help. Images is in PNG24. So i think that the problem is not in cache. May be Google Chrome is not releasing memory for old images. Please help. Any suggestions. Thanks.

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  • Have any software engineers gotten math degrees later in their careers?

    - by vin
    I have a bachelors in computer science and worked the last 12 years as a software engineer. I'm bored with doing general development work, so I want to specialize. I'm thinking about getting a master's degree in math so I can build math models and write algorithms to implement them. I'm unsure what type of work I'd do (financial, gaming, graphics, science, research, etc) but I'm open minded. I would need to refresh my undergrad math skills (which are old and faded), but I loved algebra and calculus. I've been working with couple statisticians so I've been finding myself more interested in statistics. Since I'm a parent supporting a household, I would have to continue working while studying. Have any software engineers taken this route? (Specifically, going from BS in comp sci to MS in math.) If so, what advice do you have for coursework, financing, and getting a job that combines programming with advanced math? How abundant are these kinds of jobs? I'm not sure where one starts. Also, how do you hop from a BS to an MS in a different subject?

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  • Referencing not-yet-defined variables - Java

    - by user2537337
    Because I'm tired of solving math problems, I decided to try something more engaging with my very rusty (and even without the rust, very basic) Java skills. I landed on a super-simple people simulator, and thus far have been having a grand time working through the various steps of getting it to function. Currently, it generates an array of people-class objects and runs a for loop to cycle through a set of actions that alter the relationships between them, which I have stored in a 2d integer array. When it ends, I go look at how much they all hate each other. Fun stuff. Trouble has arisen, however, because I would like the program to clearly print what action is happening when it happens. I thought the best way to do this would be to add a string, description, to my "action" class (which stores variables for the actor, reactor, and the amount the relationship changes). This works to a degree, in that I can print a generic message ("A fight has occurred!") with no problem. However, ideally I would like it to be a little more specific ("Person A has thrown a rock at Person B's head!"). This latter goal is proving more difficult: attempting to construct an action with a description string that references actor and reactor gets me a big old error, "Cannot reference field before it is defined." Which makes perfect sense. I believe I'm not quite in programmer mode, because the only other way I can think to do this is an unwieldy switch statement that negates the need for each action to have its own nicely-packaged description. And there must be a neater way. I am not looking for examples of code, only a push in the direction of the right concept to handle this.

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  • What programming language is this?

    - by Richard M.
    I recently stumbled over a very odd source listing on a rather old programming-related site (lost it somewhere in my browser history as I didn't care about it at first). I think that this is part of a simple (console-based?) snake game. I searched and searched but didn't find a language that looked somwhat like this. This seems like a mix of Python, Ruby and C++. What the hell? What programming-language is the below source listing written in? Maybe you can figure it out? my Snake.hasProps { length parts xDir yDir } & hasMethods { init: length = 0 parts[0].x,y = 5 move: parts[ 0 ].x,y.!add xDir | yDir # Move the head map parts(i,v): parts[ i ] = parts[ i + 1 ] checkBiteSelf checkFeed checkBiteSelf: part } my SnakePart.hasProps { x y } fork SnakePart to !Feed my Game.hasProps { frameTime = 30 } & hasMethods { init: mainloop mainloop: sys.util.sleep frameTime Snake.move Field.getInput -> Snake.xDir | Snake.yDir Field.reDraw with Snake & Feed & Game # For FPS } main.isMethod { game.init }

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  • UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

    - by Dmitry
    I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

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  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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  • Why Android for enterprise applications?

    - by mcabral
    Recently one of our clients is considering the posibility of picking up an old WinMobile 5.0 project. Several features are to be added to the point it will be a major version update. The client is worried about the mobile market, and thinks there's a chance all the effort put in this development will have to be thrown away in a couple of year due to the dinamics of the mobile market and the deprecation of mobile devices. So, the client is not sure whether he should continue with Windows Mobile (changing from WM 5.0 to 6.X) or starting from scratch with another technology. From our part we have been studing the mobile market, looking for clues for which will be the winning horse. The safe move seems to continue with WM just because re writing an entire application from scratch involves more risks and delays. On the other hand WM seems to be losing market and the ghost of an exit on their part is growing stronger everyday. But what can be say about Android? Everyone is talking about it and is growing at full speed but what avantagies will it bring to the table? Why should we start a fresh applicaction on this technology? So the question remains the same.. is Andriod mature enough for an enterprise application? Will you recomend it to one of your clients? Will you port/rewrite a WM application to Andriod? What's the trade-off? EDIT: Addressing commentaries. The app is entirely built with C# and Compact Framework. The app is for logistics/management.

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • Using pointers to adjust global objects in objective-c

    - by Rob
    Ok, so I am working with two sets of data that are extremely similar, and at the same time, these data sets are both global NSMutableArrays within the object. data_set_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; data_set_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Two new NSMutableArrays are loaded, which need to be added to the old, existing data. These Arrays are also global. xml_dataset_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; xml_dataset_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; To reduce code duplication (and because these data sets are so similar) I wrote a void method within the class to handle the data combination process for both Arrays: -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str Now, I have a decent understanding of object oriented programming, so I was thinking that if I were to invoke the method with the global Arrays in the data like so... [self constructData:data_set_one fromDownloadArray:xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:@"id"]; Then the global NSMutableArrays (data_set_one) would reflect the changes that happen to "array" within the method. Sadly, this is not the case, data_set_one doesn't reflect the changes (ex: new objects within the Array) outside of the method. Here is a code snippet of the problem // data_set_one is empty // xml_dataset_one has a few objects [constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data_set_one fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:(NSString *)@"id"]; // data_set_one should now be xml_dataset_one, but when echoed to screen, it appears to remain empty And here is the gist of the code for the method, any help is appreciated. -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str { if ([data count] == 0) { data = down; // set data equal to downloaded data } else if ([down count] == 0) { // download yields no results, do nothing } else { // combine the two arrays here } } This project is not ARC enabled. Thanks for the help guys! Rob

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  • How to hand-over a TCP listening socket with minimal downtime?

    - by Shtééf
    While this question is tagged EventMachine, generic BSD-socket solutions in any language are much appreciated too. Some background: I have an application listening on a TCP socket. It is started and shut down with a regular System V style init script. My problem is that it needs some time to start up before it is ready to service the TCP socket. It's not too long, perhaps only 5 seconds, but that's 5 seconds too long when a restart needs to be performed during a workday. It's also crucial that existing connections remain open and are finished normally. Reasons for a restart of the application are patches, upgrades, and the like. I unfortunately find myself in the position that, every once in a while, I need to do this kind of thing in production. The question: I'm looking for a way to do a neat hand-over of the TCP listening socket, from one process to another, and as a result get only a split second of downtime. I'd like existing connections / sockets to remain open and finish processing in the old process, while the new process starts servicing new connectinos. Is there some proven method of doing this using BSD-sockets? (Bonus points for an EventMachine solution.) Are there perhaps open-source libraries out there implementing this, that I can use as is, or use as a reference? (Again, non-Ruby and non-EventMachine solutions are appreciated too!)

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  • How can I sign a Windows Mobile application for internal use?

    - by AR
    I'm developing a Windows Mobile application for internal company use, using the Windows Mobile 6 Professional SDK. Same old story: I've developed and tested on the emulator and all is well, but as soon as I deploy to advice I get an UnauthorizedAccessException when writing files or creating directories. I'm aware that an application installed to a device needs to be signed but I'm running into roadblocks at every turn: Using the project properties 'Devices' window I select 'Sign the project output with this certificate, and choose one of the sample certificates from the SDK. This results in a build error: "The signer's certificate is not valid for signing" when running SignTool. If I try to run SignTool.exe from the commandline, I get an error telling me to run SignTool.exe from a location in the system's PATH. I can't use the 'Signing' tab in the Project Properties to create a test certificate - this is greyed out (presumably for WinMobile projects?). If at all possible, I would like to avoid having to go through Versign or the like to get a Mobile2Market certificate. If I have to go this route for a final version that's fine, but I need to at least be able to test the app on real devices. Any advice would be most welcome!

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  • Module not found

    - by TMP
    Hi There! I've been working on this one quite a bit and haven't gotten any closer to a solution. I juut dug up my old copy of the WindowsHookLib again - It's available with source at http://www.codeproject.com/KB/DLL/WindowsHookLib.aspx. This library allows Global Windows Mouse/Keyboard/Clipboard Hooks, which is very useful. I'm trying to use the Mouse Hook in here to Capture Mouse-Motion (I could use a Timer that always polls Cursor.Position, but I plan on using more features of WindowsHookLib later). Code as follows: MouseHook mh = new MouseHook(); mh.InstallHook(); mh.MouseMove += new EventHandler<WindowsHookLib.MouseEventArgs>(mh_MouseMove); But on the call to InstallHook(), I get an Exception: "The specified Module could not be found". Strange. Searching, I found that someone thought this occurs because a DLL is not in a place included in the Windows PATH variable, and because placing it in system32 didn't help I went the whole hog and translated the thing to C# for inclusion directly in my project (I was curious how it works). However the error was obstinately persistent, so I dug a bit on this, and found the Code in the Library that is responsible: In InstallHook(), we have IntPtr hinstDLL = Marshal.GetHINSTANCE(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetModules()[0]); this._hMouseHook = UnsafeNativeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx(14, this._mouseProc, hinstDLL, 0); if (this._hMouseHook == IntPtr.Zero) { throw new MouseHookException(new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message); } And this (after modification and recompile) tells me that what I'm really getting is a Windows error "ERROR_MOD_NOT_FOUND"! Now, Here I'm stumped. Didn't I just compile the Hook Library directly into my project? (UnsafeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx is just a DllImported Method from user32) Any Answers, or Prods in the right direction, or any hints, pointers or similar are very much appreciated!

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  • Apache is looking for htaccess and htpasswd files that aren't there

    - by user1094092
    Having an issue where Apache is requesting authentication, and looking for an .htpasswd file, based on instructions from an .htaccess file that's no longer in DocumentRoot. Background: In my DocumentRoot, I'd previously copied an .htaccess and .htpasswd file from another machine (along with all of the other website files). .htaccess contents: AuthType Basic AuthName "Password is required" AuthUserFile /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd Require valid-user Here's the catch: I moved .htaccess and .htpasswd out of DocumentRoot and even renamed the files. There is no longer an .htaccess file in DocumentRoot at all. But, when I try to access localhost from a browser, I am prompted to enter the login and password. When I enter the login and password (from the old, not-in-DocumentRoot .hpasswd file), I get a 500 Internal Server error and the log shows: [error] [client 127.0.0.1] (2)No such file or directory: Could not open password file: /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd This has been quite a puzzle, because there's no longer a .htaccess or .htpasswd file anywhere in DocumentRoot !! Have tried several apache restarts and also tried using a blank .htaccess file in the DocumentRoot. Even grepped the entire machine for references to AuthType Basic to see if I missed anything. httpd.conf looks normal enough...I can post that if needed, but this question seems long enough as it is :) Thanks for any assistance you can provide

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  • What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

    - by Joel Potter
    I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

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  • Examples using Active Directory/LDAP groups for permissions \ roles in Rails App.

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I was wondering how other people implemented this scenario. I have an internal rails app ( inventory management, label printing, shipping,etc). I'm rewriting security on the system, cause the old way got to cumbersome to maintain ( users table, passwords, roles) - I used restful_authentication and roles. It was implemented about 3 years ago. I already implemented AuthLogic with ruby-ldap-net to authenticate users ( actually that was surprisingly easy, compared to how I struggled with other frameworks/languages before). Next step is roles. I already have groups defined in Active Directory - so I don't want to run a separate roles system in my rails app, I just want to reuse Active Directory groups - since that part of the system is already maintained for other purposes ( shared drives, backups, pc access, etc) So I was wondering if others had experience implementing permissions/roles in a rails app based on groups in Active Directory or LDAP. Also the roles requirements are pretty complex. Here is an example: For instance I have users that belong to the supervisors group in AD and to inventory dept, so I was that user to be able to run "advanced" tasks in invetory - adjust qty, run reports, however other "supervisors" from other departmanets, shouldn't be able to do this, also Top Management - should be able to use those reports (regardless weather they belong to the invetory or not), but not Middle Management, unless they are in inventory group. Admins of the system (Domain Admins) should have unrestricted access to the system , except for HR & Finances part unless they are in HR ( like you don't want all system admins (except for one authorized one) to see personal info of other employees). I looked at acl9, cancan, aegis. I was wondering if there are any advantaged/cons to using one versus the other for this particular use of system access based on AD. Suggest other systems if you had good experience. Thank you!!!

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  • How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

    - by Martin
    So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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  • HttpUtility.HtmlEncode doesn't encode everything

    - by Anthony
    I am interacting with a web server using a desktop client program in C# and .Net 3.5. I am using Fiddler to see what traffic the web browser sends, and emulate that. Sadly this server is old, and is a bit confused about the notions of charsets and utf-8. Mostly it uses Latin-1. When I enter data into the Web browser containing "special" chars, like "O p ? 8 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?" fiddler show me that they are being transmitted as follows from browser to server: "&#9800; &#9801; &#9802; &#9803; &#9804; &#9805; &#9806; &#9807; &#9808; &#9809; &#9810; &#9811; " But for my client, HttpUtility.HtmlEncode does not convert these characters, it leaves them as is. What do I need to call to convert "?" to &#9800; and so on?

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  • ImageButton OnClick Event not firing

    - by webnoob
    Hi All, I am really confused about this one. I have some code that runs fine on my development server but I am now trying to get the site working on the sales guys new laptop. None of the image buttons on the website seem to be working for him (they just redirect me back to the websites homepage) whereas they used to on his previous machine. The only difference between each machine is that his old one was Vista and the new one is Windows 7. Has anyone come accross this issue? Some code: The form: <div class="form_text"></div> <div class="form_box_link"> <asp:ImageButton id="LoginSubmitButton" onClick="FLoginWebService" ImageURL="~/Images/login.png" runat="server" /> </div> The code behind (delphi): procedure TMemberLogin.FLoginWebService(Sender: TObject; e: System.EventArgs); begin //Code Removed but using OutputDebugString shows nothing is being done in here end; As mentioned, this works everywhere else except on his windows 7 machine.

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  • C++: is it safe to work with std::vectors as if they were arrays?

    - by peoro
    I need to have a fixed-size array of elements and to call on them functions that require to know about how they're placed in memory, in particular: functions like glVertexPointer, that needs to know where the vertices are, how distant they are one from the other and so on. In my case vertices would be members of the elements to store. to get the index of an element within this array, I'd prefer to avoid having an index field within my elements, but would rather play with pointers arithmetic (ie: index of Element *x will be x - & array[0]) -- btw, this sounds dirty to me: is it good practice or should I do something else? Is it safe to use std::vector for this? Something makes me think that an std::array would be more appropriate but: Constructor and destructor for my structure will be rarely called: I don't mind about such overhead. I'm going to set the std::vector capacity to size I need (the size that would use for an std::array, thus won't take any overhead due to sporadic reallocation. I don't mind a little space overhead for std::vector's internal structure. I could use the ability to resize the vector (or better: to have a size chosen during setup), and I think there's no way to do this with std::array, since its size is a template parameter (that's too bad: I could do that even with an old C-like array, just dynamically allocating it on the heap). If std::vector is fine for my purpose I'd like to know into details if it will have some runtime overhead with respect to std::array (or to a plain C array): I know that it'll call the default constructor for any element once I increase its size (but I guess this won't cost anything if my data has got an empty default constructor?), same for destructor. Anything else?

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  • PHP: visual difference between 2 arrays

    - by Paulo Freitas
    I've these arrays: <?php // New $array1 = array( array( 'g_id' => '1', 'g_title' => 'Root Admin', 'g_perm_id' => '1', 'g_bitoptions' => '0' ), array( 'g_id' => '2', 'g_title' => 'Member', 'g_perm_id' => '2', 'g_bitoptions' => '32' ), array( 'g_id' => '3', 'g_title' => 'Banned', 'g_perm_id' => '3', 'g_bitoptions' => '0' ) ); // Old $array2 = array( array( 'g_id' => '1', 'g_title' => 'Admin', 'g_perm_id' => '1', 'g_bitoptions' => '0' ), array( 'g_id' => '2', 'g_title' => 'User', 'g_perm_id' => '2', 'g_bitoptions' => '0' ), array( 'g_id' => '4', 'g_title' => 'Validating', 'g_perm_id' => '4', 'g_bitoptions' => '0' ) ); What I'm want is an HTML visual difference between them, like this picture: http://img519.imageshack.us/i/diffe.png/ Anyone here knows any 3rd party class that do this? I've been looking at some but none of them had it. =/ Thank you in advance.

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  • JQuery - Fade in new Background Image?

    - by JasonS
    Hi, I think I may be trying something that isn't possible. I was recently tasked to create a html version of the flash site. On the flash site when you click on the body the image changes. I have done this with JQuery. Its brilliant! However.. it isn't "flash" enough. The powers that be want a fade effect between images. This is where I have come completely undone. This is how my script works at the moment. Images are stored in a div called photos. This is hidden. <div id="photos"> <img src="image.jpg" alt="Some caption" style="#page-bg-color" /> </div> When the page is loaded jquery checks to see if the first image is loaded. If it isn't then a loading symbol spins. When the image is loaded, it becomes the body background. $("body").css('background', 'url(' + photos[currentImage]["url"] + ') no-repeat 50% 50% fixed ' + photos[currentImage]["background"]); I have tried the following. I have tried animate. However, this doesn't work. I have tried this plugin: http://plugins.jquery.com/project/bgImageTransition This doesn't work either. It appears to clone the tag and do something. I assume it isn't working because you cannot clone the body tag. That or it is really old and is no longer compatible with the current version of JQuery. I fear that I have coded my way down a dead end. Does anybody know how I could make this work?

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  • Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

    - by Preston
    I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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  • charsets in MySQL replication

    - by niklassaers
    Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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