Search Results

Search found 33716 results on 1349 pages for 'smtp access'.

Page 484/1349 | < Previous Page | 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491  | Next Page >

  • System.ComponentModel.Component in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Mark A Johnson
    I'm maintaining a .Net 2.0 application using Visual Studio 2008. When the application was built, it was originally in Visual Studio 2003 and made use of the System.ComponentModel.Component class for data access. You can drag and drop commands, connections, etc onto the designer surface of the component. In 2008, the data access classes don't "stick" to the component. I.e., the code for the command does not get generated in the class. when did this change? 2005? is there a replacement for this behavior, perhaps using the db pro edition? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Manipulating pixels using only toDataURL

    - by Chris
    The problem I have is this: I need to be able to dynamically tint an image using Javascript, but I cannot access pixel data via the canvas. I can, however, store the dataURL (or any other text-based data format) and include that with the code, manipulate that data, and then create an image object using that dataURL. My question is, how can I access the RGBA value of each pixel, given only the dataURL. I assume I need to decode the base64 url, but into what format in order to manipulate on the pixel level? And then would be it be as trivial as re-encoding it as base64, slapping it in a url, and the passing to an image? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Do jQuery and JavaScript have different namespaces?

    - by Brett
    I have this code in jQuery.. $(document).ready(function(){ var fieldCounter = 0; ... I have a jQuery function that increments this value. This works, but I can't access this value on the page from a non-jQuery function? The reverse is also true, if I scope it in JavaScript e.g. <script type="text/javascript"> var fieldCounter = 0; I can access it from javascript but jQuery can't view it? I'm probably doing something really dumb?

    Read the article

  • How to call Ajax to run a PHP file while maintaining PHP & Javascript variables.

    - by Umar
    Hi Stackoverflowers. I'm using the Facebook php-sdk to get the users name and friends, right now the loading friends part takes about +3 seconds so I wanted to do it via Ajax, e.g. so the document can load and jQuery then calls an external PHP script which loads the friends (their names and their profile pictures). So to do this I did: $(document).ready(function() { var loadUrl = "http://localhost/fb/getFriends.php" ; $("#friends") .html("Hold on, your friends are loading!") .load(loadUrl); }); But I get a PHP error: Fatal error: Call to a member function api() on a non-object If I do this in the same PHP file (so I don't use Ajax at all to call it) it works fine. Now I think I understand the reason this is happening, but I don't know how to fix it. In my main index.php file I have a bunch of init and session code e.g. FB.init({ appId : '<?php echo $facebook->getAppId(); ?>', session : <?php echo json_encode($session); ?>, // don't refetch the session when PHP already has it status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); So I'm just wondering what is the best way to treat my new separate PHP file getFriends.php in a way where it has access to all PHP/JavaScript session data/variables? If you haven't used the Facebook php-sdk I'll quickly explain what I mean: Lets say I have index.php and getUsername.php, from index.php I want to retrieve the getUsername.php file via Ajax using .load. Now the problem is getUsername.php needs to access PHP session data/Javascript Init functions which were created in index.php, so I'm thinking of ways to solve this (I'm new to PHP so sorry if this sounds silly) but I'm thinking maybe I could do a POST in jQuery Ajax and post the session data? Or maybe I could create a PHP class, so something like: class getUsername extends index{} /*Yes I'm a newbie*/ If you have a look at the php-sdk example.php link posted at the top maybe you'd better understand what variables exactly need to be accessed from a new file. Also on a different note, I'm using PHP to work out page rendering times and it seems that fetching the users name alone : // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } Can take a good 4 seconds, is this normal? Once I get the users details is it good to cache it or something? -Speed isn't as important right now, for now I'm just trying to figure out this Ajax-separating php files thing. Woah this is a long post. Thanks very much for your time.

    Read the article

  • WPF: How to get Binding.Converter

    - by Nike
    I create DataGrid Columns with Binding (where i is a Int value): dataGrid.Columns.Add(new DataGridTextColumn { Header = i.ToString(), Binding = CreateBinding(i), }); private Binding CreateBinding(int num) { Binding bind = new Binding(string.Format("[{0}]", num)); bind.Converter = new CellValueConverter(); return bind; } In the CreateBinding method I have an access to bind.Converter property. I need to call Converter.Convert() method in some handler, but there is no Converter property when I try to access it: (dataGrid.Columns[clm] as DataGridTextColumn).Binding."no Converter property!" How can I get my CellValueConverter which was created for particular Column?

    Read the article

  • Accessing protected REST endpoint with JQuery

    - by Andy
    I have a site where members login to their account (FormsAuth). I would like to set up a RESTful service that I can access using jQuery. I would like to protect these services using the same FormsAuth. How would a third-party site be able to access these services? They would need to pass in the Principal/Identity to the service, right? I've only seen examples of Basic Authentication (which Twitter uses and jQuery supports). I'm very new to WCT/REST, so not sure how this should be done.

    Read the article

  • Silence output from SimpleXMLRPCServer

    - by Corey Goldberg
    I am running an xml-rpc server using SimpleXMLRPCServer from the stdlib. My code looks something like this: import SimpleXMLRPCServer import socket class RemoteStarter: def start(self): return 'foo' rs = RemoteStarter() host = socket.gethostbyaddr(socket.gethostname())[0] port = 9000 server = SimpleXMLRPCServer.SimpleXMLRPCServer((host, port)) server.register_instance(rs) server.serve_forever() every time the 'start' method gets called remotely, the server prints an access line like this: <server_name> - - [10/Mar/2010 13:06:20] "POST /RPC2 HTTP/1.0" 200 - I can't figure out a way to silence the output so it doesn't print these access lines to stdout. anyone?

    Read the article

  • xslt test if a variable value is contained in a node set

    - by Aamir
    I have the following two files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <!-- D E F A U L T H O S P I T A L P O L I C Y --> <xas DefaultPolicy="open" DefaultSubjectsFile="subjects.xss"> <rule id="R1" access="deny" object="record" subject="roles/*[name()!='Staff']"/> <rule id="R2" access="deny" object="diagnosis" subject="roles//Nurse"/> <rule id="R3" access="grant" object="record[@id=$user]" subject="roles/member[@id=$user]"/> </xas> and the other xml file called subjects.xss is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <subjects> <users> <member id="dupont" password="4A-4E-E9-17-5D-CE-2C-DD-43-43-1D-F1-3F-5D-94-71"> <name>Pierre Dupont</name> </member> <member id="durand" password="3A-B6-1B-E8-C0-1F-CD-34-DF-C4-5E-BA-02-3C-04-61"> <name>Jacqueline Durand</name> </member> </users> <roles> <Staff> <Doctor> <member idref="dupont"/> </Doctor> <Nurse> <member idref="durand"/> </Nurse> </Staff> </roles> </subjects> I am writing an xsl sheet which will read the subject value for each rule in policy.xas and if the currently logged in user (accessible as variable "user" in the stylesheet) is contained in that subject value (say roles//Nurse), then do something. I am not being able to test whether the currently logged in user ($user which is equal to say "durand") is contained in roles//Nurse in the subjects file (which is a different xml file). Hope that clarifies my question. Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Unable to browse to apache service, Service is running

    - by Jeff
    Summary I have a very peculiar problem. I am not able to open the "It Works!" page after installing a fresh server with apache. I am able to ssh to the box (from outside the network). Apache seems to be running on my Centos6.4x86_64 box just fine. Nothing useful in /var/logs/httpd/*. What am I missing? The setup I am outside the network right now. The "server" is a VM on my home computer running bridged mode. public ip: A.B.C.D Host: 192.168.1.5 VM: 192.168.1.8 I have a verizon fios router that is forwarding ports 22, 80, and 8888 to the VM. I am able to ssh over port 22, but I am not able to browse to the public URL over port 80. so A.B.C.D:22 is working, but http://A.B.C.D:80 is not. What I've tried nmap to see if it is listening: nmap -sT -O localhost Starting Nmap 5.51 ( http://nmap.org ) at 2013-10-25 11:10 EDT Nmap scan report for localhost (127.0.0.1) Host is up (0.000040s latency). Other addresses for localhost (not scanned): 127.0.0.1 Not shown: 996 closed ports PORT STATE SERVICE 22/tcp open ssh 25/tcp open smtp 80/tcp open http 3306/tcp open mysql I tried going to it locally (lynx) and it does work. So, is the problem in my ports?

    Read the article

  • C++ Template Classes Circular Dependency Problem

    - by TomWij
    We have two classes: template<typename T, typename Size, typename Stack, typename Sparse> class Matrix and template<typename T, typename Size> class Iterator Matrix should be able to return begin and end iterators and Iterator will keep a referrence to the Matrix to access the elements via it's interface. We don't want Iterator to depend on the internal storage of the Matrix to prevent coupling. How can we solve this cyclic dependency problem? (The internal Storage class has the same template parameters as the Matrix class and the same access procedures as the Matrix itself)

    Read the article

  • How can I load static configuration information

    - by Goro
    In my code, I use JavaScript for UI and PHP for back end. I also use PHP to store application settings and sometimes my UI code needs to access this information. My configuration file looks something like this (config.php): $resolution_x = 1920; $resolution_y = 1080; etc... When I need to access any of these settings form JavaScript, i simply use <?php echo ... ?> to substitute the value directly, but it just doesn't strike me as very robust. Are they any dangers of doing this that I am not aware of? Is there a better way of doing this? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • Can I connect to SQL Server using Windows Authentication from Java EE webapp?

    - by KG
    I am currently investigating how to make a connection to a SQL Server database from my Java EE web application using Windows Authentication instead of SQL Server authentication. I am running this app off of Tomcat 6.0, and am utilizing the Microsoft JDBC driver. My connection properties file looks as follows: dbDriver = com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver dbUser = user dbPass = password dbServer = localhost:1433;databaseName=testDb dbUrl = jdbc:sqlserver://localhost:1433 I have zero problems with connecting to a SQL Server database in this fashion when using SQL Server authentication. Is there any way I can retrieve the credentials of the user's Windows Authentication and use that authentication for SQL Server? UPDATE: I know in ASP.net there is a way to set up Windows Authentication for access to the webapp, which is exactly what I am looking for, except I want to pass that token off to SQL Server for access to the database.

    Read the article

  • Simplest solution to replace a tiny file inside an MSI?

    - by sascha
    Many of our customers have access to InstallShield, WISE or AdminStudio. These aren't a problem. I'm hoping there is some way I can provide our smaller customers without access to commercial repackaging tools a freely available set of tools and steps to do the file replacement themselves. Only need to replace a single configuration file inside a compressed MSI, the target user can be assumed to already have Orca installed, know how to use this to customize the Property table (to embed license details for GPO deployment) and have generated an MST file. Disclaimer: this is very similar to another question but both questions and answers in that thread are not clear.

    Read the article

  • Trouble with backslash characters and rsyslog writing to postgres

    - by Flimzy
    I have rsyslog 4.6.4 configured to write mail logs to a PostgreSQL database. It all works fine, until the log message contains a backslash, as in this example: Jun 12 11:37:46 dc5 postfix/smtp[26475]: Vk0nYDKdH3sI: to=<[email protected], relay=----.---[---.---.---.---]:25, delay=1.5, delays=0.77/0.07/0.3/0.35, dsn=4.3.0, status=deferred (host ----.---[199.85.216.241] said: 451 4.3.0 Error writing to file d:\pmta\spool\B\00000414, status = ERROR_DISK_FULL in "DATA" (in reply to end of DATA command)) The above is the log entry, as written to /var/log/mail.log. It is correct. The trouble is that the backslash characters in the file name are interpreted as escapes when sent to the following SQL recipe: $template dcdb, "SELECT rsyslog_insert(('%timereported:::date-rfc3339%'::TIMESTAMPTZ)::TIMESTAMP,'%msg:::escape-cc%'::TEXT,'%syslogtag%'::VARCHAR)",STDSQL :syslogtag, startswith, "postfix" :ompgsql:/var/run/postgresql,dc,root,;dcdb As a result, the rsyslog_insert() stored procedure gets the following value for as msg: Vk0nYDKdH3sI: to=<[email protected], relay=----.---[---.---.---.---]:25, delay=1.5, delays=0.77/0.07/0.3/0.35, dsn=4.3.0, status=deferred (host ----.---[199.85.216.241] said: 451 4.3.0 Error writing to file d:pmtaspoolB The \p, \s, \B and \0 in the file name are interpreted by PostgreSQL as literal p, s, and B followed by a NULL character, thus early-terminating the string. This behavior can be easiily confirmed with: dc=# SELECT 'd:\pmta\spool\B\00000414'; ?column? -------------- d:pmtaspoolB (1 row) dc=# Is there a way to correct this problem? Is there a way I'm not finding in the rsyslog docs to turn \ into \\?

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP result set - ultimate confusion!

    - by Paul
    Consider a simple result set from a mysql query. rs("description") and rs("description").Value should be considered as the same thing. However, depending on how you access them, you get different results (!!) Access rs("description") directly and you are returned a "Field" object. Or, more importantly, use it directly in a call, and you are returned a "Field" object. mydescription = rs("description") + " is the description" Assign it to another variable, and the Value of that object is assigned... mydescription = rs("description") the contents of "mydescription" is a string. Why this difference? At one point in the life of ASP they must have both worked exactly the same, so why have they changed, and how can I change it back?

    Read the article

  • DKIM- Filter No Signature Data

    - by Vineet Sharma
    I have installed DKIM-Filter on Postfix after reading this tutorial http://www.unibia.com/unibianet/systems-networking/how-setup-domainkeys-identified-mail-dkim-postfix-and-ubuntu-server My email now has a DKIM signature but still it is landing in the SPAM folder. Here is the header Received-SPF: neutral (google.com: 69.164.193.167 is neither permitted nor denied by best guess record for domain of [email protected]) client-ip=69.164.193.167; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=neutral (google.com: 69.164.193.167 is neither permitted nor denied by best guess record for domain of [email protected]) smtp[email protected]; dkim=hardfail (test mode) [email protected] Received: from promote.a2labs.in (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by promote.a2labs.in (Postfix) with ESMTPA id 34858530E8 for <[email protected]>; Mon, 28 Feb 2011 12:23:07 +0530 (IST) DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; c=simple/simple; d=a2labs.in; s=mail; t=1298875987; bh=bo+H1VYPIHMja2u7i1lnzr4k/j4Pe8iSf79bVw94XpI=; h=To:Subject:Message-ID:Date:From:Reply-To:MIME-Version: Content-Type:Content-Transfer-Encoding; b=nhTdlnUwo0iUJ92ycQzKSRjw 5Pfya0DJcJrAc8Mr2hIv8OLpgzBCzdOMWTGqR5nuUmAzgCGYBhYAM2XZwVxo9JG/iz7 oYKysmNQnskFx0TRyW3UOkDWcfHcPnCL6Y7fGzZWinmsyjsg47k+mKZg/e8jqlwTAMO PYKkt5pBz7SM0= Also my mail.err file shows Feb 28 12:17:03 ivineet dkim-filter[32181]: 1F788530E1: no signature data Feb 28 12:18:02 ivineet dkim-filter[32181]: 432BA530E2: no signature data How to fix it

    Read the article

  • Authenticated Referrals & Server-Side Auth Flow - What is the redirect_uri?

    - by Brian P. Hamachek
    From an authenticated referral (such as from a timeline story) to my website, I am trying to use the server-side authentication flow to obtain an access token for the referred user. I need to pass my app secret, the auth code, and the original redirect URI to the Facebook access token endpoint. Since I did not initiate the authentication request, how do I determine the original redirect_uri? The link from the Facebook timeline looks like: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?app_id=153644678059870&method=permissions.request&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.wnmlive.com%2Fpost%2F141833948%3Ffb_action_ids%3D10100708033267487%26fb_action_types%3Dwnm-live%253Acomment%26fb_source%3Drecent_activity&response_type=code&display=page&auth_referral=1 So I figure that the redirect URI I need to pass is: http%3A%2F%2Fwww.wnmlive.com%2Fpost%2F141833948%3Ffb_action_ids%3D10100708033267487%26fb_action_types%3Dwnm-live%253Acomment%26fb_source%3Drecent_activity The URI that the user is ultimately redirected to is: http://www.wnmlive.com/post/141833948?fb_action_ids=10100708032119787&fb_action_types=wnm-live%3Apost&fb_source=recent_activity&code=AQALK-Mwb_Nwi4z7FWnFaL6tEXvNtVJiRKrgarG9X73sp22TJyk8v2GWKtuXuevJk4hPSRNnuNpEgZXLFdOS_k-pY-mE15DYytIa8Y7VdSw3VL-XYi-CR9BCqRQGq4uBJvSSdZayCp6MWzDMaNqWd5r8OhKVnOhg_yDlvfoLl21N2SMwkJaOfD5mlPnPb5A-Q4A#_=_ Is it safe to assume that I can just chop off everything starting with the "&code=" and use that as the redirect URI?

    Read the article

  • Constructor Injection and when to use a Service Locator

    - by Simon
    I'm struggling to understand parts of StructureMap's usage. In particular, in the documentation a statement is made regarding a common anti-pattern, the use of StructureMap as a Service Locator only instead of constructor injection (code samples straight from Structuremap documentation): public ShippingScreenPresenter() { _service = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IShippingService>(); _repository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRepository>(); } instead of: public ShippingScreenPresenter(IShippingService service, IRepository repository) { _service = service; _repository = repository; } This is fine for a very short object graph, but when dealing with objects many levels deep, does this imply that you should pass down all the dependencies required by the deeper objects right from the top? Surely this breaks encapsulation and exposes too much information about the implementation of deeper objects. Let's say I'm using the Active Record pattern, so my record needs access to a data repository to be able to save and load itself. If this record is loaded inside an object, does that object call ObjectFactory.CreateInstance() and pass it into the active record's constructor? What if that object is inside another object. Does it take the IRepository in as its own parameter from further up? That would expose to the parent object the fact that we're access the data repository at this point, something the outer object probably shouldn't know. public class OuterClass { public OuterClass(IRepository repository) { // Why should I know that ThingThatNeedsRecord needs a repository? // that smells like exposed implementation to me, especially since // ThingThatNeedsRecord doesn't use the repo itself, but passes it // to the record. // Also where do I create repository? Have to instantiate it somewhere // up the chain of objects ThingThatNeedsRecord thing = new ThingThatNeedsRecord(repository); thing.GetAnswer("question"); } } public class ThingThatNeedsRecord { public ThingThatNeedsRecord(IRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public string GetAnswer(string someParam) { // create activeRecord(s) and process, returning some result // part of which contains: ActiveRecord record = new ActiveRecord(repository, key); } private IRepository repository; } public class ActiveRecord { public ActiveRecord(IRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActiveRecord(IRepository repository, int primaryKey); { this.repositry = repository; Load(primaryKey); } public void Save(); private void Load(int primaryKey) { this.primaryKey = primaryKey; // access the database via the repository and set someData } private IRepository repository; private int primaryKey; private string someData; } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Simon

    Read the article

  • Outlook certificate error and separate send/receive error

    - by Richard
    I run a laptop with Vista 32bit and MS Office 2010. Outlook has two profiles, both configured as POP3/SMTP and neither go through an exchange server. Recently, one of the mail servers (hosted with easily) was getting full, so I changed the profile setting to delete from the server if mails are older than 60 days. Suddenly, I am now experiencing a couple of glitches. The first is that I get a certificate error when outlook tries it's first send/receive under the relevant profile - "The server you are connected to is using a security certificate that cannot be verified" This continues despite apparently successfully re-importing the certificate. The second glitch is that I get a "Sending reported error (0x8004010F): 'Outlook data file cannot be accessed'" error on send receive. Strangely, it seems to be trying to send/receive twice - once to 'mail@domain', which works, and the second to 'domain' which doesn't. I've tried deleting the profile and re-creating it, pointing to the original .pst file, but still get both errors. Does anybody know how I can resolve these errors? (As a by note, and not that important, more for curiosity, does anybody know why simply changing the delete from server setting against that profile would cause these issues?)

    Read the article

  • Bypassing SQUID on freebsd with PF

    - by epema
    I have PF+SQUID31 on FREEBSD-9.0, and I want to have some hosts(aka goodguys) to bypass the proxy, so that torrents are not logged. Also, I am not sure about transparent. It means that I dont have to configure proxy settings on the client side right? I have tried doing a redirect no rdr on $int_if inet proto {tcp,udp} from 192.168.1.233/32 to any However, no luck :( Here is a quick look of my conf files: SQUID /usr/local/etc/squid/squid.conf http_port 192.168.1.1:8080 transparent RC /etc/rc.conf: gateway_enable="YES" pf_enable="YES" pf_rules="/usr/local/etc/pf.conf" pflog_enable="YES" squid_enable="YES" I have squid31 installed from ports with SQUID_PF "Enable transparent proxying with PF" on PF /usr/loca/etc/pf.conf: int_if="re0" ext_if="bge0" localnet="{ 192.168.1.0/24 }" table <goodguys> const { "192.168.1.219", "192.168.1.233" } set block-policy drop set skip on lo0 scrub in all fragment reassemble scrub out all random-id max-mss 1440 block in on $ext_if pass out on $ext_if keep state block in on $int_if pass in on $int_if inet proto tcp from $int_if:network to $int_if port 8080 keep state pass in on $int_if inet proto udp from $int_if:network to $int_if port 21 keep state pass in on $int_if inet proto udp from $int_if:network to $int_if port 22 keep state pass in on $int_if inet proto udp from $int_if:network to $int_if port 53 keep state pass in on $int_if inet proto tcp from $int_if:network to any port { smtp, pop3 } keep state pass in on $int_if inet proto icmp from $int_if:network to $int_if keep state pass out on $int_if keep state What lines should I add in conf files? I am assuming that the problem is on the firewall(pf).

    Read the article

  • Assigning to struct in different class

    - by 4thSpace
    I have a struct in ClassA and want to assign it to the same struct in ClassB (the two structs are the same with different names). ClassA and ClassB are view controllers. Basically, I need to pass this struct to another class. However, structs don't seem to be exposed as members, which means I can't access them. Here is ClassA's struct declared in its header file: typedef struct { NSString *startDate; NSString *endDate; NSString *classId; } selectedItemsClassAStruct; selectedItemsClassAStruct selectedItemsClassA; and the same for ClassB (just with ClassA text replaced) It doesn't appear in code hints for ClassB. I see this error if I try to access it: request for member 'selectedItemsClassBStruct' in something not a structure or union How should it be done?

    Read the article

  • How do I limit the permissions of a C# program to read only on an SQLServer Database?

    - by gav
    Hi Guys, I have written some C# which connects to a live production database. I want to give my application read only access to the DB but am unsure how to achieve this. Is there any trivial way to get this done by amending the connection string? My understanding is that the application will logon with the credentials of the person running the application and hence may or may not have write access to the db based on that fact. Can I statically limit the permissions of the application so that if someone changes the program to do something devastating at a later date any manipulation will fail? Apologies for how trivial the question may be but it's my first venture into the world of MS programming. Thanks, Gav

    Read the article

  • Amazon S3 security credentials per bucket

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I was wondering if it was possible to generate security credentials per individual Amazon S3 bucket. I am working with a developer and would like to grant him access only to the bucket we are working with. It's not a trust issue, it's more a concern that he'll delete the wrong bucket or its contents. For example: If we were working on an application that used a bucket called test-application I could generate the credentials for just that one bucket. These credentials would not allow access to other buckets in my account. Is this possible? Thanks, Tony

    Read the article

  • Sendmail : Mail delivery of same domain to internal or external mail server.

    - by Silkograph
    Its bit difficult to explain but very simple problem. We have internal sendmail server and hosted server. Both are set to same domain name. We have mixed mail accounts. For example we have two user in one office. [email protected] is local only [email protected] is internal plus external. Internal means we create user on local linux box where sendmail is set. External means we create user on local and hosted server. [email protected] can send mails to any internal user created on Linux box where sendmail is installed. But he can not send mail to outside domain and no mail can be sent to him as there is no account created on external hosted server. [email protected] can send mails to internal as well as all other domains through sendmail's smart_host feature, which uses hosted server's smtp. [email protected] can get all external emails internally through Fetchmail on linux box. Now we have third user [email protected] who will be always outstation and can use external server only. So I can not create account on local linux box for [email protected] because his mail will get delivered locally only. I don't want to create alias and send his mails to gmail or yahoo's account. I want to send emails to his external account from any internal user. How this can be done? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Yahoo marked my mail as spam and says domainkey fails

    - by mGreet
    Hi Yahoo is marking our mail as spam. We are using PHP Zend framework to send the mail. Mail header says that Domain Key is failed. Authentication-Results: mta160.mail.in.yahoo.com from=mydomain.com; domainkeys=fail (bad sig); from=mydomain.com; dkim=pass (ok) We configured our SMTP server (Same server used to send mail from zend framework.) in outlook and send the mail to yahoo. This time yahoo says domainkeys is pass. Authentication-Results: mta185.mail.in.yahoo.com from=speedgreet.com; domainkeys=pass (ok); from=speedgreet.com; dkim=pass (ok) Domainkey is added in mail header on our server which is used by both outlook client and PHP client. yahoo recognize the mail which is sent from outlook and yahoo does not recognize the mail from PHP client. As far as I know, Signing the email is done on the server side with help of domain key. PHP and Outlook uses the same server to sign the mail. But why yahoo handling differently? What I am missing here? Any Idea? Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491  | Next Page >