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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • VB6 Game Development : Don't ask me why :-)

    - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com
    Hi All, I am developing a game in VB6 (plz don't ask me why :) ). The storyboard is ready and a rough implementation is underway. I am following a "pure-software-rendering" approach. (i.e. no DirectX, no openGL etc.) Amongst many others, the following "serious" problems exist: 2D alpha transparency reqd. to implement overlays. Parallax implementation to give depth-of-field illusion. Capturing mouse-scroll events globally (as in FPS-es; mapping them to changing weapon). Async sound play with absolute "zero-lag". Any ideas anyone. Please suggest any well documented library/ocx or sample-code. Plz do provide solutions with max performance and with as little overhead as possible. Also, anyone who has developed any games, and would be open to sharing her/his code would be highly appreciated. (any well-acknowledged VB games whose source-code i can study??) Thank You

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  • XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

    - by user323772
    This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

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  • Rails nested association issue

    - by Ben Langfeld
    Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

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  • Suitable web framework for the following scenario

    - by Paralife
    I have the following scenario: I have a view in an Oracle server and all Iwant is to show that view in a web browser, along with an input field or two for basic filtering. No users, no authentication, just this view maybe with a column or two linking to a second page for master detail viewing. The children are just string descriptions of the columns of the master that contain IDs. No inserts or updates. The question is which is the JAVA based web framework of choice that can accomplish the above in the minimum amount of code lines code time(subjective but also kind of objective if someone has expirience with more than one or two frameworks) configuration effort deployment effort and requirements. dependencies and mem footprint Also: 6. Oracle APEX is not an option. 3,4 and 5 are maybe the same in the sense that they are everything except the functionality coding. I want something that I can compile, deploy by just FTPing to the database host, run and forget. (e.g. For the deployment aspect, Hudson way comes in mind (java -jar hudson.war and that's all)). Also: 3,4 have priority over 1 and 2. (Explanation with a rant: I dont mind coding a lot as long as it is application code and not "why the fuck do we still use javascript over http for everything" code) Thanks.

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  • Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

    - by MrRuru
    Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

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  • Will these security functions be enough? (PHP)

    - by ggfan
    I am trying to secure my site so I don't have sql injections and xss scripting. Here's my code. //here's the from, for brevity, i just show a field for users to put firstname <form> <label for="first_name" class="styled">First Name:</label> <input type="text" id="first_name" name="first_name" value="<?php if (!empty($first_name)) echo $first_name; ?>" /><br /> //submit button etc </form> if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //gets rid of extra whitesapce and escapes $first_name = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['first_name'])); //check if $first_name is a string if(!is_string($first_name) { echo "not string"; } //then insert into the database. ....... } mysqli_real_espace_string: I know that this func escapes certain letters like \n \r, so when the data gets inputted into the dbc, it would have '\' next to all the escaped letters? --Will this script be enough to prevent most sql injections? just escaping and checking if the data is a string. For integers values(like users putting in prices), i just: is_numeric(). --How should I use htmlspecialchars? Should I use it only when echoing and displaying user data? Or should I also use this too when inputting data to a dbc? --When should I use strip_tags() or htmlspecialchars? SOO with all these function... if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //gets rid of extra whitesapce and escapes $first_name = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['first_name'])); //check if $first_name is a string if(!is_string($first_name) { echo "not string"; } //gets rid of any <,>,& htmlspecialchars($first_name); //strips any tags with the first name strip_tags($first_name) //then insert into the database. ....... } Which funcs should I use for sql injections and which ones should I use for xss?

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  • What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • MS Access Form - Horizontal Anchor Affecting Data Update

    - by nicholas
    Running Access 2007 with a databound form. The form Record Source is set to a query, and all fields in the form have a defined Control Source; nothing fancy, just field names. The form is a Single form with record navigation buttons which perform a "Next Record" and "Previous Record" actions. As I navigate the records the controls in the header update correctly. However, if I change a control Horizontal Anchor property to "Right" the fields no longer update on record navigation. This is observed for both text box and combo box controls. I can switch the anchoring back to "Left" and the updating works as it should. Is there some reason anchoring would affect a control updating of in an Access form? Or is this a bug that has been observed before? The only workaround I can think of is to assign the control text/value property in the form OnCurrent event, but this seems somewhat sloppy. Am I missing something here?

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  • assigning values to variables within foreach loop

    - by Patrick
    Im working on a script to tear into a csv file and ive got the rows separated, but im not sure how to assign variables to the fields within the row, so that i can perform functions with them. my code: <? ini_set('auto_detect_line_endings', true); $csvraw = file_get_contents("file.csv"); $csv = explode("\n", $csvraw); $i=0; foreach($csv AS $key=>$value){ $rowsplit = explode(",", $value); // This is where i get my headers if($i == 0){ $col0 = $rowsplit[0]; $col1 = $rowsplit[1]; $col2 = $rowsplit[2]; $col3 = $rowsplit[3]; $col4 = $rowsplit[4]; $col5 = $rowsplit[5]; $col6 = $rowsplit[6]; $col7 = $rowsplit[7]; } $i++; //This is where i loop through each row's fields foreach($rowsplit AS $key2=>$value2){ if(empty($value2)){ echo ""; }else{ echo "$value2 <br>"; } // This is where i need to assign $variable0 through $variable7 so i can perform a function with the field values. } echo "<br><br><br>"; } ?>

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  • A very interesting MYSQL problem (related to indexing, million records, algorithm.)

    - by terence410
    This problem is pretty hard to describe and therefore difficult to search the answer. I hope some expert could share you opinions on that. I have a table with around 1 million of records. The table structure is similar to something like this: items{ uid (primary key, bigint, 15) updated (indexed, int, 11) enabled (indexed, tinyint, 1) } The scenario is like this. I have to select all of the records everyday and do some processing. It takes around 3 second to handle each item. I have written a PHP script to fetch 200 items each time using the following. select * from items where updated unix_timestamp(now()) - 86400 and enabled = 1 limit 200; I will then update the "updated" field of the selected items to make sure that it wont' be selected again within one day. The selected query is something like that. update items set updated = unix_timestamp(now()) where uid in (1,2,3,4,...); Then, the PHP will continue to run and process the data which doesn't require any MYSQL connection anymore. Since I have million records and each record take 3 seconds to process, it's definitely impossible to do it sequentially. Therefore, I will execute the PHP in every 10 seconds. However, as time goes by and the table growth, the select getting much slower. Sometimes, it take more than 100 seconds to run! Do you guys have any suggestion how may I solve this problem?

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  • ASP.NET Custom/User Control With Children

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want a create a custom/user control that has children (NOT a template control). For Example, I want my control to have the following markup: <div runat="server" id="div"> <label runat="server" id="label"></label> <div class="field"> <!-- INSERT CHILDREN HERE --> </div> </div> and when I want to use it on a page I simply: <ctr:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="myControl"> <span>This is a child</span> <div>And another <b>child</b> </ctr:MyUserControl> The child controls inside my user control will be inserted into my user control somewhere. What is the best way to accomplish this. The functionality is similar to a asp:PlaceHolder but I want to add a couple more options as well as additional markup and the such. Also the child controls still need to be able to be accessed by the page.

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  • Retrieving the first picture with a HTML parser

    - by justin01
    Hey guys, (Not a native english speaker) I'm doing a personal project in PHP in which I use the Simple HTML Parser to parse the HTML of a given URL and retrieve the first image in a DIV that have a specific ID or class (maincontent, content, main, wrapper, etc. - it's all in an array) and ignore ads. The goal is to take this image and make a thumbnail with it, pretty much like on Digg and others. I thought everything was working fine until I tried my script with the website Snopes ("http://www.snopes.com/photos/animals/luckycoyote.asp" <- this page more exactly). The source of the first image it gets is: " graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg ". So far, to correct this problem I created a little function that gets the domain name of the given URL and insert it before the IMG's source attribute. So for sites like Snopes.com, it gives me: "http://www.snopes.com/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg" ... while the real URL for this image is "http://www.snopes.com*/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg*" (or, more precisely: " http://graphics1.snopes.com/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg " - note the subdomain here). So my main question is: how can I externally/dynamically retrieve the full URL address of an image ("absolute path") when I am only given the "relative path"? I'm pretty sure this is possible, since when I paste the link in Facebook's "What are you doing?" field for example, it gives me the correct path to the image while on the website, the source of the image is only (example) "image/photo/example.jpg". Thank you for your time.

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  • What is the common way to program action listeners?

    - by Roman
    I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

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  • Doesn't this defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties?

    - by flockofcode
    I know how to use properties and I understand that they implicitly call underlying get and set accessors, depending on whether we are writing to or reading from a property. static void Main(string[] args) { A a = new A(); (a.b).i = 100; } class A { private B _b = new B(); public B b { get { return _b; } } } class B { public int i; } What code (a.b).i = 100; essentially does is that first property’s get accessor returns a reference to an object _b, and once we have this reference, we are able to access _b’s members and change their values. Thus, in our example, having read only property only prevents outside code from changing the value of a reference variable _b, but it doesn’t prevent outside code from accessing _b’s members. So it seems that property can only detect whether we are trying to read from or write to a variable ( in our case variable _b ) located on the stack, while it’s not able to detect whether we’re trying to also write to members of an object to which the variable on the stack ( assuming this variable is of reference type ) points to. a) But doesn’t that defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties? Wouldn’t it be more effective if properties had the ability to also detect whether we’re trying to access members of an object returned by get accessor( assuming backing field is of a reference type )? thank you

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  • [iphone] method created in a seperate class returns "out of scope"

    - by Dror Sabbag
    Hey, I have created a Class (subclass of NSObject) which will hold all my SQLs/dbConnections etc.. in a seperate viewcontroller, i have instantiated the SQL's class and performed some actions, all went trough OK. but. one of my methods in the SQL's class is a method defined as follows: -(NSString *)queryTable:(NSUInteger *)fieldnum //query from db, and assign the field value into "fieldName" dbEntity = fieldName; [fieldName release]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } return dbEntity; } dbEntity is defined as NSString, and i have set it as a nonatoimc-retain property @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *dbEntity; when ever i call this method out from my viewController and debug step by step, i see that the method is running, it is quering from the db as expected, but when it passes the value into dbEntity the values in dbEntity are suddenly "out of scope" that is... if i browse this specific action: dbEntity = fieldName; i can see values inside fieldName, but see "out of scope" in dbEntity. Why is that?!? what is wrong with dbEntity definitions? Any help will be appriciated.

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  • Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

    - by thr
    Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

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  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

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  • table column accepting "0" as a member Id

    - by user682417
    I have two tables one is members table with columns member id , member first name, member last name. I have another table guest passes with columns guest pass id and member id and issue date . I have a list view that will displays guest passes details (I.e) like member name and issue date and I have two text boxes those are for entering member name and issue date . member name text box is auto complete text box that working fine.... but the problem is when I am entering the name that is not in member table at this time it will accept and displays a blank field in list view in member name column and member id is stored as "0" in guest pass table ...... I don't want to display the member name empty blank and I don t want to store "0" in guest pass table and this is the insert statement sql2 = @"INSERT INTO guestpasses(member_Id,guestPass_IssueDate)"; sql2 += " VALUES("; sql2 += "'" + tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text + "'"; sql2 += ",'" + tbIssueDate.Text + "'"; guestpassmemberId = memberid is there any validation that need to be done can any one suggestions on this pls... and this is the auto complete text box statement sql = @"SELECT member_Id FROM members WHERE concat(member_Firstname,'',member_Lastname) ='" + tbMemberName.Text+"'"; if (dt != null) { if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text = Convert.ToInt32(dt.Rows[0] ["member_Id"]).ToString(); } } can any one help me on this ... is there any type of validation with sql query pls help me .....

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  • LINQ - 'Could not translate expression' with previously used and proven query condition

    - by tomfumb
    I am fairly new to LINQ and can't get my head around some inconsistency in behaviour. Any knowledgeable input would be much appreciated. I see similar issues on SO and elsewhere but they don't seem to help. I have a very simple setup - a company table and an addresses table. Each company can have 0 or more addresses, and if 0 one must be specified as the main address. I'm trying to handle the cases where there are 0 addresses, using an outer join and altering the select statement accordingly. Please note I'm currently binding the output straight to a GridView so I would like to keep all processing within the query. The following DOES work IQueryable query = from comp in context.Companies join addr in context.Addresses on comp.CompanyID equals addr.CompanyID into outer // outer join companies to addresses table to include companies with no address from addr in outer.DefaultIfEmpty() where (addr.IsMain == null ? true : addr.IsMain) == true // if a company has no address ensure it is not ruled out by the IsMain condition - default to true if null select new { comp.CompanyID, comp.Name, AddressID = (addr.AddressID == null ? -1 : addr.AddressID), // use -1 to represent a company that has no addresses MainAddress = String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country) }; but this displays an empty address in the GridView as ", , ()" So I updated the MainAddress field to be MainAddress = (addr.AddressID == null ? "" : String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country)) and now I'm getting the Could not translate expression error and a bunch of spewey auto-generated code in the error which means very little to me. The condition I added to MainAddress is no different to the working condition on AddressID, so can anybody tell me what's going on here? Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • NHibernate not dropping foreign key constraints.

    - by Kendrick
    I'm new to NHibernate, so this is probably my mistake, but when I use: schema.Create(true, true); I get: SchemaExport [(null)]- There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. I grabbed the SQL code nHibernate was using, ran it directly from MSSMS, and recieved similar errors. Looking into it, the generated code is not properly dropping the foreign key constraints. The drop looks like this: if exists (select 1 from sysobjects where id = OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]') AND parent_obj = OBJECT_ID('YYY')) alter table dbo.YYY drop constraint FK22212EAFBFE4C58 Doing a "select OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')" I get null. If I take out the "dbo" (i.e. "select OBJECT_ID(N'[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')") then the ID is returned. So, my question is, why is nHibernate adding the dbo, and why does that prevent the object from being returned (since the table owning the constraint is dbo.XXX) One of my mapping files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-mapping namespace="CanineApp.Model" assembly="CanineApp.Model" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="MedicalLog" table="MedicalLog" schema="dbo"> <id name="MedicalLogID" type="Int64"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="InvoiceAmount" type="Decimal" not-null="true" /> ... <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" fetch="join" /> <many-to-one name="TreatmentCategory" class="TreatmentCategory" column="TreatmentCategoryID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • What type of objects can be sent back to an action Method using HTML.HIDDEN()

    - by Richard77
    Hello, 1)Let's say I've this form: <%Using(Html.BeginForm()){%> <% = Html.Hidden("myObject", (cast to the appropriate type)ViewData["KeyForMyObject"]%> <input type = "submit" "Submit Object"> <%}%> 2) Here's the Action which's supposed to intercept the value of the object public ActionResult MyAction(Type myObject) { //Do Something with the object } Here's my question: What type of objects the Hidden field can support? In fact, when ViewData["KeyForMyObject"] contains a string, int, or bool, myAction is able to retrieve the value. But, when it comes to objects, such as List, and dictionary, nothing happens. When I debug to check the local values, I see null for Type myObject in the MyMethod. So what are the rules in MVC when it comes to a List or Dictionary? ================================= EDIT To make things simpler, can I write something like this <% = Html.Hidden("contactDic", (Dictionary<string, string>) ViewData["contacts"])%> and expect to retrieve the dictionary in the action Method like this public ActionResult myMethod(Dictionary<string, string> contactDic) { //Do something with the dictionary } Thanks for Helping

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  • JQuery multiple id index with form submit

    - by RussP
    Hi folks, not sure how to do this as ID's are ment to be unique but this is a dynamically series of forms generated from a php array - based on reading the file names in a directory - with the same ID. What I need to do is identify which form so the data can be processed. Here is the form echo '<form method="post" action="" id="frmwidget">'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td>'; echo ucfirst($comments[0]); echo '</td><td>'; echo $comments[1]; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="checkbox">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="checkbox">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="checkbox">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="submit" id="cmdwidgets">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '</form>'; And here is my start of the Jquery $j(document).ready(function() { $j('#cmdwidgets').live('click',function(){ alert('Your widgets will load'); I will want to Ajax the form in here .. not just an alert $j('#wall').load("admin/inc/ajax-widgets.php"); return false; }); }); Yes I know the form could be 1 form not multiples, but for this purpose it needs to be multiple forms. And yes I know the form is incomplete i.e. field names etc. Any help/suggestions please - thanks in advance

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  • Refetching a previously visited page

    - by user613665
    All, I am having a field day with page refetching. Any help or pointer will be greatly appreciated!! The behavior is a bit specific to mobile browser. Problem: I have two pages and created a shortcut link to pg#1 in the home page. Through a form submit button, user is taken from pg#1 to pg#2. All that is working fine. Now once I am on pg#2. I will leave the browser and click the shortcut later. The browser will stay on pg#2 and won't go to pg#1 even though the path in URLS is different between the two views. It is almost like Django decides that since I have already visited view#1, it doesn't need to fetch it again. This problem or behavior doesn't happen if I move the same code that handle the two views and the templates to a bare bone test project. Setup: I am using django-registration, context session. I am not using any HTML caching tag. I already have DEBUG turned on in my settings.py. Are there other ways that I can tell what the server is doing. Thanks in advance. pdxMobile Update: Here is the code snippets. def sendmsg(request): if request.method =='POST': messages.add_message(request, messages.INFO, "Hello world") return redirect ('rcvmsg') return render_to_response('sendMsg.html',RequestContext(request)) def rcvmsg(request): '''view that receives the msg.''' printMsg ='Didnt get a message' if messages: thisMsg = messages.get_messages(request) for rcvMsg in thisMsg: printMsg = rcvMsg return render_to_response('rcvMsg.html',{'print_msg':printMsg},RequestContext(request)) URL: url(r'^rcvMsg/','mydomain.mainApp.views.rcvmsg',name='rcvmsg'), (r'^sendMsg/code','mydomain.mainApp.views.sendmsg'),

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  • jquery - DOM traversal question

    - by David
    Hi, Basically what I have here is a button that adds a new list item to an unordered list. Within this list item is a dropdown box (.formSelector) that when changed triggers an ajax call to get the values for another dropdown box (.fieldSelector) in the same list item. The problem is on this line: $(this).closest(".fieldSelector").append( If I change it to $(".fieldSelector").append( the second box updates correctly. The problem with this is that when I have multiple list items it updates every dropdown box on the page with the class fieldSelector, which is undesirable. How can I traverse the DOM to just pick the fieldSelector in the current list item? Any help is greatly appreciated. Complete code: $("button", "#newReportElement").click(function() { $("#reportElements").append("<li class=\"ui-state-default\"> <span class=\"test ui-icon ui-icon-arrowthick-2-n-s \"></span><span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-trash deleteRange \"></span> <select name=\"form[]\" class=\"formSelector\"><? foreach ($forms->result() as $row) { echo "<option value='$row->formId'>$row->name</option>"; }?></select><select class=\"fieldSelector\" name=\"field[]\"></select></li>"); $(".deleteRange").button(); $('.formSelector').change(function() { var id = $(this).val(); var url = "<? echo site_url("report/formfields");?>" + "/" + id; var atext = "ids:"; $.getJSON(url, function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i,item){ $(this).closest(".fieldSelector").append( $('<option></option>').val(item.formId).html(item.formLabel) ); }); }); }); return false; });

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