Search Results

Search found 13958 results on 559 pages for 'ex mode'.

Page 485/559 | < Previous Page | 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492  | Next Page >

  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

    Read the article

  • Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

    Read the article

  • Javascript and rendering pauses and stays paused on scroll in the android browser

    - by user357303
    Hi. I've found some wierd behaviour related to scrolling and rendering and javascript. How to make it happen: On any webpage that is long enough to scroll on. Start to scroll pretty fast (fling the page). then release the touch. No while the page is still scrolling because of the momentum. Tap the screen to stop the scroll. This make the browser enter a wierd mode. On the nexus one it behaves like this: The updating of what's shown on the screen stops, you can still click on links and the go to where they are supposed to but what's shown on the screen stays the same. If you then scroll the screen a bit the update of the screen kicks in again and what you you where suppsed to see all the time is shown. On all phones with HTC Sense I've tried (Hero, Desire, Legend) this happens: The updating of the screen is stopped just like on the nexus one, but also the execution of any javascript is stopped. If you click on a link that takes you to another page however things return to normal again. The way I tested this was I created a page like this: http://pastebin.ca/1881620 The changeColor function simply changed the background color of 'container' to a few different colors. So before the error what happens is that when you click any link the color changes. after the error this happens: Nexus one: when you click on the links nothing happens (except the "orange link selected rounded corner box thing" is shown as if the link is clicked). Then when you scroll abit. You can see the color has changed (and equal amount of times to the number of times I clicked the link). On Sense: The links take me to google.com Has anyone else noticed this problem? Is there anyway to work around it? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

    Read the article

  • Problems using (building?) native gem extensions on OS X

    - by goodmike
    I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

    Read the article

  • Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

    Read the article

  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 3: ListBox DataTemplate HorizontalAlignment

    - by Lee
    I have a ListBox with it's ItemTemplate bound to a DataTemplate. My problem is I cannot get the elements in the template to stretch to the full width of the ListBox. <ListBox x:Name="listPeople" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0,0,0,0" Background="{x:Null}" SelectionMode="Extended" Grid.Row="1" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource PersonViewModel.BrowserDataTemplate}" ItemsSource="{Binding Mode=OneWay, Path=SearchResults}" > </ListBox> <DataTemplate x:Key="PersonViewModel.BrowserDataTemplate"> <ListBoxItem HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <Grid HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="5,5,5,5"> <Border Opacity=".1" x:Name="itemBorder" Background="#FF000000" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" CornerRadius="5,5,5,5" MinWidth="100" Height="50"/> </Grid> </ListBoxItem> </DataTemplate> As you can see, I have added a border within the grid to indicate the width of the template. My goal is to see this border expand to the full width of the listbox. Currently its width is determined by its contents or MinWidth, which is the only thing at the moment keeping it visible at all.

    Read the article

  • What is the best unobtrusive and lightweight jquery solution to make tab?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    Which is the best unobtrusive and lightweight jquery solution to make tab? Although Jquery similar to jquery ui. jquery ui tab is good but it's overkill fro for just tab. we will have to add jquery ui core.js, jquery ui tab.js then a little code snippet. I need lightweight solution. using this type HTML. and jquery code should be in no.conflict mode. <ul> <li><a href="#example-1">example 1</a></li> <li><a href="#example-2">example 2</a></li> <li><a href="#example-3">example 3</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <p> tab 1 content</p> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <p> tab 2 content</p> </div> <div id="tabs-3"> <p> tab 3 content</p> </div> tabs content should be accessible if js is disabled.

    Read the article

  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

    Read the article

  • Client calls .asmx, Server exposes WCF endpoint

    - by Lucas B
    We have a client that has been configured to connect to an asmx service. We don't want to ask our customers to update their configuration, but we would like to upgrade our service to use WCF. Does anyone know if WCF supports this? If so, what would the configuration file look like? Our asmx service looks like this: <bindings> <binding name="ATransactionSoap" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://.../atransaction.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="ATransactionSoap" contract="ATransactionSoap" name="ATransactionSoap" />

    Read the article

  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

    Read the article

  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

    Read the article

  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

    Read the article

  • Low Level Console Input

    - by Soulseekah
    I'm trying to send commands to to the input of a cmd.exe application using the low level read/write console functions. I have no trouble reading the text (scraping) using the ReadConsole...() and WriteConsole() functions after having attached to the process console, but I've not figured out how to write for example "dir" and have the console interpret it as a sent command. Here's a bit of my code: CreateProcess(NULL, "cmd.exe", NULL, NULL, FALSE, CREATE_NEW_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi); AttachConsole(pi.dwProcessId); strcpy(buffer, "dir"); WriteConsole(GetStdHandle(STD_INPUT_HANDLE), buffer, strlen(buffer), &charRead, NULL); STARTUPINFO attributes of the process are all set to zero, except, of course, the .cb attribute. Nothing changes on the screen, however I'm getting an Error 6: Invalid Handle returned from WriteConsole to STD_INPUT_HANDLE. If I write to (STD_OUTPUT_HANDLE) I do get my dir written on the screen, but nothing of course happens. I'm guessing SetConsoleMode() might be of help, but I've tried many mode combinations, nothing helped. I've also created a quick console application that waits for input (scanf()) and echoes back whatever goes in, didn't work. I've also tried typing into the scanf() promp and then peek into the input buffer using PeekConsoleInput(), returns 0, but the INPUT_RECORD array is empty. I'm aware that there is another way around this using WriteConsoleInput() to directly inject INPUT_RECORD structured events into the console, but this would be way too long, I'll have to send each keypress into it. I hope the question is clear. Please let me know if you need any further information. Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

    Read the article

  • iPhone - adding views and landscape orientation

    - by Franz
    I got a problem with Cocoa touch and landscape orientation. I instantiate my view from a .xib; i added in my view controller - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight; } to only allow landscape orientation. This works find for the first view i add.. if I add a second view however it is rotated again like the landscape view is shown in portrait mode (rotated 90 degree counterclockwise). I really don't know what is going on and can't find a workaround. I even tried to get behind what is happening just adding my view twice: MainMenuViewController* controller = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller.view]; MainMenuViewController* controller2 = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller2.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; The view of controller is displayed correctly, while the view of controller2 is rotated by 90 degrees. Does anyone have an idea how this can happen? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Commenting out portions of code in Scala

    - by akauppi
    I am looking for a C(++) #if 0 -like way of being able to comment out whole pieces of Scala source code, for keeping around experimental or expired code for a while. I tried out a couple of alternatives and would like to hear what you use, and if you have come up with something better? // Simply block-marking N lines by '//' is one way... // <tags> """ anything My editor makes this easy, but it's not really The Thing. It gets easily mixed with actual one-line comments. Then I figured there's native XML support, so: <!-- ... did not work --> Wrapping in XML works, unless you have <tags> within the block: class none { val a= <ignore> ... cannot have //<tags> <here> (not even in end-of-line comments!) </ignore> } The same for multi-line strings seems kind of best, but there's an awful lot of boilerplate (not fashionable in Scala) to please the compiler (less if you're doing this within a class or an object): object none { val ignore= """ This seems like ... <truly> <anything goes> but three "'s of course """ } The 'right' way to do this might be: /*** /* ... works but not properly syntax highlighed in SubEthaEdit (or StackOverflow) */ ***/ ..but that matches the /* and */ only, not i.e. /*** to ***/. This means the comments within the block need to be balanced. And - the current Scala syntax highlighting mode for SubEthaEdit fails miserably on this. As a comparison, Lua has --[==[ matching ]==] and so forth. I think I'm spoilt? So - is there some useful trick I'm overseeing?

    Read the article

  • movie does not start in full screen in flash video player

    - by jodeci
    We have this legacy code of a flash video player that functions well enough but still has some loose ends I need to tighten up. It can do the basic "switch to full screen and back to normal size" stunts, however with one exception. On the first fresh load of the app, if I switch to full screen mode first, and then click to play the movie, the player would be in full screen, yet the movie itself would remain in it's original size. //trigger if (stage.displayState == StageDisplayState.NORMAL) { stage.addEventListener('fullScreen', procFullScreen); stage.scaleMode = StageScaleMode.NO_SCALE; stage.displayState = StageDisplayState.FULL_SCREEN; //mv:VideoDisplay mv.percentHeight = 100; mv.percentWidth = 100; mv.x = 0; mv.y = 0; } // event handler if (event.fullScreen) { mv.smoothing = true; this.height = stage.height; this.width = stage.width; //videoCanvas:Canvas videoCanvas.height = Application.application.height; videoCanvas.width = Application.application.width; fullScreenViewStack.selectedIndex = 1; } The VideoDisplay object even returns the expected width/height, but the movie just plays in it's original size. If I switch screen sizes during movie playback, then the movie size will shrink or stretch as it should. I'm running out of ideas, any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET page with base class with dynamic master page not firing events

    - by Kangkan
    Hi guys! I am feeling that I have terribly wrong somewhere. I was working on a small asp.net app. I have some dynamic themes in the \theme folder and have implemented a page base class to load the master page on the fly. The master is having the ContentPlaceHolder like: <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphBody" runat="server" /> Now I am adding pages that are derived from my base class and added the form elements. I know, Visual Studio has problem showing the page in the design mode. I have a dropdown box and wish to add the event of onselectedindexchange. But it is not working. the page is like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Inherits="trigon.web.Pages.MIS.JobStatus" Title="Job Status" AspCompat="true" CodeBehind="JobStatus.aspx.cs" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphBody" runat="Server"> <div id="divError" runat="server" /> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" id="jobType" onselectedindexchange="On_jobTypeSelection_Change"></asp:DropDownList> </asp:Content> I have also tried adding the event on the code behind like: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { jobType.SelectedIndexChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.On_jobTypeSelection_Change); if (!IsPostBack) { JobStatus_DA da = new JobStatus_DA(); jobType.DataSource = da.getJobTypes(); jobType.DataBind(); } } protected void On_jobTypeSelection_Change(Object sender, EventArgs e) { //do something here } Can anybody help? Regards,

    Read the article

  • setting the openCV configuration in an openGL project produce several errors

    - by GolSa
    I have a win32 solution which is set for openGL; it works well; but I want to write a function which use functions of openCV; I set the configuration for openCV for both X86 and X64;;I commented the openCV function and just to test the correctness of configuration, I run it; but when I want to run it on X64 I faced with the error below: Error 1 error C2065: 'GWL_HINSTANCE' : undeclared identifier D:\matrix\matrixProjection\src\ControllerMain.cpp 35 1 matrixProjection Error 2 error C2664: 'CreateDialogParamW' : cannot convert parameter 4 from 'BOOL (__cdecl *)(HWND,UINT,WPARAM,LPARAM)' to 'DLGPROC' D:\matrix\matrixProjection\src\DialogWindow.cpp 47 1 matrixProjection Error 2 points to this line of code: HWND DialogWindow::create() { /*-->this line*/ handle = ::CreateDialogParam(instance, MAKEINTRESOURCE(id), parentHandle, Win::dialogProcedure, (LPARAM)controller); return handle; } but on Debug Win32 configure, it runs; I used openGL32 in my project; is there any probability to be the cause? is there any X64 version for openGL? I know that there is something needed in X64 mode which my solution can not handle it; I googled a lot about it but I did not find any solution; How can I solve that?

    Read the article

  • Custom UIProgressView drawing weirdness

    - by Werner
    I am trying to create my own custom UIProgressView by subclassing it and then overwrite the drawRect function. Everything works as expected except the progress filling bar. I can't get the height and image right. The images are both in Retina resolution and the Simulator is in Retina mode. The images are called: "[email protected]" (28px high) and "[email protected]" (32px high). CustomProgressView.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface CustomProgressView : UIProgressView @end CustomProgressView.m #import "CustomProgressView.h" @implementation CustomProgressView - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { self = [super initWithFrame:frame]; if (self) { // Initialization code } return self; } // Only override drawRect: if you perform custom drawing. // An empty implementation adversely affects performance during animation. - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code self.frame = CGRectMake(self.frame.origin.x, self.frame.origin.y, self.frame.size.width, 16); UIImage *progressBarTrack = [[UIImage imageNamed:@"progressBarTrack"] resizableImageWithCapInsets:UIEdgeInsetsZero]; UIImage *progressBar = [[UIImage imageNamed:@"progressBar"] resizableImageWithCapInsets:UIEdgeInsetsMake(4, 4, 5, 4)]; [progressBarTrack drawInRect:rect]; NSInteger maximumWidth = rect.size.width - 2; NSInteger currentWidth = floor([self progress] * maximumWidth); CGRect fillRect = CGRectMake(rect.origin.x + 1, rect.origin.y + 1, currentWidth, 14); [progressBar drawInRect:fillRect]; } @end The resulting ProgressView has the right height and width. It also fills at the right percentage (currently set at 80%). But the progress fill image isn't drawn correctly. Does anyone see where I go wrong?

    Read the article

  • SQLDeveloper using over 100MB of PGA+UGA

    - by Leigh Riffel
    Perhaps this is normal, but in my Oracle 11g database I am seeing programmers using Oracle's SQL Developer regularly consume more than 100MB of combined UGA and PGA memory. I'd like to know if this is normal and what can be done about it. Our database is on the 32 bit version of Windows 2008, so memory limitations are becoming an increasing concern. I am using the following query to show the memory usage: SELECT e.SID, e.username, e.status, b.PGA_MEMORY FROM v$session e LEFT JOIN (select y.SID, y.value pga, TO_CHAR(ROUND(y.value/1024/1024),99999999) || ' MB' PGA_MEMORY from v$sesstat y, v$statname z where y.STATISTIC# = z.STATISTIC# and NAME = 'session pga memory') b ON e.sid=b.sid WHERE (PGA)/1024/1024 > 20 ORDER BY 4 DESC; It seems that the resource usage goes up any time a table is opened in SQLDeveloper, but even when it is closed the memory does not go away. The problem is worse if the table is sorted while it was open as that seems to use even more memory. I understand how this would use memory while it is sorting, and perhaps even while it is still open, but to use memory after it is closed seems wrong to me. Can anyone confirm this? Update: I discovered that my numbers were off due to not understanding that the UGA is stored in the PGA under dedicated server mode. This makes the numbers lower than they were, but the problem still remains that SQL Developer seems to use excessive PGA.

    Read the article

  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492  | Next Page >