Search Results

Search found 12829 results on 514 pages for 'hard'.

Page 484/514 | < Previous Page | 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491  | Next Page >

  • String manipulation in Linux kernel module

    - by user577066
    I am having a hard time in manipulating strings while writing module for linux. My problem is that I have a int Array[10] with different values in it. I need to produce a string to be able send to the buffer in my_read procedure. If my array is {0,1,112,20,4,0,0,0,0,0} then my output should be: 0:(0) 1:-(1) 2:-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------(112) 3:--------------------(20) 4:----(4) 5:(0) 6:(0) 7:(0) 8:(0) 9:(0) when I try to place the above strings in char[] arrays some how weird characters end up there here is the code int my_read (char *page, char **start, off_t off, int count, int *eof, void *data) { int len; if (off > 0){ *eof =1; return 0; } /* get process tree */ int task_dep=0; /* depth of a task from INIT*/ get_task_tree(&init_task,task_dep); char tmp[1024]; char A[ProcPerDepth[0]],B[ProcPerDepth[1]],C[ProcPerDepth[2]],D[ProcPerDepth[3]],E[ProcPerDepth[4]],F[ProcPerDepth[5]],G[ProcPerDepth[6]],H[ProcPerDepth[7]],I[ProcPerDepth[8]],J[ProcPerDepth[9]]; int i=0; for (i=0;i<1024;i++){ tmp[i]='\0';} memset(A, '\0', sizeof(A));memset(B, '\0', sizeof(B));memset(C, '\0', sizeof(C)); memset(D, '\0', sizeof(D));memset(E, '\0', sizeof(E));memset(F, '\0', sizeof(F)); memset(G, '\0', sizeof(G));memset(H, '\0', sizeof(H));memset(I, '\0', sizeof(I));memset(J, '\0', sizeof(J)); printk("A:%s\nB:%s\nC:%s\nD:%s\nE:%s\nF:%s\nG:%s\nH:%s\nI:%s\nJ:%s\n",A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I,J); memset(A,'-',sizeof(A)); memset(B,'-',sizeof(B)); memset(C,'-',sizeof(C)); memset(D,'-',sizeof(D)); memset(E,'-',sizeof(E)); memset(F,'-',sizeof(F)); memset(G,'-',sizeof(G)); memset(H,'-',sizeof(H)); memset(I,'-',sizeof(I)); memset(J,'-',sizeof(J)); printk("A:%s\nB:%s\nC:%s\nD:%s\nE:%s\nF:%s\nG:%s\nH:%s\nI:%s\nJ:%\n",A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I,J); len = sprintf(page,"0:%s(%d)\n1:%s(%d)\n2:%s(%d)\n3:%s(%d)\n4:%s(%d)\n5:%s(%d)\n6:%s(%d)\n7:%s(%d)\n8:%s(%d)\n9:%s(%d)\n",A,ProcPerDepth[0],B,ProcPerDepth[1],C,ProcPerDepth[2],D,ProcPerDepth[3],E,ProcPerDepth[4],F,ProcPerDepth[5],G,ProcPerDepth[6],H,ProcPerDepth[7],I,ProcPerDepth[8],J,ProcPerDepth[9]); return len; }

    Read the article

  • iPhone reachability checking

    - by Sneakyness
    I've found several examples of code to do what I want (check for reachability), but none of it seems to be exact enough to be of use to me. I can't figure out why this doesn't want to play nice. I have the reachability.h/m in my project, I'm doing #import <SystemConfiguration/SystemConfiguration.h> And I have the framework added. I also have: #import "Reachability.h" at the top of the .m in which I'm trying to use the reachability. Reachability* reachability = [Reachability sharedReachability]; [reachability setHostName:@"http://www.google.com"]; // set your host name here NetworkStatus remoteHostStatus = [reachability remoteHostStatus]; if(remoteHostStatus == NotReachable) {NSLog(@"no");} else if (remoteHostStatus == ReachableViaWiFiNetwork) {NSLog(@"wifi"); } else if (remoteHostStatus == ReachableViaCarrierDataNetwork) {NSLog(@"cell"); } This is giving me all sorts of problems. What am I doing wrong? I'm an alright coder, I just have a hard time when it comes time to figure out what needs to be put where to enable what I want to do, regardless if I want to know what I want to do or not. (So frustrating) Update: This is what's going on. This is in my viewcontroller, which I have the #import <SystemConfiguration/SystemConfiguration.h> and #import "Reachability.h" set up with. This is my least favorite part of programming by far. FWIW, we never ended up implementing this in our code. The two features that required internet access (entering the sweepstakes, and buying the dvd), were not main features. Nothing else required internet access. Instead of adding more code, we just set the background of both internet views to a notice telling the users they must be connected to the internet to use this feature. It was in theme with the rest of the application's interface, and was done well/tastefully. They said nothing about it during the approval process, however we did get a personal phone call to verify that we were giving away items that actually pertained to the movie. According to their usually vague agreement, you aren't allowed to have sweepstakes otherwise. I would also think this adheres more strictly to their "only use things if you absolutely need them" ideaology as well. Here's the iTunes link to the application, EvoScanner.

    Read the article

  • PDF Report generation

    - by IniTech
    EDIT : I completed this project using ABCpdf. For anyone interested, I love this product and their support is A+. Everything I listed as a 'Con' for the HTML - PDF solution was easily doable in ABCpdf. I've been charged with creating a data driven pdf report. After reviewing the plethora of options, I have narrowed it down to 2. I need you all to to help me decide, or offer alternatives I haven't considered. Here are the requirements: 100% Data driven Eventually PDF (a stop in HTML is fine, so long as it is converted) Can be run with multiple sets of data (the layout is always the same, the data is variable) Contains normal analysis-style copy (saved in DB with html markup) Contains tables (data for tables is generated at run-time) Header/Page # on each page Table of Contents .NET (VB or C#) Done quickly Now, because of the fact that the report is going to be generated with multiple sets of data, I don't think a stamped pdf template will work since I won't know how long or how many pages a certain piece of the report could require. So, I think my best options are: Programmatic creation using an iText-like solution. Generate in HTML and convert to PDF using a third-party application (ABCPdf is the tool I have played with so far) Both solutions have their pro's and con's. Programmatic solution: Pros: Flexible Easy page numbering/page header/table of contents Free Cons: Time consuming (to write a layer on top of iText to do what I need and keep maintainable) Since the copy is already stored in the db with html markup, I would have to parse through the data before I place it into the pdf, ensuring I don't have to break the paragraph into chunks so I can apply bold, italic, underline, etc. to specific phrases. This seems like a huge PITA, and I hope I am wrong about that assumption. HTML - PDF Pros: Easy to generate from db (no parsing necessary) Many tools for conversion Uses technology I am already familiar with Built-in "Print Preview" - not a req, but nice Cons: (Edited after project completion. All of my assumptions were incorrect and ABCpdf is awesome) 1. Almost impossible to generate page headers - Not True 2. Very difficult to generate page numbers Not True 3. Nearly impossible to generate table of contents Not True 4. (Cross-browser support isn't a con; Since its internal, I can dictate what browser to use) 5. Conversion tool quirks - may not convert exactly as rendered in browser Not True 6. Overall, I think it would be very hard to format the HTML exactly as I would want it to appear/convert to PDF. Not True That's it - I need the communitys help in deciding which way I should go. I might be wrong about some of my Pro/Con assumptions. If I am, please tell me. All thoughts and suggestions are welcome and appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Complex SQL query with group by and two rows in one

    - by Ricket
    Okay, I need help. I'm usually pretty good at SQL queries but this one baffles me. By the way, this is not a homework assignment, it's a real situation in an Access database and I've written the requirements below myself. Here is my table layout. It's in Access 2007 if that matters; I'm writing the query using SQL. Id (primary key) PersonID (foreign key) EventDate NumberOfCredits SuperCredits (boolean) There are events that people go to. They can earn normal credits, or super credits, or both at one event. The SuperCredits column is true if the row represents a number of super credits earned at the event, or false if it represents normal credits. So for example, if there is an event which person 174 attends, and they earn 3 normal credits and 1 super credit at the event, the following two rows would be added to the table: ID PersonID EventDate NumberOfCredits SuperCredits 1 174 1/1/2010 3 false 2 174 1/1/2010 1 true It is also possible that the person could have done two separate things at the event, so there might be more than two columns for one event, and it might look like this: ID PersonID EventDate NumberOfCredits SuperCredits 1 174 1/1/2010 1 false 2 174 1/1/2010 2 false 3 174 1/1/2010 1 true Now we want to print out a report. Here will be the columns of the report: PersonID LastEventDate NumberOfNormalCredits NumberOfSuperCredits The report will have one row per person. The row will show the latest event that the person attended, and the normal and super credits that the person earned at that event. What I am asking of you is to write, or help me write, the SQL query to SELECT the data and GROUP BY and SUM() and whatnot. Or, let me know if this is for some reason not possible, and how to organize my data to make it possible. This is extremely confusing and I understand if you do not take the time to puzzle through it. I've tried to simplify it as much as possible, but definitely ask any questions if you give it a shot and need clarification. I'll be trying to figure it out but I'm having a real hard time with it, this is grouping beyond my experience...

    Read the article

  • Excel UDF calculation should return 'original' value

    - by LeChe
    Hi all, I've been struggling with a VBA problem for a while now and I'll try to explain it as thoroughly as possible. I have created a VSTO plugin with my own RTD implementation that I am calling from my Excel sheets. To avoid having to use the full-fledged RTD syntax in the cells, I have created a UDF that hides that API from the sheet. The RTD server I created can be enabled and disabled through a button in a custom Ribbon component. The behavior I want to achieve is as follows: If the server is disabled and a reference to my function is entered in a cell, I want the cell to display Disabled If the server is disabled, but the function had been entered in a cell when it was enabled (and the cell thus displays a value), I want the cell to keep displaying that value If the server is enabled, I want the cell to display Loading Sounds easy enough. Here is an example of the - non functional - code: Public Function RetrieveData(id as Long) Dim result as String // This returns either 'Disabled' or 'Loading' result = Application.Worksheet.Function.RTD("SERVERNAME", "", id) RetrieveData = result If(result = "Disabled") Then // Obviously, this recurses (and fails), so that's not an option If(Not IsEmpty(Application.Caller.Value2)) Then // So does this RetrieveData = Application.Caller.Value2 End If End If End Function The function will be called in thousands of cells, so storing the 'original' values in another data structure would be a major overhead and I would like to avoid it. Also, the RTD server does not know the values, since it also does not keep a history of it, more or less for the same reason. I was thinking that there might be some way to exit the function which would force it to not change the displayed value, but so far I have been unable to find anything like that. Any ideas on how to solve this are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Che EDIT: By popular demand, some additional info on why I want to do all this: As I said, the function will be called in thousands of cells and the RTD server needs to retrieve quite a bit of information. This can be quite hard on both network and CPU. To allow the user to decide for himself whether he wants this load on his machine, he or she can disable the updates from the server. In that case, he or she should still be able to calculate the sheets with the values currently in the fields, yet no updates are pushed into them. Once new data is required, the server can be enabled and the fields will be updated. Again, since we are talking about quite a bit of data here, I would rather not store it somewhere in the sheet. Plus, the data should be usable even if the workbook is closed and loaded again.

    Read the article

  • Extending Enums, Overkill?

    - by CkH
    I have an object that needs to be serialized to an EDI format. For this example we'll say it's a car. A car might not be the best example b/c options change over time, but for the real object the Enums will never change. I have many Enums like the following with custom attributes applied. public enum RoofStyle { [DisplayText("Glass Top")] [StringValue("GTR")] Glass, [DisplayText("Convertible Soft Top")] [StringValue("CST")] ConvertibleSoft, [DisplayText("Hard Top")] [StringValue("HT ")] HardTop, [DisplayText("Targa Top")] [StringValue("TT ")] Targa, } The Attributes are accessed via Extension methods: public static string GetStringValue(this Enum value) { // Get the type Type type = value.GetType(); // Get fieldinfo for this type FieldInfo fieldInfo = type.GetField(value.ToString()); // Get the stringvalue attributes StringValueAttribute[] attribs = fieldInfo.GetCustomAttributes( typeof(StringValueAttribute), false) as StringValueAttribute[]; // Return the first if there was a match. return attribs.Length > 0 ? attribs[0].StringValue : null; } public static string GetDisplayText(this Enum value) { // Get the type Type type = value.GetType(); // Get fieldinfo for this type FieldInfo fieldInfo = type.GetField(value.ToString()); // Get the DisplayText attributes DisplayTextAttribute[] attribs = fieldInfo.GetCustomAttributes( typeof(DisplayTextAttribute), false) as DisplayTextAttribute[]; // Return the first if there was a match. return attribs.Length > 0 ? attribs[0].DisplayText : value.ToString(); } There is a custom EDI serializer that serializes based on the StringValue attributes like so: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append(car.RoofStyle.GetStringValue()); sb.Append(car.TireSize.GetStringValue()); sb.Append(car.Model.GetStringValue()); ... There is another method that can get Enum Value from StringValue for Deserialization: car.RoofStyle = Enums.GetCode<RoofStyle>(EDIString.Substring(4, 3)) Defined as: public static class Enums { public static T GetCode<T>(string value) { foreach (object o in System.Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (((Enum)o).GetStringValue() == value.ToUpper()) return (T)o; } throw new ArgumentException("No code exists for type " + typeof(T).ToString() + " corresponding to value of " + value); } } And Finally, for the UI, the GetDisplayText() is used to show the user friendly text. What do you think? Overkill? Is there a better way? or Goldie Locks (just right)? Just want to get feedback before I intergrate it into my personal framework permanently. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

    - by Giffyguy
    I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

    Read the article

  • How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

    - by Luis Soeiro
    (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

    Read the article

  • Memory efficient int-int dict in Python

    - by Bolo
    Hi, I need a memory efficient int-int dict in Python that would support the following operations in O(log n) time: d[k] = v # replace if present v = d[k] # None or a negative number if not present I need to hold ~250M pairs, so it really has to be tight. Do you happen to know a suitable implementation (Python 2.7)? EDIT Removed impossible requirement and other nonsense. Thanks, Craig and Kylotan! To rephrase. Here's a trivial int-int dictionary with 1M pairs: >>> import random, sys >>> from guppy import hpy >>> h = hpy() >>> h.setrelheap() >>> d = {} >>> for _ in xrange(1000000): ... d[random.randint(0, sys.maxint)] = random.randint(0, sys.maxint) ... >>> h.heap() Partition of a set of 1999530 objects. Total size = 49161112 bytes. Index Count % Size % Cumulative % Kind (class / dict of class) 0 1 0 25165960 51 25165960 51 dict (no owner) 1 1999521 100 23994252 49 49160212 100 int On average, a pair of integers uses 49 bytes. Here's an array of 2M integers: >>> import array, random, sys >>> from guppy import hpy >>> h = hpy() >>> h.setrelheap() >>> a = array.array('i') >>> for _ in xrange(2000000): ... a.append(random.randint(0, sys.maxint)) ... >>> h.heap() Partition of a set of 14 objects. Total size = 8001108 bytes. Index Count % Size % Cumulative % Kind (class / dict of class) 0 1 7 8000028 100 8000028 100 array.array On average, a pair of integers uses 8 bytes. I accept that 8 bytes/pair in a dictionary is rather hard to achieve in general. Rephrased question: is there a memory-efficient implementation of int-int dictionary that uses considerably less than 49 bytes/pair?

    Read the article

  • idiomatic property changed notification in scala?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    I'm trying to find a cleaner alternative (that is idiomatic to Scala) to the kind of thing you see with data-binding in WPF/silverlight data-binding - that is, implementing INotifyPropertyChanged. First, some background: In .Net WPF or silverlight applications, you have the concept of two-way data-binding (that is, binding the value of some element of the UI to a .net property of the DataContext in such a way that changes to the UI element affect the property, and vise versa. One way to enable this is to implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in your DataContext. Unfortunately, this introduces a lot of boilerplate code for any property you add to the "ModelView" type. Here is how it might look in Scala: trait IDrawable extends INotifyPropertyChanged { protected var drawOrder : Int = 0 def DrawOrder : Int = drawOrder def DrawOrder_=(value : Int) { if(drawOrder != value) { drawOrder = value OnPropertyChanged("DrawOrder") } } protected var visible : Boolean = true def Visible : Boolean = visible def Visible_=(value: Boolean) = { if(visible != value) { visible = value OnPropertyChanged("Visible") } } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of INotifyPropertyChanged trait } } } For the sake of space, let's assume the INotifyPropertyChanged type is a trait that manages a list of callbacks of type (AnyRef, String) = Unit, and that OnPropertyChanged is a method that invokes all those callbacks, passing "this" as the AnyRef, and the passed-in String). This would just be an event in C#. You can immediately see the problem: that's a ton of boilerplate code for just two properties. I've always wanted to write something like this instead: trait IDrawable { val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of ObservableProperty class } } } I know that I can easily write it like this, if ObservableProperty[T] has Value/Value_= methods (this is the method I'm using now): trait IDrawable { // on a side note, is there some way to get a Symbol representing the Visible field // on the following line, instead of hard-coding it in the ObservableProperty // constructor? val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible.Value) { DrawOrder.Value += 1 } } } // given this implementation of ObservableProperty[T] in my library // note: IEvent, Event, and EventArgs are classes in my library for // handling lists of callbacks - they work similarly to events in C# class PropertyChangedEventArgs(val PropertyName: Symbol) extends EventArgs("") class ObservableProperty[T](val PropertyName: Symbol, private var value: T) { protected val propertyChanged = new Event[PropertyChangedEventArgs] def PropertyChanged: IEvent[PropertyChangedEventArgs] = propertyChanged def Value = value; def Value_=(value: T) { if(this.value != value) { this.value = value propertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) } } } But is there any way to implement the first version using implicits or some other feature/idiom of Scala to make ObservableProperty instances function as if they were regular "properties" in scala, without needing to call the Value methods? The only other thing I can think of is something like this, which is more verbose than either of the above two versions, but is still less verbose than the original: trait IDrawable { private val visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, false) def Visible = visible.Value def Visible_=(value: Boolean): Unit = { visible.Value = value } private val drawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def DrawOrder = drawOrder.Value def DrawOrder_=(value: Int): Unit = { drawOrder.Value = value } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 } } }

    Read the article

  • php pdo connection scope

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a connection class I found for pdo. I am calling the connection method on the page that the file is included on. The problem is that within functions the $conn variable is not defined even though I stated the method was public (bare with me I am very new to OOP), and I was wondering if anyone had an elegant solution other then using global in every function. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. CONNECTION class PDOConnectionFactory{ // receives the connection public $con = null; // swich database? public $dbType = "mysql"; // connection parameters // when it will not be necessary leaves blank only with the double quotations marks "" public $host = "localhost"; public $user = "user"; public $senha = "password"; public $db = "database"; // arrow the persistence of the connection public $persistent = false; // new PDOConnectionFactory( true ) <--- persistent connection // new PDOConnectionFactory() <--- no persistent connection public function PDOConnectionFactory( $persistent=false ){ // it verifies the persistence of the connection if( $persistent != false){ $this->persistent = true; } } public function getConnection(){ try{ // it carries through the connection $this->con = new PDO($this->dbType.":host=".$this->host.";dbname=".$this->db, $this->user, $this->senha, array( PDO::ATTR_PERSISTENT => $this->persistent ) ); // carried through successfully, it returns connected return $this->con; // in case that an error occurs, it returns the error; }catch ( PDOException $ex ){ echo "We are currently experiencing technical difficulties. We have a bunch of monkies working really hard to fix the problem. Check back soon: ".$ex->getMessage(); } } // close connection public function Close(){ if( $this->con != null ) $this->con = null; } } PAGE USED ON include("includes/connection.php"); $db = new PDOConnectionFactory(); $conn = $db->getConnection(); function test(){ try{ $sql = 'SELECT * FROM topic'; $stmt = $conn->prepare($sql); $result=$stmt->execute(); } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } } test();

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 - pydoc from cmd

    - by Random_Person
    Okay, I'm having one of those moments that makes me question my ability to use a computer. This is not the sort of question I imagined asking as my first SO post, but here goes. Started on Zed's new "Learn Python the Hard Way" since I've been looking to get back into programming after a 10 year hiatus and python was always what I wanted. This book has really spoken to me. That being said, I'm having a serious issue with pydoc from the command. I've got all the directories in c:/python26 in my system path and I can execute pydoc from the command line just fine regardless of pwd - but it accepts no arguments. Doesn't matter what I type, I just get the standard pydoc output telling me the acceptable arguments. Any ideas? For what it's worth, I installed ActivePython as per Zed's suggestion. C:\Users\Chevee>pydoc file pydoc - the Python documentation tool pydoc.py <name> ... Show text documentation on something. <name> may be the name of a Python keyword, topic, function, module, or package, or a dotted reference to a class or function within a module or module in a package. If <name> contains a '\', it is used as the path to a Python source file to document. If name is 'keywords', 'topics', or 'modules', a listing of these things is displayed. pydoc.py -k <keyword> Search for a keyword in the synopsis lines of all available modules. pydoc.py -p <port> Start an HTTP server on the given port on the local machine. pydoc.py -g Pop up a graphical interface for finding and serving documentation. pydoc.py -w <name> ... Write out the HTML documentation for a module to a file in the current directory. If <name> contains a '\', it is treated as a filename; if it names a directory, documentation is written for all the contents. C:\Users\Chevee> EDIT: New information, pydoc works just fine in PowerShell. As a linux user, I have no idea why I'm trying to use cmd anyways--but I'd still love to figure out what's up with pydoc and cmd. EDIT 2: More new information. In cmd... c:\>python c:/python26/lib/pydoc.py file ...works just fine. Everything works just fine with just pydoc in PowerShell without me worrying about pwd, or extensions or paths.

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

    Read the article

  • Designing a database file format

    - by RoliSoft
    I would like to design my own database engine for educational purposes, for the time being. Designing a binary file format is not hard nor the question, I've done it in the past, but while designing a database file format, I have come across a very important question: How to handle the deletion of an item? So far, I've thought of the following two options: Each item will have a "deleted" bit which is set to 1 upon deletion. Pro: relatively fast. Con: potentially sensitive data will remain in the file. 0x00 out the whole item upon deletion. Pro: potentially sensitive data will be removed from the file. Con: relatively slow. Recreating the whole database. Pro: no empty blocks which makes the follow-up question void. Con: it's a really good idea to overwrite the whole 4 GB database file because a user corrected a typo. I will sell this method to Twitter ASAP! Now let's say you already have a few empty blocks in your database (deleted items). The follow-up question is how to handle the insertion of a new item? Append the item to the end of the file. Pro: fastest possible. Con: file will get huge because of all the empty blocks that remain because deleted items aren't actually deleted. Search for an empty block exactly the size of the one you're inserting. Pro: may get rid of some blocks. Con: you may end up scanning the whole file at each insert only to find out it's very unlikely to come across a perfectly fitting empty block. Find the first empty block which is equal or larger than the item you're inserting. Pro: you probably won't end up scanning the whole file, as you will find an empty block somewhere mid-way; this will keep the file size relatively low. Con: there will still be lots of leftover 0x00 bytes at the end of items which were inserted into bigger empty blocks than they are. Rigth now, I think the first deletion method and the last insertion method are probably the "best" mix, but they would still have their own small issues. Alternatively, the first insertion method and scheduled full database recreation. (Probably not a good idea when working with really large databases. Also, each small update in that method will clone the whole item to the end of the file, thus accelerating file growth at a potentially insane rate.) Unless there is a way of deleting/inserting blocks from/to the middle of the file in a file-system approved way, what's the best way to do this? More importantly, how do databases currently used in production usually handle this?

    Read the article

  • Is there any alternative to obfuscation to make it harder to get any string in javascript?

    - by MarceloRamires
    I use DropBox and I've had some trouble reaching to my files from other computers: I not always want to login to anything when I'm in a public computer, but I like being able to reach my stuff from wherever I am. So I've made a simple little application that when put in the public folder, ran and given the right UID, creates (still in your public folder) an HTML of all the content in the folder (including subfolders) as a tree of links. But I didn't risk loading it anywhere, since there are slightly private things in there (yes, I know that the folder's name is "PUBLIC"). So I've came up with the idea to make it a simple login page, given the right password, the rest of the page should load. brilliant!, but how? If I did this by redirecting to other HTML on the same folder, I'd still put the html link in the web history and the "url's accessed" history of the administrator. So I should generate itin the same page. I've done it. And currently the page is a textbox and a button, and only if you type in the right password (asked by the generator) the rest of the page loads. The fault is that everything (password, URL's) is easily reachable through the sourcecode. Now, assuming I only want to avoid silly people to get it all too easily, not make a bulletproof all-content-holding NSA certified website, I though about some ways to make these informations a bit harder to get. As you may have already figured, I use a streamwritter to write a .HTM file (head, loop through links, bottom), then it's extremely configurable, and I can come up with a pretty messy-but-working c# code, though my javascript knowledge is not that good. Public links in DropBox look like this: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/3045472/img.png Summarizing: How do I hide stuff (MAINLY the password, of course) in my source-code so that no bumb-a-joe that can read, use a computer and press CTRL+U can reach to my stuff too easily ? PS.: It's not that personal, if someone REALLY wants it, it could never be 100% protected, and if it was that important, I wouldnt put it in the public folder, also, if the dude really wants to get it that hard, he should deserve it. PS2.: "Use the ultra-3000'tron obfuscator!!11" is not a real answer, since my javascript is GENERATED by my c# program. PS3.: I don't want other solutions as "use a serverside application and host it somewhere to redirect and bla bla" or "compress the links in a .RAR file and put a password in it" since I'm doing this ALSO to learn, and I want the thrill of it =)

    Read the article

  • Looking for Fiddler2 help. connection to gateway refused? Just got rid of a virus

    - by John Mackey
    I use Fiddler2 for facebook game items, and it's been a great success. I accessed a website to download some dat files I needed. I think it was eshare, ziddu or megaupload, one of those. Anyway, even before the rar file had downloaded, I got this weird green shield in the bottom right hand corner of my computer. It said a Trojan was trying to access my computer, or something to that extent. It prompted me to click the shield to begin anti-virus scanning. It turns out this rogue program is called Antivirus System Pro and is pretty hard to get rid of. After discovering the rogue program, I tried using Fiddler and got the following error: [Fiddler] Connection to Gateway failed.Exception Text: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:5555 I ended up purchasing SpyDoctor + Antivirus, which I'm told is designed specifically for getting rid of these types of programs. Anyway, I did a quick-scan last night with spydoctor and malware bytes. Malware picked up 2 files, and Spydoctor found 4. Most were insignificant, but it did find a worm called Worm.Alcra.F, which was labeled high-priority. I don’t know if that’s the Anti-Virus Pro or not, but SpyDoctor said it got rid of all of those successfully. I tried to run Fiddler again before leaving home, but was still getting the "gateway failed" error. Im using the newest version of firefox. When I initially set up the Fiddler 2.2.8.6, I couldn’t get it to run at first, so I found this faq on the internet that said I needed to go through ToolsOptionsSettings and set up an HTTP Proxy to 127.0.0.1 and my Port to 8888. Once I set that up and downloaded this fiddler helper as a firefox add-on, it worked fine. When I turn on fiddler, it automatically takes my proxy setting from no proxy (default) to the 127.0.0.1 with Port 8888 set up. It worked fine until my computer detected this virus. Anyway, hopefully I've given you sufficient information to offer me your best advice here. Like I said, Spydoctor says the bad stuff is gone, so maybe the rogue program made some type of change in my fiddler that I could just reset or uncheck or something like that? Or will I need to completely remove fiddler and those dat files and rar files I downloaded? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Dependency Injection: I don't get where to start!

    - by Andy
    I have several articles about Dependency Injection, and I can see the benefits, especially when it comes to unit testing. The units can me loosely coupled, and mocking of dependencies can be made. The trouble is - I just don't get where to start. Consider this snippet below of (much edited for the purpose of this post) code that I have. I am instantiating a Plc object from the main form, and passing in a communications mode via the Connect method. In it's present form it becomes hard to test, because I can't isolate the Plc from the CommsChannel to unit test it. (Can I?) The class depends on using a CommsChannel object, but I am only passing in a mode that is used to create this channel within the Plc itself. To use dependancy injection, I should really pass in an already created CommsChannel (via an 'ICommsChannel' interface perhaps) to the Connect method, or maybe via the Plc constructor. Is that right? But then that would mean creating the CommsChannel in my main form first, and this doesn't seem right either, because it feels like everything will come back to the base layer of the main form, where everything begins. Somehow it feels like I am missing a crucial piece of the puzzle. Where do you start? You have to create an instance of something somewhere, but I'm struggling to understand where that should be. public class Plc() { public bool Connect(CommsMode commsMode) { bool success = false; // Create new comms channel. this._commsChannel = this.GetCommsChannel(commsMode); // Attempt connection success = this._commsChannel.Connect(); return this._connected; } private CommsChannel GetCommsChannel(CommsMode mode) { CommsChannel channel; switch (mode) { case CommsMode.RS232: channel = new SerialCommsChannel( SerialCommsSettings.Default.ComPort, SerialCommsSettings.Default.BaudRate, SerialCommsSettings.Default.DataBits, SerialCommsSettings.Default.Parity, SerialCommsSettings.Default.StopBits); break; case CommsMode.Tcp: channel = new TcpCommsChannel( TCPCommsSettings.Default.IP_Address, TCPCommsSettings.Default.Port); break; default: // Throw unknown comms channel exception. } return channel; } }

    Read the article

  • 3 embedded UIScrollView problem

    - by Infinity
    Hello guys! I have 3 UIScrollView. Here is a sample code, about how they are added in eachother: UIScrollView main; UIScrollView page1; UIScrollView page2; UIScrollView doublePage; UIView pageContent1; UIView pageContent2; UIView doublePageContent; int nrPages = 1; sw2 = 0; main = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 768, 980)]; main.contentSize = CGSizeMake(768 * (nrPages - 1 + sw2), 980); page1.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 768, 980); page2.frame = CGRectMake(768, 0, 768, 980); pageNumber = i - 1 + sw2; (i is a variable in a for loop) doublePage.frame = CGRectMake(768 * (pageNumber - 1), 0, 768 * 2, 980); CGFloat contentWidth = [page1 bounds].size.width + [page2 bounds].size.width; CGFloat contentHeight = page1 ? self.page1.bounds.size.height : self.page2.bounds.size.height; doublePageContent = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, contentWidth, contentHeight)]; [page1 addSubview:pageContent1]; [page2 addSubview:pageContent2]; [doublePageContent addSubview:page1]; [doublePageContent addSubview:page2]; [doublePage addSubview:doublePageContent]; [main addSubview:doublepage]; And with this structure the main scrollview don't want to scroll. Without the doublepage scrollview it is working good. What do you think? What's the problem? I know this structure is a little weird, but I need this structure because other parts of the code. Edited, added the information about the sizes. If you need something more please tell me. And one more thing.. If I add 1 pixel to the width of the doublePage contentSize.width it scrolls, but a bit hard, so it scrolls first in the doublePage and then in the main.

    Read the article

  • show-hide image onmouseover

    - by butters
    I have 3 images on top of each other. The first one is a normal .jpg image, the second a greyscale version and the 3rd is some kind of effect i add with a transparent .png Now what i want is that, if i move the mouse over those images, the greyscale image is hidden or replaced by another image and afterwards visible again. The problem here is that i am a js noob, so it's kind of hard for me to find a solution ^^ my code looks something like this: <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> <!-- ul li{ display: inline-table; } .frame{ position: relative; height: 110px; width: 110px; } .frame div{ position: absolute; top:0px; left:0px; } .effect{ background:url(images/effect.png) no-repeat; height:110px; width: 110px; } .image{ height:100px; width:100px; border: 1px solid red; margin:4px; } .greyscale{ height:100px; width:100px; border: 1px solid red; margin:4px; } --> </style> </head> <body> <ul> <li> <div class="frame"> <div class="image"><img src="images/pic1.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="greyscale"><img src="images/grey1.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="effect">qwert</div> </div> </li> <li> <div class="frame"> <div class="image"><img src="images/pic2.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="greyscale"><img src="images/grey2.jpg" height="100" width="100"></div> <div class="effect">qewrt</div> </div> </li> </ul> </body> </html> </code></pre> would be super-awesome if someone can help me out :)

    Read the article

  • Advanced SQL query with lots of joins

    - by lund.mikkel
    Hey fellow programmers Okay, first let me say that this is a hard one. I know the presentation may be a little long. But I how you'll bare with me and help me through anyway :D So I'm developing on an advanced search for bicycles. I've got a lot of tables I need to join to find all, let's say, red and brown bikes. One bike may come in more then one color! I've made this query for now: SELECT DISTINCT p.products_id, #simple product id products_name, #product name products_attributes_id, #color id pov.products_options_values_name #color name FROM products p LEFT JOIN products_description pd ON p.products_id = pd.products_id INNER JOIN products_attributes pa ON pa.products_id = p.products_id LEFT JOIN products_options_values pov ON pov.products_options_values_id = pa.options_values_id LEFT JOIN products_options_search pos ON pov.products_options_values_id = pos.products_options_values_id WHERE pos.products_options_search_id = 4 #code for red OR pos.products_options_search_id = 5 #code for brown My first concern is the many joins. The Products table mainly holds product id and it's image and the Products Description table holds more descriptive info such as name (and product ID of course). I then have the Products Options Values table which holds all the colors and their IDs. Products Options Search is containing the color IDs along with a color group ID (products_options_search_id). Red has the color group code 4 (brown is 5). The products and colors have a many-to-many relationship managed inside Products Attributes. So my question is first of all: Is it okay to make so many joins? Is i hurting the performance? Second: If a bike comes in both red and brown, it'll show up twice even though I use SELECT DISTINCT. Think this is because of the INNER JOIN. Is this possible to avoid and do I have to remove the doubles in my PHP code? Third: Bikes can be double colored (i.e. black and blue). This means that there are two rows for that bike. One where it says the color is black and one where is says its blue. (See second question). But if I replace the OR in the WHERE clause it removes both rows, because none of them fulfill the conditions - only the product. What is the workaround for that? I really hope you will and can help me. I'm a little desperate right now :D Regards Mikkel Lund

    Read the article

  • SVN: Branches for Every Little Change?

    - by yar
    Hi. We have a client (who has a client, who has a client) who is driving us mad with change requests to a code base (in PHP). Our first response was to just work in a main trunk in SVN, but the client often comes back and requests that a certain change needs to get pushed to the live servers ASAP. On the other hand, other changes get reduced in priority suddenly, which originally came grouped with other changes (seemingly). We are thinking of using a branch for every change request. Is this mad? What other solutions might work? Thanks! Edit: This is a really hard question to choose the correct answer for. Thanks to everybody for your great answers. Edit: I know that the best answer I chose was not particularly popular. I too wanted to find a technical solution to this problem. But now I think that if the client wants software with features that can be deployed in a modular fashion... this problem should not be solved in our use of the version control system. It would have to be designed into the software. Edit: Now it's almost a month later and my coworker/client has convinced me that multiple branches is the way to go. This is not just due to the client's insanity, but also based on our need to be able to determine if a feature is "ready to go" or "needs more work" or whatever. I don't have the SVN with me, but we merge using the advice from the SVN Cookbook: you merge the branch from the revision it was branched to the head revision. Also, using this system, we merge all branches at some point and that becomes the new QA and then live build. Then we branch from that. Last Edit (Perhaps): Months later, this system is still working out for us. We create branches for every ticket and rarely have problems. On the other hand, we do try to keep things separate as far as what people are working on... Two Years Later: We use GIT now, and now this system is actually quite reasonable.

    Read the article

  • Dealing with personal failure

    - by codeelegance
    A while ago I was given the task of updating and extending the functionality of a software project. I was given a year to make the needed changes working solo. A month into development I came to the conclusion that it would take longer to change the existing product than to rewrite it from the ground up. I'd never attempted a complete rewrite so I talked with my boss about it and he was thrilled with the idea. I'm a fan of agile development but had never had the opportunity to take advantage of all of the prescribed practices so when I set to work I tried to incorporate as many as I could. I didn't have direct access to the customer and my coworkers (non-programmers) knew the business domain but were already so busy they didn't really have time to participate in design meetings so I resigned to working in the dark and occasionally calling one of them over to my desk to get feedback on my progress. I used TDD and refactored mercilessly and even tried taking a domain driven design approach. Things went well for a while. As the deadline came closer and the complexity of the project grew my productivity start slipping. I found myself cutting corners and ignoring the practices I had established as the pressure increased to meet the deadline. I also started working late nights and weekends to keep up with the load. In the end it made little difference how hard I worked. The project missed its deadline and what was completed wasn't enough to give to the customer. I had failed. Not only had I not finished on time but the previous version had sat untouched for almost a year so it wouldn't be of any help. Luckily we had another product that offered some of the same functionality. My boss decided to cancel the project entirely and moved all our orphaned customers to the other product. I spent weeks (along with everyone else at the company) manning the phones providing technical support for those customers. After it was all over, my boss was gracious enough not to fire me for nearly ruining the company. I was moved to the other product and have been trying to redeem myself ever since. Where did I go wrong? Has anyone else had to deal with this kind of defeat? How did you recover?

    Read the article

  • log4net initialisation

    - by Ruben Bartelink
    I've looked hard for duplicates but have to ask the following, no matter how basic it may seem, to get it clear once and for all! In a fresh Console app using log4net version 1.2.10.0 on VS28KSP1 on 64 bit W7, I have the following code:- using log4net; using log4net.Config; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static readonly ILog _log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); static void Main(string[] args) { _log.Info("Ran"); } } } In my app.config, I have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="Program.log" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="[%username] %date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> </configuration> This doesnt write anything, unless I either add an attribute: [ assembly:XmlConfigurator ] Or explicitly initialise it in Main(): _log.Info("This will not go to the log"); XmlConfigurator.Configure(); _log.Info("Ran"); This raises the following questions: I'm almost certain I've seen it working somewhere on some version of log4net without the addition of the assembly attribute or call in Main. Can someone assure me I'm not imagining that? Can someone please point me to where in the doc it explicitly states that both the config section and the initialisation hook are required - hopefully with an explanation of when this changed, if it did? I can easily imagine why this might be the policy -- having the initialisation step explicit to avoid surprises etc., it's just that I seem to recall this not always being the case... (And normally I have the config in a separate file, which generally takes configsections out of the picture)

    Read the article

  • Make Div overlay ENTIRE page (not just viewport)??

    - by Polaris878
    Hello, So I have a problem that I think is quite common but I have yet to find a good solution for. I want to make an overlay div cover the ENTIRE page... NOT just the viewport. I don't understand why this is so hard to do... I've tried setting body, html heights to 100% etc but that isn't working. Here is what I have so far: <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> .OverLay { position: absolute; z-index: 3; opacity: 0.5; filter: alpha(opacity = 50); top: 0; bottom: 0; left: 0; right: 0; width: 100%; height: 100%; background-color: Black; color: White;} body { height: 100%; } html { height: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div style="height: 100%; width: 100%; position: relative;"> <div style="height: 100px; width: 300px; background-color: Red;"> </div> <div style="height: 230px; width: 9000px; background-color: Green;"> </div> <div style="height: 900px; width: 200px; background-color: Blue;"></div> <div class="OverLay">TestTest!</div> </div> </body> </html> I'd also be open to a solution in JavaScript if one exists, but I'd much rather just be using some simple CSS.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491  | Next Page >