Search Results

Search found 14354 results on 575 pages for 'existing records'.

Page 486/575 | < Previous Page | 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493  | Next Page >

  • Passing a URL as a URL parameter

    - by Andrea
    I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

    Read the article

  • Trying to write up a C daemon, but don't know enough C to continue

    - by JamesM-SiteGen
    Okay, so I want this daemon to run in the background with little to no interaction. I plan to have it work with Apache, lighttpd, etc to send the session & request information to allow C to generate a website from an object DB, saving will have to be an option so, you can start the daemon with an existing DB but will not save to it unless you login to the admin area and enable, and restart the daemon. Summary of the daemon: Load a database from file. Have a function to restart the daemon. Allow Apache, lighttpd, etc to get necessary data about the request and session. A varible to allow the database to be saved to the file, otherwise it will only be stored in ram. If it is set to save back to the file, then only have neccessary data in ram. Use sql-light for the database file. Build a webpage from some template files. $(myVar) for getting variables. Get templates from a directory. ./templates/01-test/{index.html,template.css,template.js} Live version of the code and more information: http://typewith.me/YbGB1h1g1p Also I am working on a website CMS in php, but I am tring to switch to C as it is faster than php. ( php is quite fast, but the fact that making a few mySQL requests for every webpage is quite unefficent and I'm sure that it can be far better, so an object that we can recall data from in C would have to be faster ) P.S I am using Arch-Linux not MS-Windows, with the package group base-devel for the common developer tools such as make and makepgk. Edit: Oupps, forgot the question ;) Okay, so the question is, how can I turn this basic C daemon into a base to what I am attempting to do here?

    Read the article

  • Recommended approach to port to ASP.NET MVC

    - by tshao
    I think many of us used to face the same question, what's the best practices to port existing web forms App to MVC. The situation for me is that we'll support both web forms and MVC at the same time. It means, we create new features in MVC, while maintaining legacy pages in web forms, and they're all in a same project. The point is: we want to keep the DRY (do not repeat yourself) principle and reduce duplicate code as much as possible. The ASPX page is not a problem as we only create new features in MVC, but there're still some shared components we want to re-use the both new / legacy pages: Master page UserControl The question here is: Is that possible to create a common master page / usercontrol that could be used in both web forms and MVC? I know that ViewMasterPage inherits from MasterPage and ViewUserControl inherits from UserControl, so it's maybe OK to let both web forms and MVC ASPX page refer to the MVC version. I did some testing and found sometimes it generates errors during the rendering of usercontrols. Any idea / experience you can share with me? Very appreciate to it.

    Read the article

  • Embed ActionScript (AS) into flash

    - by David ???
    Hey SO, I've never dealt with Flash/ActionScript, so please bear with me. Mostly, I'm a bit confused. I've done many work with Java/C as well as HTML/Javascript. I am working with a designer who provides me with flash files (.swf). From my point of view, it's a simple "mock" to which I need to embed a single object. This object is a TextBox, with which the user interacts. I need to be able to Insert such a TextBox to a Flash file Retrieve text upon key event process it, and return it to the TextBox As I understood from other posts, I'll be working with AS, right? How do I embed such an object to an existing Flash file? Being that the graphical part is over once I have the TextBox, would I need any fancy IDE for that? What IDE is that (I usually work with Eclipse)? One last note: I am working with that designer, so I have access to all her creation process. She does not know code, nor do I think she'll get it. I would much prefer to give her as little headache as possible (e.g. just instruct her how to export the files to me from her Adobe Flash CS5 studio). Many thanks, David

    Read the article

  • Compiler Errors...it ran yesterday!?

    - by howdytest
    This is a pre-existing Java project being run in Eclipse 3.5.2 32 bit.. Day 1: Install Java SE 6 Update 20 JDK. Experience Crash in Eclipse. Install Java 5. Same problem-(uninstall java 5). Re-install Java 6. Install Eclipse 3.3.1. Install Eclipse 3.5.2. 32-bit. No problems. Run Eclipse 3.5.2. 64-bit. No problems. Set up the project, configure, and run. No problems. Day 2: Load Eclipse to start a new project. Previous project now has 940 errors. Error Type is "Java Problem". The project ran 100% without a problem on Day 1. The only thing that happened between Day 1 and Day 2 was restarting my computer. I just tried to recreate the project, step by step, and am still getting the same errors. I know it's not the code -- it was working. Not to mention that it's an opensource project, such a problem would be documented. I'm thinking something is wrong with my Java install. Or, perhaps, it's a 32-bit/64-bit problem. I'm running win7 64bit. So before formatting my window's partition, I thought I'd throw the problem your way to see if anyone knows what's going on. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • CATransaction: Layer Changes But Does Not Animate

    - by macinjosh
    I'm trying to animate part of UI in an iPad app when the user taps a button. I have this code in my action method. It works in the sense that the UI changes how I expect but it does not animate the changes. It simply immediately changes. I must be missing something: - (IBAction)someAction:(id)sender { UIViewController *aViewController = <# Get an existing UIViewController #>; UIView *viewToAnimate = aViewController.view; CALayer *layerToAnimate = viewToAnimate.layer; [CATransaction begin]; [CATransaction setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; CATransform3D rotateTransform = CATransform3DMakeRotation(0.3, 0, 0, 1); CATransform3D scaleTransform = CATransform3DMakeScale(0.10, 0.10, 0.10); CATransform3D positionTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(24, 423, 0); CATransform3D combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(rotateTransform, scaleTransform); combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(combinedTransform, positionTransform); layerToAnimate.transform = combinedTransform; [CATransaction commit]; // rest of method... } I've tried simplifying the animation to just change the opacity (for example) and it still will not animate. The opacity just changes instantly. That leads me to believe something is not setup properly. Any clues would be helpful!

    Read the article

  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

    Read the article

  • Creating a draft version of the page before publishing in Drupal 6?

    - by Marco
    I've been looking for a good way to handle revisions in Drupal, but I am yet to succeed. For some reason there is no built in way to save a draft (that I've found so far), and the modules I've tried so far do not seem to fully work. First I tried save_as_draft, which seemed to do almost what I wanted, and if I'm not mistaken, also handles CCK fields. Sadly it seems to be broken somehow, so I can't edit a page once I've saved it as a draft.. maybe I could fix it by going through the code, but that would not be my preferred solution. The other module I tried is aptly named draft, but from what I can tell, this module only handles the title and body fields, and does this in a way that appear odd to me. Is there some common practice to solve this? I couldn't imagine that nobody had to solve this before, but I haven't found any good solution to it yet. Clarification I need this functionality for already existing content, that is, I want to be able to create and edit a draft version of an already published page, while the "old" version would still be available to anonymous users.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Rich Display WYSIWYG Component/Methodology

    - by Laramie
    quick back story-- I am working on ASP.Net based template editor that lets authors create text templates using Javascript inserted placeholder tags that will be filled in with dynamic text when the templates are used to display the final results. For example the author might create a template like The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. The application would eventually replace the tag with a dynamic word down the road (though it's not specifically relevant to this post) The word foo was generated dynmamically. Depending on the circumstances, the template may be created in a text input, textarea or a modified version of the Ajax Control Toolkit HTML Editor. There might be 40 or more of these editable elements on the page, so using lots of stripped down or modified HTML editors would probably bog the page down too much. The problem is that the tags such as [%12#add] are displayed inline with the user text and the result is confusing and aesthetically gross. The goal is parse the contens of the source element and when a tags such as [%12#add] are encountered, display something prettier and less cryptic to the user such as a stylable element or image wherever tags such as [%12#add] occur. The application still needs the template text with the tags on postback. So the user might see The word tag placeholder was generated dynamically. but the original template would still be the value of the text input box The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. It seems HTML editors like the ACT version and FckEditor accomplish this by rendering their output in an IFrame, but rather than kill myself trying to roll a lighter specialized version myself, I thought I'd ask if anyone knows of an existing free component or approach that has already tackled this. With good reason, I don't think S.O. allows HTML formatting, but the bold "tag placeholder" above would ideally be something like tag placeholder.

    Read the article

  • AJAX Autosave

    - by antony.trupe
    What's the best javascript library, or plugin or extension to a library, that has implemented autosaving functionality? The specific need is to be able to 'save' a data grid. Think gmail and Google Documents' autosave. I don't want to reinvent the wheel if its already been invented. I'm looking for an existing implementation of the magical autoSave() function. Auto-Saving:pushing to server code that saves to persistent storage, usually a DB. The server code framework is outside the scope of this question. Note that I'm not looking for an Ajax library, but a library/framework a level higher: interacts with the form itself. daemach introduced an implementation on top of jQuery @ http://ideamill.synaptrixgroup.com/?p=3. I'm not convinced it meets the lightweight and well engineered criteria though. Criteria stable, lightweight, well engineered saves onChange and/or onBlur saves no more frequently then a given number of milliseconds handles multiple updates happening at the same time doesn't save if no change has occurred since last save saves to different urls per input class Updates I've stabilized a solution. See my answer below for links.

    Read the article

  • Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

    - by dotnet crazy kid
    I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

    Read the article

  • git-svn cannot create a branch to follow SVN branching

    - by Serhiy Yakovyn
    Hello everybody, I'm struggling with the following issue. When I continue fetching revisions from SVN with git svn fetch I'm getting the following error (removed https to be able to post question): *Found possible branch point: somecompany.com/product/trunk = somecompany.com/product/branches/deep/branches/product-001, 72666 Found branch parent: (refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001) b685b7b92813885fdf 6b8e2663daf884bf504b14 Following parent with do_switch Successfully followed parent error: 'refs/remotes/deep' exists; cannot create 'refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001' fatal: Cannot lock the ref 'refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001'. update-ref -m r72667 refs/remotes/deep/branches/product-001 df51920e8f0a53f26507 c2679eb6a9dbad91e0d6: command returned error: 128* This happened because I was fetching revisions using the default filter for SVN branches: [svn-remote "svn"] url = https://somecompany.com/someproduct fetch = trunk:refs/remotes/trunk branches = branches/*:refs/remotes/* tags = tags/*:refs/remotes/tags/* Now, I have the line below added, but it's too late: branches = branches/deep/branches/*:refs/remotes/deep/branches/* I have tried to fix this by using git reset to remove all the commits. Actually I can see from the error message that git is trying right thing, but cannot because of the branch remotes/deep being existing. I have tried to search for 2 possible solutions: 1. Remove that branch (remotes/deep), but as it is tracked by git as a remote, I was not able to find any solution for that. 2. Remove the whole history related to that branch. No success too :( Does anybody know how to deal with my issue? Thank you in advance, Serhiy Y

    Read the article

  • sort outer array based on values in inner array, javascript

    - by ptrn
    I have an array with arrays in it, where I want to sort the outer arrays based on values in a specific column in the inner. I bet that sounded more than a bit confusing, so I'll skip straight to an example. Initial data: var data = [ [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 1 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(1); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 2 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(2); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ] ]; The big Q Is there an existing solution to this that you know of, or would I have to write one myself? If so, which would be the easiest sort algorithm to use? QuickSort? _L

    Read the article

  • Exception from HRESULT: 0x80020009 (DISP_E_EXCEPTION)) in SharePoint Part 2

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: Following this post which I posted some time ago, I now get the same error every time I try to rewire 2 web's URLs. Basically, this is the code. It runs in a LongRunningOperationJob: SPWeb existingWeb = null; using (existingWeb = site.OpenWeb(wedId)) { SPWeb destinationWeb = createNewSite(existingWeb); existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; existingWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name + "_old"; existingWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title + "_old"; existingWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description + "_old"; existingWeb.Update() existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; destinationWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name; destinationWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title; destinationWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description; destinationWeb.Update(); destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; // null this for what its worth existingWeb = null; destinationWeb = null; } // <---- Exception raised here Basically, the code is trying to rename the existing site's URL to something else, and have the destination web's url point to the old site's URL. When I run this for the first time, I received the Exception mentioned in the subject. However, every run after, I do not see the exception anymore. The webs DO get rewired... but at the cost of the app dying an unnecessary and terrible death. I'm at a complete lost as to what is going on and needs urgent help. Does sharepoint keep any hidden table from me or is the logic above has fatal problems? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

    Read the article

  • Do fluent interfaces significantly impact runtime performance of a .NET application?

    - by stakx
    I'm currently occupying myself with implementing a fluent interface for an existing technology, which would allow code similar to the following snippet: using (var directory = Open.Directory(@"path\to\some\directory")) { using (var file = Open.File("foobar.html").In(directory)) { // ... } } In order to implement such constructs, classes are needed that accumulate arguments and pass them on to other objects. For example, to implement the Open.File(...).In(...) construct, you would need two classes: // handles 'Open.XXX': public static class OpenPhrase { // handles 'Open.File(XXX)': public static OpenFilePhrase File(string filename) { return new OpenFilePhrase(filename); } // handles 'Open.Directory(XXX)': public static DirectoryObject Directory(string path) { // ... } } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).XXX': public class OpenFilePhrase { internal OpenFilePhrase(string filename) { _filename = filename } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).In(XXX): public FileObject In(DirectoryObject directory) { // ... } private readonly string _filename; } That is, the more constituent parts statements such as the initial examples have, the more objects need to be created for passing on arguments to subsequent objects in the chain until the actual statement can finally execute. Question: I am interested in some opinions: Does a fluent interface which is implemented using the above technique significantly impact the runtime performance of an application that uses it? With runtime performance, I refer to both speed and memory usage aspects. Bear in mind that a potentially large number of temporary, argument-saving objects would have to be created for only very brief timespans, which I assume may put a certain pressure on the garbage collector. If you think there is significant performance impact, do you know of a better way to implement fluent interfaces?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

    Read the article

  • How can I create/update an XML node that may or may not exist?

    - by ScottBai
    Is there a method available (i.e. without me creating my own recursive method), for a given xpath (or other method of identifying the hierarchical position) to create/update an XML node, where the node would be created if it does not exist? This would need to create the parent node if it does not exist as well. I do have an XSD which includes all possible nodes. i.e. Before: <employee> <name>John Smith</name> </employee> Would like to call something like this: CoolXmlUpdateMethod("/employee/address/city", "Los Angeles"); After: <employee> <name>John Smith</name> <address> <city>Los Angeles</city> </address> </employee> Or even a method to create a node, given an xpath, wherein it will recursively create the parent node(s) if they do not exist? As far as the application (if it matters), this is taking an existing XML doc that contains only populated nodes, and adding data to it from another system. The new data may or may not already have values populated in the source XML. Surely this is not an uncommon scenario?

    Read the article

  • StructureMap and injecting IEnumerable<T>

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I'm new to StructureMap and have some existing code that I'm working with that uses StructureMap 2.5.4. There is a class that is constructed using StructureMap that has a constructor that takes IEnumerable<TCar> as a parameter. The registry has the following code. Scan(x => { x.TheCallingAssembly(); x.WithDefaultConventions(); x.AddAllTypesOf<ICar>(); } ); ForRequestedType<IEnumerable<ICar>>().TheDefault.Is.ConstructedBy( x => ObjectFactory.GetAllInstances<ICar>()); I'm writing a unit test and have obtained a nested container off the ObjectFactory and have injected an instance using the Inject method. One of the instances of ICar should receive the injected type in its constructor. However it wasn't working and I tracked that down to the ObjectFactory.GetAllInstances() call which doesn't use my nested container. How can I get this to work? I also read about StructureMap autowiring arrays and IEnumerable instances but I couldn't get it to work. Is there a better way to rewrite the above registry code so that an instance of IEnumerable<TCar> will be created and use the injected type from my nested container?

    Read the article

  • Alternative way of implementation of a code

    - by vikramjb
    The title is not exactly meaningful, but I am not share what else to name it. I wrote a TOC Generation code sometime later. Based on this I was writing code to check for duplicates also. The code is as follows curNumber = getTOCReference(selItem.SNo, IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); curNumber = realTOCRef; And the code for CheckForDuplicates is ListViewItem curItem = this.tlvItems.FindItemWithText(curNumber); if (curItem != null) { curNumber = this.getTOCReference(curNumber, !IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); } else { realTOCRef= curNumber; } What this code does, it gets a TOC and tries it find if it already exists in the ObjectListView and gets a new TOC if there is a existing TOC. Once it determines that the generated TOC is not there in the list it stores it in realTOCRef and sends it back to the main calling code. I have used "out" to return the last generated TOC, which is something I did not want to do. The reason why I did it was after the non duplicate TOC was generated the return was not going back to the calling code instead it looped through the previous instances then it returned back. When the looping back happened the TOC that was to be returned also got reset. I would appreciate any help on this.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC2 and Browser Caching

    - by Dan
    Hi I have a web application that fetches a lot of content via ajax. For example when a user edits some data, the browser will send the changes using an ajax post and then do an ajax get to get fresh content and replace an existing div on the page with that content. This was working just find with MVC1, but in MVC2 I would get inconsistent results. I've found that MVC1 by default included an Expires item in the response headers set to the current time, but in MVC2 the Expires header is missing. This is a problem with some browsers (IE8) actually using the cached version of the ajax get instead of the fresh version. To deal with the problem I created a simple ActionFilterAttribute that sets the reponse cache to NoCache (see below), which works, but it seems kind of sillly to decorate every controller with this attribute. Is there a global way to set this for every controller? Is this a bug in MVC2 and it really should be setting the expires on every ActionResult/view/page? Don't most MVC programs deal with data entry where stale data is a very bad thing? Thanks Dan public class ResponseNoCachingAttribute : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnResultExecuted(ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnResultExecuted(filterContext); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(System.Web.HttpCacheability.NoCache); } }

    Read the article

  • How to minor updates to Drupal-6 with shared hosting

    - by marty.fried
    I've got Drupal working on a shared host, and I uploaded some modules from my home system successfully, but I've got the message that there is a security update for my version, and I should update immediately. I'm not sure how I'm supposed to do that. It seems like the update is an entire new installation. I originally installed it using the hosting company's installer, Fantastico. Should I simply over-write the existing installation with the new files? Or ignore the message? I realize I shouldn't over-write the sites folder, or anything I've modified. The instructions that come with the download seem to be for a major version upgrade, and are way too much trouble for frequent security updates. Searching Drupal's site shows many other methods, but no indication of anything official. And some were ridiculously error-prone, and not really useful. I don't have shell access to the hosting site, although I can pay extra to get it if I really need to. Or, maybe I can clone the site on my local Linux system, do the update using a script, then upload the whole thing. Does anyone have experience with this situation?

    Read the article

  • Routing problem with calling a new method without an ID

    - by alkaloids
    I'm trying to put together a form_tag that edits several Shift objects. I have the form built properly, and it's passing on the correct parameters. I have verified that the parameters work with updating the objects correctly in the console. However, when I click the submit button, I get the error: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in ShiftsController#update_individual Couldn't find Shift without an ID My route for the controller it is calling looks like this looks like this: map.resources :shifts, :collection => { :update_individual => :put } The method in ShiftsController is this: def update_individual Shift.update(params[:shifts].keys, params[:shifts].values) flash[:notice] = "Schedule saved" end The relevant form parts are these: <% form_tag( update_individual_shifts_path ) do %> ... (fields for...) <%= submit_tag "Save" %> <% end %> Why is this not working? If I browse to the url: "http://localhost:3000/shifts/update_individual/5" (or any number that corresponds to an existing shift), I get the proper error about having no parameters set, but when I pass parameters without an ID of some sort, it errors out. How do I make it stop looking for an ID at the end of the URL?

    Read the article

  • PHP Regex to match lines with all-caps with occaisional hyphens.

    - by Yaaqov
    I'm trying to to convert an existing PHP Regular Expression match case to apply to a slightly different style of document. Here's the original style of the document: **FOODS - TYPE A** ___________________________________ **PRODUCT** 1) Mi Pueblito Queso Fresco Authentic Mexican Style Fresh Cheese; 2) La Fe String Cheese **CODE** Sell by date going back to February 1, 2009 And the successfully-running PHP Regex match code that only returns "true" if the line is surrounded by asterisks, and stores each side of the "-" as $m[1] and $m[2], respectively. if ( preg_match('#^\*\*([^-]+)(?:-(.*))?\*\*$#', $line, $m) ) { // only for **header - subheader** $m[2] is set. if ( isset($m[2]) ) { return array(TYPE_HEADER, array(trim($m[1]), trim($m[2]))); } else { return array(TYPE_KEY, array($m[1])); } } So, for line 1: $m[1] = "FOODS" AND $m[2] = "TYPE A"; Line 2 would be skipped; Line 3: $m[1] = "PRODUCT", etc. The question: How would I re-write the above regex match if the headers did not have the asterisks, but still was all-caps, and was at least 4 characters long? For example: FOODS - TYPE A ___________________________________ PRODUCT 1) Mi Pueblito Queso Fresco Authentic Mexican Style Fresh Cheese; 2) La Fe String Cheese CODE Sell by date going back to February 1, 2009 Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Implementing Excel 2003 COM Add-in UDF in Asyc Programming model using C#(VS 2005)

    - by Venu
    Hi: I am trying to implement a UDF using Excel COM Add-in(2003) with Visual Studio 2005 in C#. I would like to implement the UDF using async programming. The UDF is a slow operation as its results are fetched from a server. As an illustration(not a real world example),the following UDF works fine without any issue: public double mul(double number1, double number2) { return number1 * number2; } How can I do the same functionality in an async way: For example, I would like the UDF return immediately and later when the results are available from a server, I would like to update the desired cells. // This method returns immediately. public object mul(double number1, double number2) { return "calculating"; } // This method of a worker thread will update the results. public OnResultsAvailable(object result) { // Question: how should I update the cells that triggerred the calcualtions above? } Constraints: I cannot use Excel RTD as I have to work with existing codebase written using Excel C# COM Add-in. Thanks for the help. -Venu

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493  | Next Page >