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  • Some clarification on rvalue references

    - by Dennis Zickefoose
    First: where are std::move and std::forward defined? I know what they do, but I can't find proof that any standard header is required to include them. In gcc44 sometimes std::move is available, and sometimes its not, so a definitive include directive would be useful. When implementing move semantics, the source is presumably left in an undefined state. Should this state necessarily be a valid state for the object? Obviously, you need to be able to call the object's destructor, and be able to assign to it by whatever means the class exposes. But should other operations be valid? I suppose what I'm asking is, if your class guarantees certain invariants, should you strive to enforce those invariants when the user has said they don't care about them anymore? Next: when you don't care about move semantics, are there any limitations that would cause a non-const reference to be preferred over an rvalue reference when dealing with function parameters? void function(T&); over void function(T&&); From a caller's perspective, being able to pass functions temporary values is occasionally useful, so it seems as though one should grant that option whenever it is feasible to do so. And rvalue references are themselves lvalues, so you can't inadvertently call a move-constructor instead of a copy-constructor, or something like that. I don't see a downside, but I'm sure there is one. Which brings me to my final question. You still can not bind temporaries to non-const references. But you can bind them to non-const rvalue references. And you can then pass along that reference as a non-const reference in another function. void function1(int& r) { r++; } void function2(int&& r) { function1(r); } int main() { function1(5); //bad function2(5); //good } Besides the fact that it doesn't do anything, is there anything wrong with that code? My gut says of course not, since changing rvalue references is kind of the whole point to their existence. And if the passed value is legitimately const, the compiler will catch it and yell at you. But by all appearances, this is a runaround of a mechanism that was presumably put in place for a reason, so I'd just like confirmation that I'm not doing anything foolish.

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  • A better UPDATE method in LINQ to SQL

    - by Refracted Paladin
    The below is a typical, for me, Update method in L2S. I am still fairly new to a lot of this(L2S & business app development) but this just FEELs wrong. Like there MUST be a smarter way of doing this. Unfortunately, I am having trouble visualizing it and am hoping someone can provide an example or point me in the right direction. To take a stab in the dark, would I have a Person Object that has all these fields as Properties? Then what, though? Is that redundant since L2S already mapped my Person Table to a Class? Is this just 'how it goes', that you eventually end up passing 30 parameters(or MORE) to an UPDATE statement at some point? For reference, this is a business app using C#, WinForms, .Net 3.5, and L2S over SQL 2005 Standard. Here is a typical Update Call for me. This is in a file(BLLConnect.cs) with other CRUD methods. Connect is the name of the DB that holds tblPerson When a user clicks save() this is what is eventually called with all of these fields having, potentially, been updated-- public static void UpdatePerson(int personID, string userID, string titleID, string firstName, string middleName, string lastName, string suffixID, string ssn, char gender, DateTime? birthDate, DateTime? deathDate, string driversLicenseNumber, string driversLicenseStateID, string primaryRaceID, string secondaryRaceID, bool hispanicOrigin, bool citizenFlag, bool veteranFlag, short ? residencyCountyID, short? responsibilityCountyID, string emailAddress, string maritalStatusID) { using (var context = ConnectDataContext.Create()) { var personToUpdate = (from person in context.tblPersons where person.PersonID == personID select person).Single(); personToUpdate.TitleID = titleID; personToUpdate.FirstName = firstName; personToUpdate.MiddleName = middleName; personToUpdate.LastName = lastName; personToUpdate.SuffixID = suffixID; personToUpdate.SSN = ssn; personToUpdate.Gender = gender; personToUpdate.BirthDate = birthDate; personToUpdate.DeathDate = deathDate; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseNumber = driversLicenseNumber; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseStateID = driversLicenseStateID; personToUpdate.PrimaryRaceID = primaryRaceID; personToUpdate.SecondaryRaceID = secondaryRaceID; personToUpdate.HispanicOriginFlag = hispanicOrigin; personToUpdate.CitizenFlag = citizenFlag; personToUpdate.VeteranFlag = veteranFlag; personToUpdate.ResidencyCountyID = residencyCountyID; personToUpdate.ResponsibilityCountyID = responsibilityCountyID; personToUpdate.EmailAddress = emailAddress; personToUpdate.MaritalStatusID = maritalStatusID; personToUpdate.UpdateUserID = userID; personToUpdate.UpdateDateTime = DateTime.Now; context.SubmitChanges(); } }

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  • Navigation bar(s) disappear when the window gets too small

    - by Leron
    The title maybe is a little misleading but I'm not 100% sure how this effect is called. I'm pretty sure what I meant is that my navigation bar is disappearing instead of collapsing. However my set up is this - I am working on the Layout view of ASP.NET MVC 4 project. I'm using bootstrap 3x but also have included jQuery libs so my <head> part is like this: @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/bootstrap.min.js") @Styles.Render("~/Content/bootstrap.css") @Styles.Render("~/Content/themes/base/jquery.ui.smoothness.css") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-2.0.3.min.js") @Scripts.Render("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.10.3.min.js") //just skipped the standard stuff In the body I want to have two navbars and one side menu which will be the same for all my pages but I've noticed that when I start to narrow the window at some point instead of getting an effect similar to this example (noticed how the elements get repositioned) I just got both my navbars gone, I can't see them. The markup for my first navbar is this : <div class="navbar navbar-static-top navbar-inverse navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation"> <ul class="nav navbar-nav "> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> <li><a href="#">Info</a></li> </ul> </div> and the second one is : <div class="navbar navbar-collapse collapse" role="navigation" id="main-navigation-bar"> <ul class="nav nav-pills nav-justified"> <li style="border: 1px solid grey"><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link</a></li> </ul> In fact the only thing left in my _Layout body is this: <div class="container-fluid"> @RenderBody() </div> which is just for compiling purposes and renders this view : <p>1</p> <p>2</p> <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>5</p> So when I make the window small enough so that my navbars disappear the only thing left is 1..5 numbers from the rendered view. I tested with only one navbar (commented the other) - no matter which one is commented, when I narrow the window I loose the navbar. How can I keep them using bootstrap 3x?

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  • SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

    - by Workshop Alex
    I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

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  • How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

    - by Vincent
    Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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  • User Defined Exceptions with JMX

    - by Daniel
    I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

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  • Blending pixels from Two Bitmaps

    - by MarkPowell
    I'm beating my head against a wall here, and I'm fairly certain I'm doing something stupid, so time to make my stupidity public. I'm trying to take two images, blend them together into a third image using standard blending algorithms (Hardlight, softlight, overlay, multiply, etc). Because Android does not have such blend properties build in, I've gone down the path of taking each pixel and combine them using an algorithm. However, the results are garbage. Any help would be appreciated. Below is the code, which I've tried to strip out all the "junk", but some may have made it through. I'll clean it up if something isn't clear. Bitmap src = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.base, options); Bitmap mutableBitmap = src.copy(Bitmap.Config.RGB_565, true); int imageId = getResources().getIdentifier("drawable/" + filter, null, getPackageName()); Bitmap filterBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), imageId, options); float scaleWidth = ((float) mutableBitmap.getWidth()) / filterBitmap.getWidth(); float scaleHeight = ((float) mutableBitmap.getHeight()) / filterBitmap.getHeight(); IntBuffer buffSrc = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffSrc); buffSrc.rewind(); IntBuffer buffFilter = IntBuffer.allocate(resizedFilterBitmap.getWidth() * resizedFilterBitmap.getHeight()); resizedFilterBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffFilter); buffFilter.rewind(); IntBuffer buffOut = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); buffOut.rewind(); while (buffOut.position() < buffOut.limit()) { int filterInt = buffFilter.get(); int srcInt = buffSrc.get(); int alphaValueFilter = Color.alpha(filterInt); int redValueFilter = Color.red(filterInt); int greenValueFilter = Color.green(filterInt); int blueValueFilter = Color.blue(filterInt); int alphaValueSrc = Color.alpha(srcInt); int redValueSrc = Color.red(srcInt); int greenValueSrc = Color.green(srcInt); int blueValueSrc = Color.blue(srcInt); int alphaValueFinal = convert(alphaValueFilter, alphaValueSrc); int redValueFinal = convert(redValueFilter, redValueSrc); int greenValueFinal = convert(greenValueFilter, greenValueSrc); int blueValueFinal = convert(blueValueFilter, blueValueSrc); int pixel = Color.argb(alphaValueFinal, redValueFinal, greenValueFinal, blueValueFinal); buffOut.put(pixel); } buffOut.rewind(); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer(buffOut); BitmapDrawable drawable = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), mutableBitmap); imageView.setImageDrawable(drawable); } int convert (int in1, int in2) { //simple multiply for example return in1 * in2 / 255; }

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  • When is ¦ not equal to ¦?

    - by Trey Jackson
    Background. I'm working with netlists, and in general, people specify different hierarchies by using /. However, it's not illegal to actually use a / as a part of an instance name. For example, X1/X2/X3/X4 might refer to instance X4 inside another instance named X1/X2/X3. Or it might refer an instance named X3/X4 inside an instance named X2 inside an instance named X1. Got it? There's really no "regular" character that cannot be used as a part of an instance name, so you resort to a non-printable one, or ... perhaps one outside of the standard 0..127 ASCII chars. I thought I'd try (decimal) 166, because for me it shows up as the pipe: ¦. So... I've got some C++ code which constructs the path name using ¦ as the hierarchical separator, so the path above looks like X1¦X2/X3¦X4. Now the GUI is written in Tcl/Tk, and to properly translate this into human readable terms I need to do something like the following: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set humanreadable [join [split $path ¦] /] Basically, replace the ¦ with / (I could also accomplish this with [string map]). Now, the problem is, the ¦ in the string I get from C++ doesn't match the ¦ I can create in Tcl. i.e. This fails: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 string match $path [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] Visually, the two strings look identical, but string match fails. I even tried using scan to see if I'd mixed up the bit values. But set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set path2 [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] for {set i 0} {$i < [string length $path]} {incr i} { set p [string range $path $i $i] set p2 [string range $path2 $i $i] scan %c $p c scan %c $p2 c2 puts [list $p $c :::: $p2 $c2 equal? [string equal $c $c2]] } Produces output which looks like everything should match, except the [string equal] fails for the ¦ characters with a print line: ¦ 166 :::: ¦ 166 equal? 0 For what it's worth, the character in C++ is defined as: const char SEPARATOR = 166; Any ideas why a character outside the regular ASCII range would fail like this? When I changed the separator to (decimal) 28 (^\), things worked fine. I just don't want to get bit by a similar problem on a different platform. (I'm currently using Redhat Linux).

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  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

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  • Approach for authentication and storing user details.

    - by cappuccino
    Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

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  • RAD Visual Web Application Creator/ Builder/ Designer for PHP

    - by inhoue
    Hi all, I want to see if any of you know a (free and open source will be ideal) tool/ app that can help build a php web application very quickly without investing too much time on writing codes, preferring drag and drop/ point and click work-flow designer for logic design (see Agile from Outsystems below). Plus, visual designer for the business logic is great since it can help a developer visualize the logic better. There are a lot of GUI builders, form builders out there, but I am looking for one app for the entire web application development process. My goal is to find an application that a team of developers can use together and use the build-in code of the app as much as possible. E.g. the app will provide a modular just for handle user login or a shopping cart; a developer just need to drag and drop the modular to the logic designer and the code will be generated. This way the functionality will be in a module and code will always be standard across developers. So if a new developer get on-board, he will just need to use the system and get up and running quickly. To explain this better: there is a lot php frameworks, e.g. cakephp, CodeIgniter, etc which I can use to help coding, but still I need to create (code) the GUI, writing quite a bit of codes. I am looking for a tool/ app that is a little more high level than those frameworks. Here is 2 examples apps I found during my google search which they have visual logic designer and gui builder in one single app. Also a single click deployment (but I need it to be php apps or at least I can deploy the (php) code to a LAMP/ WAMP server): Wavemaker: for JAVA Agile from Outsystems: for JAVA or .net (This one is really good, with work-flow drag and drop logic designer!) Talend: it is just an ETL tool, but the concept is what I want to bring up. Drag and drop, point and click logic design. Custom code can be added if it is needed, but the drag and drop process already finished the structure and most of the coding of the web app one needs to build. I want to list Adobe Flex, but it is more like a GUI designer + IDE, not exactly what I want to describe here. The drag and drop/ work-flow logic designer is a key for the app. I could go for the CMS route by learning how to extend them, but it is not that flexible for me and is a long learning curve. Anybody came across this type of app before? Or any idea of how can I find those apps? I googled them for long time, I don't see any of them for php and just few (just 2) for Java. Thanks in advance!

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  • Implementing coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

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  • Why are my USB 2.0 devices hanging Windows XP?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Background on the machine I'm having a problem with: The machine was inherited and appears to be circa 2003 (there's a date stamp on the power supply which leads me to this conclusion). I've got it set up as a Skype terminal for my 2 year old to keep in touch with her grandparents and other members of the family - which everyone loves. It has a generic ATX motherboard with no identifying markings other than one stamp that says "Rev.B". CPU-Z identifies the motherboard model as VT8601 but doesn't provide me with any manufacturer name. On board it has 1 x 10/100 LAN, 2 x USB 1.0, VGA, PS/2 for KB and mouse, parallel port, 2 x serial ports, 2 x IDE, 1 x floppy, 2 x SDRAM slots, 1 x CPU housing that is seating a 1.3GHz Intel Celeron CPU, 3 x PCI, 1 x AGP - although you can only use 2 of the PCI slots if you use the AGP slot due to the physical layout of the board. It's got 768Mb PC133 SDRAM - 1 x 512Mb & 1 x 256Mb installed as well as a D-LINK WDA-2320 54G Wi-Fi network card and a generic USB 2.0 expansion board containing 3 x external + 1 x internal USB connectors - it has a NEC uPD720102 chipset. It has a DVD+/-RW running as master on IDE1 and a 1.44Mb 3.5" floppy drive connected to the floppy connector. It has an 80Gb Western Digital hard drive running as master on IDE0. All this is sitting in a slimline case. I don't know the wattage of the PSU, but can post this later if this proves to be helpful. The motherboard is running a version of Award BIOS for which I don't have the version number to hand but can again post this later if it would be helpful. The hard disk is freshly formatted and built with Windows XP Professional/Service Pack 3 and is up to date with all current patches. In addition to Windows XP, the only other software it's running is Skype 4.1 (4.2 hangs the whole machine as soon as it starts up, requiring a hard boot to recover). It's got a Daytek MV150 15" touch screen hooked up to the on board VGA and COM1 sockets with the most current drivers from the Daytek website and the most current version of ELO-Touchsystems drivers for the touch component. The webcam is a Logitech Webcam C200 with the latest drivers from the Logitech website. The problem: If I hook any devices to the USB 2.0 sockets, it hangs the whole machine and I have to hard boot it to get it back up. If I have any devices attached to the USB 2.0 sockets when I boot up, it hangs before Windows gets to the login prompt and I have to hard boot it to recover. Workarounds found: I can plug the same devices into the on board USB 1.0 sockets and everything works fine, albeit at reduced performance. I've tried 3 different kinds of USB thumb drives, 3 different makes/models of webcams and my iPhone all with the same effect. They're recognized and don't hang the machine when I hook them to the USB 1.0 but if I hook them to the USB 2.0 ports, the machine hangs within a couple of seconds of recognizing the devices were connected. Attempted solutions: I've seen suggestions that this could be a power problem - that the PSU just doesn't have the wattage to drive these ports. While I'm doubtful this is the problem [after all the motherboard has the same standard connector regardless of the PSU wattage], I tried disabling all the on board devices that I'm not using - on board LAN, the second COM port, the AGP connector etc. through the BIOS in what I'm sure is a futile attempt to reduce the power consumption... I also modified the ACPI and power management settings. It didn't have any noticeable affect, although it didn't do any harm either. Could the wattage of the PSU really cause this problem? If it can, is there anything I need to be aware of when replacing it or do I just need to make sure it's got a higher wattage than the current one? My interpretation was that the wattage only affected the number of drives you could hook up to the power connectors, is that right? I've installed the USB card in another machine and it works without issue, so it's not a problem with the USB card itself, and Windows says the card is installed and working correctly... right up until I connect a device to it. The only thing I haven't done which I only just thought of while writing this essay is trying the USB 2.0 card in a different PCI slot, or re-ordering the wi-fi and USB cards in the slots... although I'm not sure if this will make any difference - does anyone have any experience that would suggest this might work? Other thoughts/questions: Perhaps this is an incompatibility between the USB 2.0 card and the BIOS, would re-flashing the BIOS with a newer version help? Do I need to be able to identify the manufacturer of the motherboard in order to be able to find a BIOS edition specific for this motherboard or will any version of Award BIOS function in its place? Question: Does anyone have any ideas that could help me get my USB 2.0 devices hooked up to this machine? Edit: Updated the USB 2.0 info with reference to actual card - http://www.xpcgear.com/lpnec4u.html

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  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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  • making an array controller the target of a button

    - by ian
    I am working through a chapter of COCOA PROGRAMMING FOR MAC OS X (3RD EDITION) on NSArrayController and it tells me to: Control-Drag to make the array controller become the target of the Add New Employee button. Set the action to add: However when I drag over the array controller it does not highlight so I get no target options. How do I do this correctly in the new XCode full size image document.h: // // Document.h // RaiseMan // // Created by user on 11/12/11. // Copyright (c) 2011 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. // #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Document : NSDocument { NSMutableArray *employees; } @end document.m: // // Document.m // RaiseMan // // Created by user on 11/12/11. // Copyright (c) 2011 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. // #import "Document.h" @implementation Document - (id)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { employees = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [self setEmployees:nil]; [super dealloc]; } -(void)setEmployees:(NSMutableArray *)a { //this is an unusual setter method we are goign to ad a lot of smarts in the next chapter if (a == employees) return; [a retain]; [employees release]; employees = a; } - (NSString *)windowNibName { // Override returning the nib file name of the document // If you need to use a subclass of NSWindowController or if your document supports multiple NSWindowControllers, you should remove this method and override -makeWindowControllers instead. return @"Document"; } - (void)windowControllerDidLoadNib:(NSWindowController *)aController { [super windowControllerDidLoadNib:aController]; // Add any code here that needs to be executed once the windowController has loaded the document's window. } - (NSData *)dataOfType:(NSString *)typeName error:(NSError **)outError { /* Insert code here to write your document to data of the specified type. If outError != NULL, ensure that you create and set an appropriate error when returning nil. You can also choose to override -fileWrapperOfType:error:, -writeToURL:ofType:error:, or -writeToURL:ofType:forSaveOperation:originalContentsURL:error: instead. */ NSException *exception = [NSException exceptionWithName:@"UnimplementedMethod" reason:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ is unimplemented", NSStringFromSelector(_cmd)] userInfo:nil]; @throw exception; return nil; } - (BOOL)readFromData:(NSData *)data ofType:(NSString *)typeName error:(NSError **)outError { /* Insert code here to read your document from the given data of the specified type. If outError != NULL, ensure that you create and set an appropriate error when returning NO. You can also choose to override -readFromFileWrapper:ofType:error: or -readFromURL:ofType:error: instead. If you override either of these, you should also override -isEntireFileLoaded to return NO if the contents are lazily loaded. */ NSException *exception = [NSException exceptionWithName:@"UnimplementedMethod" reason:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ is unimplemented", NSStringFromSelector(_cmd)] userInfo:nil]; @throw exception; return YES; } + (BOOL)autosavesInPlace { return YES; } - (void)setEmployees:(NSMutableArray *)a; @end person.h: // // Person.h // RaiseMan // // Created by user on 11/12/11. // Copyright (c) 2011 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. // #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *personName; float expectedRaise; } @property (readwrite, copy) NSString *personName; @property (readwrite) float expectedRaise; @end person.m: // // Person.m // RaiseMan // // Created by user on 11/12/11. // Copyright (c) 2011 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. // #import "Person.h" @implementation Person - (id) init { self = [super init]; expectedRaise = 5.0; personName = @"New Person"; return self; } - (void)dealloc { [personName release]; [super dealloc]; } @synthesize personName; @synthesize expectedRaise; @end

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  • If we don't like it for the presentation layer, then why do we tolerate it for the behavior layer?

    - by greim
    Suppose CSS as we know it had never been invented, and the closest we could get was to do this: <script> // this is the page's stylesheet $(document).ready(function(){ $('.error').css({'color':'red'}); $('a[href]').css({'textDecoration':'none'}); ... }); </script> If this was how we were forced to write code, would we put up with it? Or would every developer on Earth scream at browser vendors until they standardized upon CSS, or at least some kind of declarative style language? Maybe CSS isn't perfect, but hopefully it's obvious how it's better than the find things, do stuff method shown above. So my question is this. We've seen and tasted of the glory of declarative binding with CSS, so why, when it comes to the behavioral/interactive layer, does the entire JavaScript community seem complacent about continuing to use the kludgy procedural method described above? Why for example is this considered by many to be the best possible way to do things: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.widget').append("<a class='button' href='#'>...</div>"); $('a[href]').click(function(){...}); ... }); </script> Why isn't there a massive push to get XBL2.0 or .htc files or some kind of declarative behavior syntax implemented in a standard way across browsers? Is this recognized as a need by other web development professionals? Is there anything on the horizon for HTML5? (Caveats, disclaimers, etc: I realize that it's not a perfect world and that we're playing the hand we've been dealt. My point isn't to criticize the current way of doing things so much as to criticize the complacency that exists about the current way of doing things. Secondly, event delegation, especially at the root level, is a step closer to having a declarative behavior layer. It solves a subset of the problem, but it can't create UI elements, so the overall problem remains.)

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  • HTML-like GUI Framework in Java

    - by wintermute
    I was recently brought onto a project where we are developing a lot GUI elements for BlackBerry devices. The standard RIM APIs are pretty basic, almost never do what is required and are difficult or impossible to extend, so we end up re-implementing chunks of it. Currently the code we have isn't super organized and factored so there are lots of little tricks that get implemented over and over again. I had a thought about how to aid development efforts on this platform and wanted to see if the community could tell me if I'm still sane or if I've gone totally nuts. By far, the biggest organizational problem I've run into is making sure that each screen is laid out properly with proper padding and such. The current approach is to manually keep track of padding like so: protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { final int padding = 5; int y = padding; int x = padding; layoutChild(_someChild, width - padding * 2, height / 3 - padding * 2); setPositionChild(_someChild, x, y); y += _someChild.getHeight() + padding; // Calculate where to start drawing next. /* ... snipped ... */ } As you can see, positioning elements on a screen is a nightmare due to the tedium. I have investigated other GUI frameworks but, for a variety of reasons, it is difficult to find one that suites our purposes. One potential solution that came to me is to create a GUI framework who's API resembles HTML/CSS. This would allow for things like padding, margins, borders and colours to be handled through a sort of CSS API while the content would be organized using the HTML part of the API. It might look something like this: public class OptionsScreen extends Document { public OptionsScreen() { // You would set the style (like CSS style) through the constructor. Div content = new Div(new Style(new Padding(5), Color.BLACK)); // Then build up a tree of elements which can each have their own style's. // Each element knows how to draw itself, but it doesn't have to worry about // manually handling things like padding. // content.addChild(new P("This is a paragraph", new Style(new Padding(), Color.RED))); Ul list = new Ul(); list.addChild(new Li("item 1")); list.addChild(new Li("item 2")); content.addChild(list); addChild(content); } } I can imagine this making it easier to customize the UI of our app (which is very important) with different fonts, colours and layouts. Does this idea belong on The Daily WTF or do you think there is some promise?

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  • Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed"

    - by aron
    My site was working fine with PayPal's sandbox, and then all of a sudden it stopped. Now I get the wonderful error Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed" This is my HTML: <body onload="document.Paypal.submit();"> <!-- item_number should get passed back --> <form name="Paypal" method="post" action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com cgi-bin/webscr" id="Paypal"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwUKLTkyNTEyNzc0NGRk0LKGvSMTla6LgHpbOsdk7iC0iXE=" /> </div> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWCALKhatPArLPtrsEAreImG4CweeH+AkCgMPhowcC+NaM4gQC+Y2VqwoCouzSnwEVXI9UvQxqI2UcdQ4SmcSWqfEZNw==" /> </div> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_cart" /> <input type="hidden" name="upload" value="1" /> <!-- The following is for itemized PayPal data instead of the aggregated version --> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_1" value="LEADING SKILLS 4/10/2012 6:00 PM Section: Members " /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_1" value="250.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="quantity_1" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="handling_cart" value="7.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="tax_cart" value="35.00" /> <!-- STANDARD DATA --> <input name="business" type="hidden" id="business" value="[email protected]" /> <input name="invoice" type="hidden" id="invoice" value="TS-1E8B59A0-B" /> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="0" /> <input name="currency_code" type="hidden" id="currency_code" value="USD" /> <input name="shipCountry" type="hidden" id="shipCountry" /> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/paypal/Complete.aspx?id=db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="cancel_returnUrl" type="hidden" id="cancel_returnUrl" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/ShoppingCart.aspx" /> <input type="hidden" name="cn" value="How did you hear about us?" /> <input name="custom" type="hidden" id="custom" value="db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="notify_url" type="hidden" id="notify_url" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/Paypal/IPN.aspx" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit Payment Info" style="display:none;" /> Processing Order.... </form> </body> Anyone have a clue what happened?

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  • Greasemonkey is getting an empty document.body on select Google pages.

    - by Brock Adams
    Hi, I have a Greasemonkey script that processes Google search results. But it's failing in a few instances, when xpath searches (and document body) appear to be empty. Running the code in Firebug's console works every time. It only fails in a Greasemonkey script. Greasemonkey sees an empty document.body. I've boiled the problem down to a test, greasemonkey script, below. I'm using Firefox 3.5.9 and Greasemonkey 0.8.20100408.6 (but earlier versions had the same problem). Problem: Greasemonkey sees an empty document.body. Recipe to Duplicate: Install the Greasemonkey script. Open a new tab or window. Navigate to Google.com (http://www.google.com/). Search on a simple term like "cats". Check Firefox's Error console (Ctrl-shift-J) or Firebug's console. The script will report that document body is empty. Hit refresh. The script will show a good result (document body found). Note that the failure only reliably appears on Google results obtained this way, and on a new tab/window. Turn javascript off globally (javascript.enabled set to false in about:config). Repeat steps 2 thru 5. Only now the Greasemonkey script will work. It seems that Google javascript is killing the DOM tree for greasemonkey, somehow. I've tried a time-delayed retest and even a programmatic refresh; the script still fails to see the document body. Test Script: // // ==UserScript== // @name TROUBLESHOOTING 2 snippets // @namespace http://www.google.com/ // @description For code that has funky misfires and defies standard debugging. // @include http://*/* // ==/UserScript== // function LocalMain (sTitle) { var sUserMessage = ''; //var sRawHtml = unsafeWindow.document.body.innerHTML; //-- unsafeWindow makes no difference. var sRawHtml = document.body.innerHTML; if (sRawHtml) { sRawHtml = sRawHtml.replace (/^\s\s*/, ''). substr (0, 60); sUserMessage = sTitle + ', Doc body = ' + sRawHtml + ' ...'; } else { sUserMessage = sTitle + ', Document body seems empty!'; } if (typeof (console) != "undefined") { console.log (sUserMessage); } else { if (typeof (GM_log) != "undefined") GM_log (sUserMessage); else if (!sRawHtml) alert (sUserMessage); } } LocalMain ('Preload'); window.addEventListener ("load", function() {LocalMain ('After load');}, false);

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  • Check to see if CallResponder is processing

    - by Travesty3
    I'm using Flash Builder 4.6. As a simple example, say I have the following application: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:sdk="services.sdk.*"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { // ... } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <sdk:SDK id="sdk" fault="{Alert.show(event.fault.faultString +'\n\n'+ event.fault.faultDetail, 'SDK ERROR');}" showBusyCursor="false"/> <s:CallResponder id="getValueResult" result="getValueResultHandler()"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button id="btnGetValue" click="btnGetValue_clickHandler()" label="Get Value" /> </s:Application> So when you click on the button, it calls a PHP file and when it gets a result, it calls getValueResultHandler(). Easy enough. But what if the response from the PHP file takes a second or two and the user clicks the button rapidly? Then the result handler function may not get called every time, since the call responder gets a new token before it received the last response. Is there a standard way of resolving this issue? I came up with the following workaround, and it works fine, but it seems like this issue would be common enough to have a more built-in solution. My workaround is: var getValueResultProcessing:Boolean = false; private function btnGetValue_clickHandler():void { var interval:uint = setInterval(function():void { if (!getValueResultProcessing) { getValueResultProcessing = true; getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); clearInterval(interval); } }, 100); getValueResult.token = sdk.getValue(); } private function getValueResultHandler():void { getValueResultProcessing = false; // ... } Any better way of resolving this issue?

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  • color objects in C or C ++ [closed]

    - by jazz
    Possible Duplicate: Colors in C language i copied a game from a book which name is paratrooper i ask this question again i also provide the code of the objects which i create there i want to change the color of these objects but i didn't understand how to do that so can any one plz help me how to do that.Listen guys they are not the standard functions but i use the graphics library for these functions and i can't find the function in the library file of graphics. i hope u understand know.this code will not run properly so plz tell me something about the function which color it i can't put the image other wize i show u the image it will make alot easieer #include "graphics.h" #include "stdio.h" #include "conio.h" #include "process.h" #include "alloc.h" #include "stdlib.h" #include "math.h" #include "dos.h" main() { int gm=CGAHI, gd=CGA, key=0, area; initgraph(&gd, &gm, "C:\\tc\\bgi"); helidraw(246,50,-1); getch(); return 0; } helidraw ( int x, int y, int d ) { int direction, i, j ; if ( d ) direction = -1 ; else direction = 1 ; i = 3 ; j = 8 ; line ( x - j - 8, y - i - 2, x + j + 8, y - i - 2 ) ; line ( x - j + 5, y - i - 1, x + j - 5, y - i - 1 ) ; line ( x - j, y - i, x + j, y - i ) ; for ( ; i > 0 ; i--, j += 2 ) { putpixel ( x - ( direction * j ), y - i, 1 ) ; line ( x + ( direction * j ), y - i, x + ( direction * ( j - 8 ) ), y - i ) ; } i = 0 ; j -= 2 ; line ( x - ( direction * j ), y - i, x - ( direction * ( j + 17 ) ), y - i ) ; line ( x - ( direction * j ), y - i + 1, x - ( direction * ( j + 7 ) ), y - i + 1 ) ; putpixel ( x - ( direction * ( j + 19 ) ), y - i - 1, 1 ) ; for ( ; i < 3 ; i++, j -= 2 ) { putpixel ( x - j, y + i, 1 ) ; putpixel ( x + j, y + i, 1 ) ; } line ( x - j, y + i, x + j, y + i ) ; putpixel ( x - j + 3, y + i + 1, 1 ) ; putpixel ( x + j - 3, y + i + 1, 1 ) ; line ( x - j - 10, y + i + 2, x + j + 10, y + i + 2 ) ; putpixel ( x + ( direction * ( j + 12 ) ), y + i + 1, 1 ) ; }

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  • How to override loading a TImage from the object inspector (at run-time)?

    - by Mawg
    Further to my previous question, which did not get a useful answer despite a bounty, I will try rephrasing the question. Basically, when the user clicks the ellipsis in the object inspector, Delphi opens a file/open dialog. I want to replace this handling with my own, so that I can save the image's path. I would have expected that all I need to do is to derive a class from TImage and override the Assign() function, as in the following code. However, when I do the assign function is never called. So, it looks like I need to override something else, but what? unit my_Image; interface uses Classes, ExtCtrls, Jpeg, Graphics; type Tmy_Image = class(Timage) private FPicture : TPicture; protected procedure OnChange(Sender: TObject); public { Public declarations } Constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; procedure SetPicture(picture : TPicture); procedure Assign(Source: TPersistent); override; published { Published declarations - available in the Object Inspector at design-time } property Picture : TPicture read FPicture write SetPicture; end; // of class Tmy_Image() procedure Register; implementation uses Controls, Dialogs; procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Standard', [Tmy_Image]); end; Constructor Tmy_Image.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; // Call the parent Create method Hint := 'Add an image from a file|Add an image from a file'; // Tooltip | status bar text AutoSize := True; // Control resizes when contents change (new image is loaded) Height := 104; Width := 104; FPicture := TPicture.Create(); self.Picture.Bitmap.LoadFromResourceName(hInstance, 'picture_poperty_bmp'); end; procedure Tmy_Image.OnChange(Sender: TObject); begin Constraints.MaxHeight := Picture.Height; Constraints.MaxWidth := Picture.Width; Self.Height := Picture.Height; Self.Width := Picture.Width; end; procedure Tmy_Image.SetPicture(picture : TPicture); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.SetPicture', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; procedure Tmy_Image.Assign(Source: TPersistent); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.Assign', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; end.

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  • WPF ClickOnce Bootstrap Dection Failure on One Machine

    - by Dexter Morgan
    Hello Friend, I've decided to use ClickOnce technology to deploy my new WPF application. By and large, ClickOnce works as advertised but I've hit a minor glitch regarding Bootstrapping and framework detection. Some background: - I'm using the standard Visual Studio-generated publish.htm page as my launch page. - The only prerequisite is the .NET Framework 4.0 Client Profile. - All clients using IE 8. - All clients already have the .NET 4.0 Client Profile installed. ClickOnce works as advertised on the vast majority of machines. The VS-generated JScript correctly detects that the framework is installed and presents the user with a Run button. The app launches just fine. I'm getting odd results on one of the machines, however. On the offending machine, the VS-generated JScript tells the user that the prereqs may not be installed -- or rather, it FAILS to detect that the framework is already installed. The "launch" link successfully launches the application but the Run link points to the bootstrapper setup.exe. Why is it failing to detect the framework on this one machine? It occurred to me that framework detection is largely a matter of examining the useragent string that's submitted by the browser. So, what you see below are two UserAgent strings. The first is from a machine where things are working properly. The second is from the offending machine. THIS ONE WORKS: 2011-01-11 15:14:14 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 72.130.187.100 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+Media+Center+PC+5.0;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+.NET4.0C) 304 0 0 THIS ONE DOESN'T: 2011-01-11 18:49:12 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 76.212.204.169 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+GTB6.6;+SLCC2;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+Media+Center+PC+6.0;+.NET4.0C) 200 0 0 The useragent string of both machines clearly states, "hey the .NET 4.0 client profile is installed here" -- yet the second machine seems unable to detect it. I don't know enough about useragent strings to understand why the former works and the latter fails. The only difference as far as I can tell is that the offending machine is running 64bit. But that shouldn't make a difference. Should it? Any ideas? Dexter Morgan

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  • Any way to allow classes implementing IEntity and downcast to have operator == comparisons?

    - by George Mauer
    Basically here's the issue. All entities in my system are identified by their type and their id. new Customer() { Id = 1} == new Customer() {Id = 1}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Customer() {Id = 2}; new Customer() { Id = 1} != new Product() {Id = 1}; Pretty standard scenario. Since all Entities have an Id I define an interface for all entities. public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set;} } And to simplify creation of entities I make public abstract class BaseEntity<T> : where T : IEntity { int Id { get; set;} public static bool operator ==(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { if (object.ReferenceEquals(null, e1)) return false; return e1.Equals(e2); } public static bool operator !=(BaseEntity<T> e1, BaseEntity<T> e2) { return !(e1 == e2); } } where Customer and Product are something like public class Customer : BaseEntity<Customer>, IEntity {} public class Product : BaseEntity<Product>, IEntity {} I think this is hunky dory. I think all I have to do is override Equals in each entity (if I'm super clever, I can even override it only once in the BaseEntity) and everything with work. So now I'm expanding my test coverage and find that its not quite so simple! First of all , when downcasting to IEntity and using == the BaseEntity< override is not used. So what's the solution? Is there something else I can do? If not, this is seriously annoying. Upadate It would seem that there is something wrong with my tests - or rather with comparing on generics. Check this out [Test] public void when_created_manually_non_generic() { // PASSES! var e1 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; var e2 = new Terminal() {Id = 1}; Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } [Test] public void when_created_manually_generic() { // FAILS! GenericCompare(new Terminal() { Id = 1 }, new Terminal() { Id = 1 }); } private void GenericCompare<T>(T e1, T e2) where T : class, IEntity { Assert.IsTrue(e1 == e2); } Whats going on here? This is not as big a problem as I was afraid, but is still quite annoying and a completely unintuitive way for the language to behave. Update Update Ah I get it, the generic implicitly downcasts to IEntity for some reason. I stand by this being unintuitive and potentially problematic for my Domain's consumers as they need to remember that anything happening within a generic method or class needs to be compared with Equals()

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  • Strange performance behaviour for 64 bit modulo operation

    - by codymanix
    The last three of these method calls take approx. double the time than the first four. The only difference is that their arguments doesn't fit in integer anymore. But should this matter? The parameter is declared to be long, so it should use long for calculation anyway. Does the modulo operation use another algorithm for numbersmaxint? I am using amd athlon64 3200+, winxp sp3 and vs2008. Stopwatch sw = new Stopwatch(); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 3l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 2l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 1l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 1l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 2l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 3l); Console.ReadLine(); static void TestLong(Stopwatch sw, long num) { long n = 0; sw.Reset(); sw.Start(); for (long i = 3; i < 20000000; i++) { n += num % i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine(sw.Elapsed); } EDIT: I now tried the same with C and the issue does not occur here, all modulo operations take the same time, in release and in debug mode with and without optimizations turned on: #include "stdafx.h" #include "time.h" #include "limits.h" static void TestLong(long long num) { long long n = 0; clock_t t = clock(); for (long long i = 3; i < 20000000LL*100; i++) { n += num % i; } printf("%d - %lld\n", clock()-t, n); } int main() { printf("%i %i %i %i\n\n", sizeof (int), sizeof(long), sizeof(long long), sizeof(void*)); TestLong(3); TestLong(10); TestLong(131); TestLong(INT_MAX - 1L); TestLong(UINT_MAX +1LL); TestLong(INT_MAX + 1LL); TestLong(LLONG_MAX-1LL); getchar(); return 0; } EDIT2: Thanks for the great suggestions. I found that both .net and c (in debug as well as in release mode) does't not use atomically cpu instructions to calculate the remainder but they call a function that does. In the c program I could get the name of it which is "_allrem". It also displayed full source comments for this file so I found the information that this algorithm special cases the 32bit divisors instead of dividends which was the case in the .net application. I also found out that the performance of the c program really is only affected by the value of the divisor but not the dividend. Another test showed that the performance of the remainder function in the .net program depends on both the dividend and divisor. BTW: Even simple additions of long long values are calculated by a consecutive add and adc instructions. So even if my processor calls itself 64bit, it really isn't :( EDIT3: I now ran the c app on a windows 7 x64 edition, compiled with visual studio 2010. The funny thing is, the performance behavior stays the same, although now (I checked the assembly source) true 64 bit instructions are used.

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