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  • How can i pull an image and data from a Database?

    - by user1851377
    I am trying to pull data from a Database using C#.net and use a Foreach loop to make it visible on a page. Every time i run the code i only get one item that shows up when i know that there is at least 7 items in the DB. i have placed the code below for the C#. SqlConnection oConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["HomeGrownEnergyConnectionString"].ToString()); string sqlEnergy = "Select * from Product p where p.ProductTypeId=3"; SqlCommand oCmd = new SqlCommand(sqlEnergy, oConnection); DataTable dtenergy = new DataTable(); SqlDataAdapter oDa = new SqlDataAdapter(oCmd); try { oConnection.Open(); ; oDa.Fill(dtenergy); } catch (Exception ex) { lblnodata.Text = ex.Message; return; } finally { oConnection.Close(); } DataTableReader results = dtenergy.CreateDataReader(); if (results.HasRows) { results.Read(); foreach(DataRow result in dtenergy.Rows) { byte[] imgProd = result["ThumnailLocation"] as byte[]; ID.Text = result["ProductID"].ToString(); Name.Text = result["Name"].ToString(); price.Text = FormatPriceColumn(result["Price"].ToString()); } } Here is the code for the asp.net. <div> <asp:Image ID="imgProd" CssClass="ProdImg" runat="server" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="ID" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="Name" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="price" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtQty" MaxLength="3" runat="server" Width="30px" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Addtocart" Text="Add To Cart" CommandName="AddToCart" ItemStyle-CssClass="btnCol" /> If someone could please help me that would be great thanks.

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  • Images in IFRAME no longer showing after I log out of Flickr?

    - by contact-kram
    I have a iframe window which displays user's flickr images. I use the flickr.photos.search api to download the user's image from flickr. This works great when the user is logged into flickr. But when I explicitly log off the user from flickr and the yahoo network and then attempt to download the flickr images, I get redirected to www.yahoo.com in a full browser window (not in my iframe). If I remember correctly, I did not have this issue when I was not using iframes and I was being redirected to the yahoo login screen. Any suggestions? To elaborate, this URI - http://www.flickr.com/services/api/auth.howto.web.html, lists the below step - Create an auth handler When users follow your login url, they are directed to a page on flickr.com which asks them if they want to authorize your application. This page displays your application title and description along with the logo, if you uploaded one. When the user accepts the request, they are sent back to the Callback URL you defined in step 2. The URL will have a frob parameter added to it. For example, if your Callback URL was http://test.com/auth.php then the user might be redirected to http://test.com/auth.php?frob=185-837403740 (The frob value in this example is '185-837403740'). This does not happen when I am in my iframe window but it does happen in my full browser window.

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  • Converting string to a simple type

    - by zespri
    .Net framework contains a great class named Convert that allows conversion between simple types, DateTime type and String type. Also the class support conversion of the types implementing IConvertible interface. The class has been implemented in the very first version of .Net framework. There were a few things in the first .Net framework that were not done quite right. For example .Parse methods on simple types would throw an exception if the string couldn't be parsed and there would be no way to check if exception is going to be thrown in advance. A future version of .Net Framework removed this deficiency by introducing the TryParse method that resolved this problem. The Convert class dates back to time of the old Parse method, so the ChangeType method on this class in implemented old style - if conversion can't be performed an exception is thrown. Take a look at the following code: public static T ConvertString<T>(string s, T @default) { try { return (T)Convert.ChangeType(s, typeof(T), CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } catch (Exception) { return @default; } } This code basically does what I want. However I would pretty much like to avoid the ugly try/catch here. I'm sure, that similar to TryParse, there is a modern method of rewriting this code without the catch-all. Could you suggest one?

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  • Quantifying the amount of change in a git diff?

    - by Alex Feinman
    I use git for a slightly unusual purpose--it stores my text as I write fiction. (I know, I know...geeky.) I am trying to keep track of productivity, and want to measure the degree of difference between subsequent commits. The writer's proxy for "work" is "words written", at least during the creation stage. I can't use straight word count as it ignores editing and compression, both vital parts of writing. I think I want to track: (words added)+(words removed) which will double-count (words changed), but I'm okay with that. It'd be great to type some magic incantation and have git report this distance metric for any two revisions. However, git diffs are patches, which show entire lines even if you've only twiddled one character on the line; I don't want that, especially since my 'lines' are paragraphs. Ideally I'd even be able to specify what I mean by "word" (though \W+ would probably be acceptable). Is there a flag to git-diff to give diffs on a word-by-word basis? Alternately, is there a solution using standard command-line tools to compute the metric above?

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  • Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

    - by HotOil
    Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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  • T4MVC Optional Parameter Inferred From Current Context

    - by Itakou
    I have read the other post about this at T4MVC OptionalParameter values implied from current context and I am using the latest T4MVC (2.11.1) which is suppose to have the fix in. I even checked checked to make sure that it's there -- and it is. I am still getting the optional parameters filled in based on the current context. For example: Let's say I have a list that is by default ordered by a person's last name. I have the option to order by first name instead with the URL http://localhost/list/stuff?orderby=firstname When I am in that page, I want to go back to order by first name with the code: @Html.ActionLink("order by last name", MVC.List.Stuff(null)) the link I wanted was simply http://localhost/list/stuff without any parameters to keep the URL simple and short - invoking default behaviors within the action. But instead the orderby is kept and the url is still http://localhost/list/stuff?orderby=firstname Any help would be great. I know that in the most general cases, this does remove the query parameter - maybe I do have a specific case where it was not removed. I find that it only happens when I have the URL inside a page that I included with RenderPartial. My actual code is <li>@Html.ActionLink("Recently Updated", MVC.Network.Ticket.List(Model.UI.AccountId, "LastModifiedDate", null, null, null, null, null))</li> <li>@Html.ActionLink("Recently Created", MVC.Network.Ticket.List(Model.UI.AccountId, "CreatedDate", null, null, null, null, null))</li> <li>@Html.ActionLink("Most Severe", MVC.Network.Ticket.List(Model.UI.AccountId, "MostSevere", null, null, null, null, null))</li> <li>@Html.ActionLink("Previously Closed", MVC.Network.Ticket.List(Model.UI.AccountId, "LastModifiedDate", null, "Closed", null, null, null))</li> the problem happens when someone clicks Previously Closed and and go to ?status=closed. When they click Recently Updated, which I want to the ?status so that it shows the active ones, the ?status=closed stays. Any insight would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Passing functor and function pointers interchangeably using a templated method in C++

    - by metroxylon
    I currently have a templated class, with a templated method. Works great with functors, but having trouble compiling for functions. Foo.h template <typename T> class Foo { public: // Constructor, destructor, etc... template <typename Func> void bar(T x, Func f); }; template <typename T> template <typename Func> Foo::bar(T x, Func f) { /* some code here */ } Main.cpp #include "Foo.h" template <typename T> class Functor { public: Functor() {} void operator()(T x) { /* ... */ } private: /* some attributes here */ }; void Function(T x) { /* ... */ } int main() { Foo<int> foo; foo.bar(2, Functor); // No problem foo.bar(2, Function); // <unresolved overloaded function type> return 0; }

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • Extracting DCT coefficients from encoded images and video

    - by misha
    Is there a way to easily extract the DCT coefficients (and quantization parameters) from encoded images and video? Any decoder software must be using them to decode block-DCT encoded images and video. So I'm pretty sure the decoder knows what they are. Is there a way to expose them to whomever is using the decoder? I'm implementing some video quality assessment algorithms that work directly in the DCT domain. Currently, the majority of my code uses OpenCV, so it would be great if anyone knows of a solution using that framework. I don't mind using other libraries (perhaps libjpeg, but that seems to be for still images only), but my primary concern is to do as little format-specific work as possible (I don't want to reinvent the wheel and write my own decoders). I want to be able to open any video/image (H.264, MPEG, JPEG, etc) that OpenCV can open, and if it's block DCT-encoded, to get the DCT coefficients. In the worst case, I know that I can write up my own block DCT code, run the decompressed frames/images through it and then I'd be back in the DCT domain. That's hardly an elegant solution, and I hope I can do better. Presently, I use the fairly common OpenCV boilerplate to open images: IplImage *image = cvLoadImage(filename); // Run quality assessment metric The code I'm using for video is equally trivial: CvCapture *capture = cvCaptureFromAVI(filename); while (cvGrabFrame(capture)) { IplImage *frame = cvRetrieveFrame(capture); // Run quality assessment metric on frame } cvReleaseCapture(&capture); In both cases, I get a 3-channel IplImage in BGR format. Is there any way I can get the DCT coefficients as well?

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  • Split node list to parts.

    - by Kalinin
    xml: <mode>1</mode> <mode>2</mode> <mode>3</mode> <mode>4</mode> <mode>5</mode> <mode>6</mode> <mode>7</mode> <mode>8</mode> <mode>9</mode> <mode>10</mode> <mode>11</mode> <mode>12</mode> i need to separate it on parts (for ex. on 4): xslt: <xsl:variable name="vNodes" select="mode"/> <xsl:variable name="vNumParts" select="4"/> <xsl:variable name="vNumCols" select="ceiling(count($vNodes) div $vNumParts)"/> <xsl:for-each select="$vNodes[position() mod $vNumCols = 1]"> <xsl:variable name="vCurPos" select="(position()-1)*$vNumCols +1"/> <ul> <xsl:for-each select="$vNodes[position() >= $vCurPos and not(position() > $vCurPos + $vNumCols -1)]"> <li><xsl:value-of select="."/></li> </xsl:for-each> </ul> </xsl:for-each> this code is written by Dimitre Novatchev - great coder)) but for the number of nodes less then number of parts (for ex. i have 2 modes) this code does not work - it outputs nothing. How it upgrade for that case (without choose construction)?

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  • How to protect and hidden form HTML/PHP with JS callback to AS3

    - by Jk_
    Hi guys, I'm developing a Flash website (as3) where I need to be able to upload directly to YouTube by using the DATA API. However in order to do so, I had to use a proper HTML form on top of my flash object. Why? Because of the Browser Based Upload restictions. I first hide the form using JQuery and with a little CSS the form is display just where I want it. Within flash I use ExternalInterface.call() to show/hide the form when I need it! ExternalInterface.call("YTUploader.showIt"); The upload process is working great my only problem is that the form can be displayed easily... You just need a tool like firebug and you can use the form wherever you want on my flash app. So I was wandering which will be the best way to 'protect' this form or the best way to limit its access. Any advices will be appreciated. Thanks for your time. Jk.

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  • Node.js/Express Partials problem: Can't be nested too deep?

    - by heorling
    I'm learning Node.js, Express, haml.js and liking it. I've run into a prety annoying problem though. I'm pretty new to this but have been getting nice results so far. I'm writing a jquery heavy web app that relies on a table containing divs. The divs slide around, switch back and fourth and are resized etc to my hearts content. What I'm looking for a way to switch (template?) the divs. Since I've been building in express and mimicking the chat example it would make sense to use partials. The rub is that I've been using inexplicit divs in haml, held within a td. The divs are cunstructed as follows: %tr %td .class1.class2.class3.classetc Which has worked fine cross browser. Parsing the classes works great for the js code to pass arguments around, fetch values etc. What I'd like to be able to do is something like: %tr %td .class1.class2.class3.classetc %ul#messages != this.partial('message.html.haml', { collection: messages }) Any combination I've tried with this has failed however. And I might have tried them all. If I could put a partial into that div I'd probably be set. And you can nest them as long as you use #ids instead of .classes. But if you use more than one class it breaks! I think that's the most accurate way of summing it up. How do you do this? I've checked out various templating solutions like mu.js and micro template like by John Resig. I earlier checked out this thread on templating engines. It's very possible I'm making some fundamental mistake here, I'm new to this. What's a good way to do this?

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  • Was Visual Studio 2008 or 2010 written to use multi cores?

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    basically i want to know if the visual studio IDE and/or compiler in 2010 was written to make use of a multi core environment (i understand we can target multi core environments in 08 and 10, but that is not my question). i am trying to decide on if i should get a higher clock dual core or a lower clock quad core, as i want to try and figure out which processor will give me the absolute best possible experience with Visual Studio 2010 (ide and background compiler). if they are running the most important section (background compiler and other ide tasks) in one core, then the core will get cut off quicker if running a quad core, esp if background compiler is the heaviest task, i would imagine this would b e difficult to seperate in more then one process, so even if it uses multi cores you might still be better off with going for a higher clock cpu if the majority of the processing is still bound to occur in one core (ie the most significant part of the VS environment). i am a vb programmer, they've made great performance improvements in beta 2, congrats, but i would love to be able to use VS seamlessly... anyone have any ideas? thanks, erx

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  • [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

    - by DavidYell
    I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

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  • How did you learn to be a programming guru?

    - by Xonara
    College courses are obviously very helpful, but I hear all the time about great programmers that just "taught themselves," and I wonder how the hell they did it. Online tutorials are nice - online support, even better - but learning with nothing but online resources is difficult to say the least, and I don't know anybody that's experienced enough to help me learn. Even if I did, they probably wouldn't have the time for it. Any advice is greatly appreciated. Becoming an application/game designer is something I've wanted to achieve for a long, long time, even if I never use it for a career, and it does mean alot to me. However, I'm constantly thwarted by lack of motivation, or perhaps confidence. Though I've found some good tutorials online, sometimes I feel it just isn't enough to really get me somewhere, and my limited knowledge of computers (and any other technology) in general is hardly reassuring. I'm constantly getting the feeling that maybe it isn't "in me." Well, guess that's it. I just don't want to join the legions of aspiring techies that just gave up.

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  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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  • Dimension Reduction in Categorical Data with missing values

    - by user227290
    I have a regression model in which the dependent variable is continuous but ninety percent of the independent variables are categorical(both ordered and unordered) and around thirty percent of the records have missing values(to make matters worse they are missing randomly without any pattern, that is, more that forty five percent of the data hava at least one missing value). There is no a priori theory to choose the specification of the model so one of the key tasks is dimension reduction before running the regression. While I am aware of several methods for dimension reduction for continuous variables I am not aware of a similar statical literature for categorical data (except, perhaps, as a part of correspondence analysis which is basically a variation of principal component analysis on frequency table). Let me also add that the dataset is of moderate size 500000 observations with 200 variables. I have two questions. Is there a good statistical reference out there for dimension reduction for categorical data along with robust imputation (I think the first issue is imputation and then dimension reduction)? This is linked to implementation of above problem. I have used R extensively earlier and tend to use transcan and impute function heavily for continuous variables and use a variation of tree method to impute categorical values. I have a working knowledge of Python so if something is nice out there for this purpose then I will use it. Any implementation pointers in python or R will be of great help. Thank you.

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  • IP Address Validation Help

    - by Zubair1
    I am using this IP Validation Function that I came across while browsing, it has been working well until today i ran into a problem. For some reason the function won't validate this IP as valid: 203.81.192.26 I'm not too great with regular expressions, so would appreciate any help on what could be wrong. If you have another function, I would appreciate if you could post that for me. The code for the function is below: public static function validateIpAddress($ip_addr) { global $errors; $preg = '#^(?:(?:25[0-5]|2[0-4][0-9]|[01]?[0-9][0-9]?)\.){3}' . '(?:25[0-5]|2[0-4][0-9]|[01]?[0-9][0-9]?)$#'; if(preg_match($preg, $ip_addr)) { //now all the intger values are separated $parts = explode(".", $ip_addr); //now we need to check each part can range from 0-255 foreach($parts as $ip_parts) { if(intval($ip_parts) > 255 || intval($ip_parts) < 0) { $errors[] = "ip address is not valid."; return false; } return true; } return true; } else { $errors[] = "please double check the ip address."; return false; } }

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  • Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

    - by latentflip
    Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

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  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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  • Java Days & Bookings

    - by sys_debug
    Ok this is an extension of a question I asked about earlier yet this is the next step that is unclear to me. Everything else will be ready and this part is driving me mad! some members provided great help and I already made progress with that info, but this is just another obstacle. I am creating a booking object (as was suggested) that will have a start date and end date. each booking will also have a number of seats associated with it (that I require to reserve). The total available number of seats any given day 46 (as the total capacity of the hall is 46 seats). so in assumption that I have a booking to be made in the system, and start date is 1st jan and end date is 10th jan. The question is how can I check the remaining seats in all those days between the range to see if requested number could be hosted or not? and then when the second booking is made, it will have to see that the days in this range already have less than 46 and decrement further if possible to host the reservation. one of the members, and I appreciate his effort, gladly contributed a method to compare if this booking is after or before the existing bookings. The code provided is here: public boolean overlapsWithExisting(Booking booking) { final Date early = booking.getStart(); final Date late = booking.getEnd(); for(Booking existing : existingBookings) { if(!(early.isAfter(existing.getEnd() || late.isBefore(existing.getStart())) return true; } return false; } I just want to know how to associate 46 with each day and keep record of days that are decremented by bookings. Thanks and reallllllly appreciated :D

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  • How to Sort a TreeList in Sitecore 6 in the Source

    - by Scott
    My team uses Sitecore 6 as content management system and then .Net to interface with Sitecore API. In many of our templates we make use of a Treelist. When adding a new item to the selected items Treelist it automatically puts the item at the bottom of the list. In some lists they get very large. In most cases end users would like to see these lists sorted descending by a Date field that is part of the templates that can be added as selected to the Treelist. Programmatically on the .Net side its very easy to handle this using Linq OrderByDescending and all displays great in the site to visitors. What I am trying to figure out is how to get it to display the same in Sitecore Content Editor. I've not found anything from Google search other than there seems to be a SortBy you can specify in the source but I tried this and can't get it to have any effect. Has anyone dealt with this before? Again, main goal is to sort items in a Treelist in the Sitecore Content Editor itself. Thanks for any input anyone has.

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  • In ActionScript, is there a way to test for existence of variable with datatype "Function"

    - by Robusto
    So I have a class where I instantiate a variable callback like so: public var callback:Function; So far so good. Now, I want to add an event listener to this class and test for existence of the callback. I'm doing like so: this.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, function(event:MouseEvent) : void { if (callback) { // do some things } }); This works great, doesn't throw any errors, but everywhere I test for callback I get the following warning: 3553: Function value used where type Boolean was expected. Possibly the parentheses () are missing after this function reference. That bugged me, so I tried to get rid of the warning by testing for null and undefined. Those caused errors. I can't instantiate a Function as null, either. I know, I know, real programmers only care about errors, not warnings. I will survive if this situation is not resolved. But it bothers me! :) Am I just being neurotic, or is there actually some way to test whether a real Function has been created without the IDE bitching about it?

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  • How can I automatically highlight a specific character in link text using JQuery + CSS?

    - by Chris McCall
    I'm adding hotkeys to a web application in order to enable keyboard shortcuts for our CSRs to use, to reduce injury and increase calls-per-hour. I'm using an ASP.net UserControl to inject javascript into the page and it's working great. I want the control to "just work", so that when hotkeys are assigned, using a declarative syntax, if the hotkeyed letter exists in the link text, it will be highlighted automatically, so the developer doesn't have to do anything, and also to maintain consistency in visual cues. Here's the code to assign hotkeys, if it matters: <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="true"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnInvoiceEverBill" KeyCode="ctrl+v" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnRefund" KeyCode="ctrl+u" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+p" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> I want something like: <a href="whatever" name="thirdControl">Make a <span class=hotkey">P</span>ayment</a> ...but I'm not married to the idea of injecting a <span/> in there if there's a better way. How can I do this in CSS or JQuery? Is there a way to pass in a letter to a CSS style and have it change the color of the text displayed? Should I generate javascript to highlight the text when the page loads? What would/did you do in this situation?

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