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• Regular Expression doesn't match

  - by dododedodonl

  Hi All, I've got a regular expression in my cocoa-touch app (using RegexKitLite). NSString *week = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", [pageContent stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfRegex:@"<select name=\"week\" class=\"selectbox\" style='width:134' onChange=\"doDisplayTimetable(NavBar, topDir);\">(.+?)<option value=\"(.+?)\">(.+?)</option>" withString:@"$2"]]; I expect it to match with the section of this (what is in NSString pageContent): <span class="selection"> <nobr> Periode<br> <span class="absatz"> &nbsp;<br> </span> <select name="week" class="selectbox" style='width:134' onChange="doDisplayTimetable(NavBar, topDir);"> <option value="14">17-5 - 16-7</option> </select> </nobr> </span> But it doesn't... I need the value of the option, it is possible that there is more than one (in that case I need them both separated by a ,. Can someone help me out? Regards, Dodo

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• How to pass a parameter in a Javascript confirm function?

  - by Miles M.

  I have something like that in my code: <?php foreach($clients as $client): ?> <tr class="tableContent"> <td onclick="location.href='<?php echo site_url('clients/edit/'.$client->id ) ?>'"><?php echo $client->id ?></td> <td><a class='Right btn btn-danger' onClick="ConfirmMessage('client', <?php $client->id ?>,'clients')"> <i class="icon-remove-sign icon-white"></i> </a></td> </tr> <?php endforeach ?> that's actually the view. So when the user click on the delete button (thr one with the btn-danger class) I'd like him to confirm his choice with a javascript confirmation box message. You can find that script in the header <script> function ConfirmMessage(type, id, types) { if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this ",type," ?")) { // Clic sur OK document.location.href='<?php echo site_url(); ?>',types,'/delete/',id; } } </script> So here is my question: I would like the $type to be replaced by a paramenter (like client, article, post .. ) that I'll pass to the function. And i would like to get the $client-id parameter as well. I'm bad in javascript and as you already have guess, It is obviously not working at all.

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• Rails nested attributes with a join model, where one of the models being joined is a new record

  - by gzuki

  I'm trying to build a grid, in rails, for entering data. It has rows and columns, and rows and columns are joined by cells. In my view, I need for the grid to be able to handle having 'new' rows and columns on the edge, so that if you type in them and then submit, they are automatically generated, and their shared cells are connected to them correctly. I want to be able to do this without JS. Rails nested attributes fail to handle being mapped to both a new record and a new column, they can only do one or the other. The reason is that they are a nested specifically in one of the two models, and whichever one they aren't nested in will have no id (since it doesn't exist yet), and when pushed through accepts_nested_attributes_for on the top level Grid model, they will only be bound to the new object created for whatever they were nested in. How can I handle this? Do I have to override rails handling of nested attributes? My models look like this, btw: class Grid < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :rows has_many :columns has_many :cells, :through => :rows accepts_nested_attributes_for :rows, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } accepts_nested_attributes_for :columns, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } end class Column < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :rows, :through => :grid end class Row < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :columns, :through => :grid accepts_nested_attributes_for :cells end class Cell < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :row belongs_to :column has_one :grid, :through => :row end

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• .NET port with Java's Map, Set, HashMap

  - by Nikos Baxevanis

  I am porting Java code in .NET and I am stuck in the following lines that (behave unexpectedly in .NET). Java: Map<Set<State>, Set<State>> sets = new HashMap<Set<State>, Set<State>>(); Set<State> p = new HashSet<State>(); if (!sets.containsKey(p)) { ... } The equivalent .NET code could possibly be: IDictionary<HashSet<State>, HashSet<State>> sets = new Dictionary<HashSet<State>, HashSet<State>>(); HashSet<State> p = new HashSet<State>(); if (!sets.containsKey(p)) { /* (Add to a list). Always get here in .NET (??) */ } However the code comparison fails, the program think that "sets" never contain Key "p" and eventually results in OutOfMemoryException. Perhaps I am missing something, object equality and identity might be different between Java and .NET. I tried implementing IComparable and IEquatable in class State but the results were the same. Edit: What the code does is: If the sets does not contain key "p" (which is a HashSet) it is going to add "p" at the end of a LinkedList. The State class (Java) is a simple class defined as: public class State implements Comparable<State> { boolean accept; Set<Transition> transitions; int number; int id; static int next_id; public State() { resetTransitions(); id = next_id++; } // ... public int compareTo(State s) { return s.id - id; } public boolean equals(Object obj) { return super.equals(obj); } public int hashCode() { return super.hashCode(); }

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• C++ -- Why should we use operator -> to access member functions of a SmartPtr?

  - by q0987

  Hello all, The question is given in the last two lines of code. template<class T> // template class for smart class SmartPtr { // pointers-to-T objects public: SmartPtr(T* realPtr = 0); T* operator->() const; T& operator*() const; T* Detach( void ) { T* pData = pointee; pointee = NULL; return pData; } private: T *pointee; ... }; class TestClass {} SmartPtr<TestClass> sPtr(new TestClass); TestClass* ptrA = sPtr->Detach(); // why I always see people use this method to access member functions of a Smart pointer. We can use sPtr-> b/c we have defined operator->() in SmartPtr. TestClass* ptrB = sPtr.Detach(); // Question: Is this a valid C++ way? If not, why? Thank you

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• How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

  - by sycobuny

  I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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• Nhibernate, can i improve my MAPPING or Query

  - by dbones

  take this simple example A staff class which references other instances of the staff class public class Staff { public Staff() { Team = new List<Staff>(); } public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Staff> Team { get; set; } public virtual Staff Manager { get; set; } } The Fluent Mapping public class StaffMap : ClassMap<Staff> { public StaffMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); References(x => x.Manager).Column("ManagerId"); HasMany(x => x.Team).KeyColumn("ManagerId").Inverse(); } } Now I want to run a query, which will load all the Staff and eager load the manager and Team members. This is what I came up with IList<Staff> resutls = session.CreateCriteria<Staff>() .SetFetchMode("Team", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.DistinctRootEntity) .List<Staff>(); however the SQL (does what i want) has duplicate columns, 2 team2_.ManagerId and 2 team2_.Id SELECT this_.Id as Id0_1_, this_.Name as Name0_1_, this_.ManagerId as ManagerId0_1_, team2_.ManagerId as ManagerId3_, team2_.Id as Id3_, team2_.Id as Id0_0_, team2_.Name as Name0_0_, team2_.ManagerId as ManagerId0_0_ FROM [SelfRef].[dbo].[Staff] this_ left outer join [SelfRef].[dbo].[Staff] team2_ on this_.Id=team2_.ManagerId The question is, should this be happening? did i do something wrong in the query or map? or is it a feature of the HHib im using (which is Version 2.1.0.4000)? many thanks in advance

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• c++ Multiple Inheritance - Compiler modifying my pointers

  - by Bob

  If I run the following code, I get different addresses printed. Why? class Base1 { int x; }; class Base2 { int y; }; class Derived : public Base1, public Base2 { }; union U { Base2* b; Derived* d; U(Base2* b2) : b(b) {} }; int main() { Derived* d = new Derived; cout << d << "\n"; cout << U(d).d << "\n"; return 0; } Even more fun is if you repeatedly go in and out of the union the address keeps incrementing by 4, like this int main() { Derived* d = new Derived; cout << d << "\n"; d = U(d).d; cout << d << "\n"; d = U(d).d; cout << d << "\n"; return 0; } If the union is modified like this, then the problem goes away union U { void* v; Base2* b; Derived* d; U(void* v) : v(v) {} }; Also, if either base class is made empty, the problem goes away. Is this a compiler bug? I want it to leave my pointers the hell alone.

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• How to override part of an overload function in JavaScript

  - by Guan Yuxin

  I create a class with a function like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return -1; } basically it is just an overload function composed of index() and index(child). Then I create a sub class,SubObj or whatever, inherits from Obj SubObj.prototype.prototype=Obj; Now, it's time to override the index(child) function,however, index() is also in the function an I don't want to overwrite it too. One solution is to write like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return this._index(this); } Obj.prototype._index=function(this){ return -1; } SubObj.prototype._index=function(this){/* overwriteing */} But this will easily mislead other coders as _index(child) should be both private(should not be used except index() function) and public(is an overload function of index(),which is public) you guys have better idea?

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• jQuery code works for console but not in-page.

  - by justSteve

  I have a form element defined as: <div class="field"> <div class="name"> <label for="User_LastName"> Last name: <span class="asterisk">*</span></label> </div> <div class="value"> <%= Html.TextBox("User.LastName", Model.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("User.LastName")%> </div> </div> and a jQuery selector that is supposed to detect when the input gets focus and highlight the parent: $("input").focus(function() { //watching for an event where an input form comes into focus $(this) .parent() .addClass("curFocus") .children("div") .toggle(); }); If i paste this code into firebug's console - things work as planned. However, i'm running this from a 'RenderPartial' .net mvc page. Other jQuery code sitting within the same $(document).ready(function() { block work correctly. The form uses html helpers to generate the inputs which might complicate the process somewhat - but even so... i'm seeing correct behavior when that code's in console but not in a 'real-time' page. How do i troubleshoot this?

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• How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$eq(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

  - by feydr

  I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to teach myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

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• Empty UL inside LI element

  - by zorglub76

  Can anyone explain me why the hell UL element cannot be empty? And why this HTML: <ul> <li class="header"> <a href="#">Work</a> <ul/> </li> <li class="header"> <a href="#">New</a> <ul/> </li> <li class="header"> <a href="#">Ungrouped</a> <ul/> </li> <li class="header"> <a href="#">Offline</a> <ul/> </li> </ul> is rendered like this: Work --New ----Ungrouped ------Offline

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• Visual Studio 2010 compile error with std::string?

  - by AJG85

  So this is possibly the strangest thing I've seen recently and was curious how this could happen. The compiler gave me an error saying that std::string is undefined when used as a return type but not when used as a parameter in methods of a class! #pragma once #include <string> #include <vector> // forward declarations class CLocalReference; class CResultSetHandle; class MyClass { public: MyClass() {} ~MyClass {} void Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh, std::string& item); // this is fine const std::string Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh); // this fails with std::string is undefined?!?! }; Doing a Rebuild All it still happened I had to choose clean solution and then Rebuild All again after for the universe to realign. While it's resolved for the moment I'd still like to know what could have caused this because I'm at a loss as to why when there should be no conflicts especially when I always use fully qualified names for STL.

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• Mercurial Subrepos, how to control which changeset I want to use for a subrepo?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I am reading up on subrepos, and have been running some tests locally, seems to work OK so far, but I have one question. How do I specify/control which changeset I want to use for a particular subrepo? For instance, let's say I have the following two projects: class library application o fourth commit o second commit, added a feature | | o third commit o initial commit | | o second commit |/ o initial commit Now, I want the class library as a subrepo of my application, but due to the immaturity of the longest branch (the one ending up as fourth commit), I want to temporarily use the "second commit" tip. How do I go about configuring that, assuming it is even possible? Here's a batch file that sets up the above two repos + adds the library as a subrepo. If you run the batch file, it will output: [C:\Temp] :test ... v4 As you can see from that last line there, it verifies the contents of the file in the class library, which is "v4" from the fourth commit. I'd like it to be "v2", and persist as "v2" until I'm ready to pull down a newer version from the class library repository. Can anyone tell me if it is possible to do what I want, and if so, what I need to do in order to lock my subrepo to the right changeset? Batch-file: @echo off if exist app rd /s /q app if exist lib rd /s /q lib if exist app-clone rd /s /q app-clone rem == app == hg init app cd app echo program>main.txt hg add main.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo program+feature1>main.txt hg commit -m "second commit, added a feature" cd .. rem == lib == hg init lib cd lib echo v1>lib.txt hg add lib.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo v2>lib.txt hg commit -m "second commit" hg update 0 echo v3>lib.txt hg commit -m "third commit" echo v4>lib.txt hg commit -m "fourth commit" cd .. rem == subrepos == cd app hg clone ..\lib lib echo lib = ..\lib >.hgsub hg add .hgsub hg commit -m "added subrepo" cd .. rem == clone == hg clone app app-clone type app-clone\lib\lib.txt

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• Has anyone used ever Mangoslick from themeforest?

  - by bonesnatch

  I was assigned to integrate MangoSlick theme to our current admin panel, Its a jQuery, Slick(?) and Responsive template. First, let me explain how the API goes In the documentation, it only says this is the only way data-[options]=[value] Example: If I wanna make a progress bar I can use this format <div class="progress"> <div class="bar" data-title="[title]" data-value="[value]" data-max="[max]" data-format="[format string]"></div> </div> so filling-in values <div class="progress"> <div class="bar" data-title="Space" data-value="1285" data-max="5120" data-format="0,0 MB"></div> </div> I will have this as output Now, the main question is when I use jQuery attr() to change the attribute values for data-title, data-max, data-value and data-format. Why is it not working? <script> var jq = $.noConflict(); jq(document).ready(function(){ jq('#bokz').attr("data-title", "No Space"); }); </script> Using the script above and inspect element in chrome the values are changed but not in the progressbar Some of you may have some ideas on this? Any help/suggestion would be very much appreciated.

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• Why are controls (null) in awakeFromNib?

  - by fuzzygoat

  This is a follow on from another question regarding why I could not set UIControls in awakeFromNib. The answer to that is that as you can see below the controls are nil in the awakeFromNib, although they are initialised to the correct objects by the time we get to viewDidLoad. I setup the view the same as I always do, should I be doing something different to access them here, the xib(nib) was designed and saved with the current version of Image Builder. CODE: @interface iPhone_TEST_AwakeFromNibViewController : UIViewController { UILabel *myLabel; UIImageView *myView; } @property(nonatomic, retain)IBOutlet UILabel *myLabel; @property(nonatomic, retain)IBOutlet UIImageView *myView; @end . @synthesize myLabel; @synthesize myView; -(void)awakeFromNib { NSLog(@"awakeFromNib ..."); NSLog(@"myLabel: %@", [myLabel class]); NSLog(@"myView : %@", [myView class]); //[myLabel setText:@"AWAKE"]; [super awakeFromNib]; } -(void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"viewDidLoad ..."); NSLog(@"myLabel: %@", [myLabel class]); NSLog(@"myView : %@", [myView class]); //[myLabel setText:@"VIEW"]; [super viewDidLoad]; } OUTPUT: awakeFromNib ... myLabel: (null) myView : (null) viewDidLoad ... myLabel: UILabel myLabel: UIImageView Much appreciated ... gary

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• zend-framework doctrine, and mvc pattern: what should connect data between models and forms?

  - by Skirmantas

  I am learning Zend Framework and Doctrine. I am wondering what is the best practice to connect forms to models and vice versa. I don't know where I should put my code. I have seen in Zendcast video tutorials where author creates methods like mapFormToRecord and mapRecordToForm in form class. Well I guess it is very handy when form is sophisticated and uses many records. Is it a good practice? I somehow believe that form-class should not need to know about data-records. And sometimes we might have model which is used in many forms. So It would be handy to have few functions in that model which would help to prepare data for forms. For example to give an array of id=name pairs so that it might be used in Zend_Form_Element_Select. However I would like to have a consistency. So I don't want to put this code nor in model nor in form because on different situations I act different. So only controller is what is left to deal it. However this will result in code duplication if one form will be used more than in one controller. Moreover controller gets bloated if form is not from the simple ones. Or maybe there is a consistent pattern in those data conversions between forms and models? I think that there is. At least in my simple cases. So maybe a separate class could be a solution? Where should I put such class and how should I name it? Another question: Zend_Form has validators and filter. Doctrine has validators and filters too. Which do we use and when? What is your way of dealing the connections between forms and models? (Sorry if it was hard for you to read my text. I don't have enough knowledge of English language to express myself freely)

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• How to "pin" C++/CLI pointers

  - by Kumar

  I am wrapping up a class which reading a custom binary data file and makes the data available to a .net/c# class However a couple of lines down the code, i start getting the memory access violation error which i believe is due to the GC moving memory around, the class is managed Here's the code if ( ! reader.OpenFile(...) ) return ; foreach(string fieldName in fields) { int colIndex = reader.GetColIndex( fieldName ); int colType = reader.GetColType( colIndex ); // error is raised here on 2nd iteration } for ( int r = 0 ; r < reader.NumFields(); r++ ) { foreach(string fieldName in fields) { int colIndex = reader.GetColIndex( fieldName ); int colType = reader.GetColType( colIndex ); // error is raised here on 2nd iteration switch ( colType ) { case 0 : // INT processField( r, fieldName, reader.GetInt(r,colIndex) ); break ; .... } } } .... i've looked at interior_ptr, pin_ptr but they give an error c3160 cannot be in a managed class Any workaround ? BTW, this is my 1st C++ program in a very long time !

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• Where should test classes be stored in the project?

  - by limc

  I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

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• Make floating element "maximally wide"

  - by bobobobo

  I have some floating elements on a page. What I want is the div that is floated left to be "maximally wide" so that it is as wide as it possibly can be without causing the red div ("I go at the right") to spill over onto the next line. An example is here: The width:100%; doesn't produce the desired effect! ** I don't want the green element ("I want to be as wide as possible") to go "under" the red element. Its very important that they both stay separate i.e. .. I think they must both be floated! <div class="container"> <div class="a1">i go at the right</div> <div class="a2">i want to be as wide as possible,</div> <div class="clear"></div> </div> <style> div { border: solid 2px #000; background-color: #eee; margin: 8px; padding: 8px; } div.a1 { float:right; background-color: #a00; border: solid 2px #f00; margin: 12px; padding: 6px; } div.a2 { float: left; /*width: 100%;*/ /*this doens't produce desired effect!*/ background-color: #0b0; border: solid 2px #0f0; margin: 12px; padding: 14px; } .clear { border: none; padding: 0 ; margin: 0; clear:both; } </style>

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• GWT + JDO + ArrayList

  - by dvieira

  Hi, I'm getting a Null ArrayList in a program i'm developing. For testing purposes I created this really small example that still has the same problem. I already tried diferent Primary Keys, but the problem persists. Any ideas or suggestions? 1-Employee class @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Employee { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String key; @Persistent private ArrayList<String> nicks; public Employee(ArrayList<String> nicks) { this.setNicks(nicks); } public String getKey() { return key; } public void setNicks(ArrayList<String> nicks) { this.nicks = nicks; } public ArrayList<String> getNicks() { return nicks; } } 2-EmployeeService public class BookServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements EmployeeService { public void addEmployee(){ ArrayList<String> nicks = new ArrayList<String>(); nicks.add("name1"); nicks.add("name2"); Employee employee = new Employee(nicks); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); try { pm.makePersistent(employee); } finally { pm.close(); } } /** * @return * @throws NotLoggedInException * @gwt.typeArgs <Employee> */ public Collection<Employee> getEmployees() { PersistenceManager pm = getPersistenceManager(); try { Query q = pm.newQuery("SELECT FROM " + Employee.class.getName()); Collection<Employee> list = pm.detachCopyAll((Collection<Employee>)q.execute()); return list; } finally { pm.close(); } } }

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• How do you rename the child XML elements used in an XML Serialized List<string>?

  - by GrZeCh

  Hello, I'm serializing to XML my class where one of properties has type List<string>. public class MyClass { ... public List<string> Properties { get; set; } ... } XML created by serializing this class looks like this: <MyClass> ... <Properties> <string>somethinghere</string> <string>somethinghere</string> </Properties> ... </MyClass> and now my question. How can I change my class to achieve XML like this: <MyClass> ... <Properties> <Property>somethinghere</Property> <Property>somethinghere</Property> </Properties> ... </MyClass> after serializing. Thanks for any help!

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• C++ polymorphism and slicing

  - by Draco Ater

  The following code, prints out Derived Base Base But I need every Derived object put into User::items, call its own print function, but not the base class one. Can I achieve that without using pointers? If it is not possible, how should I write the function that deletes User::items one by one and frees memory, so that there should not be any memory leaks? #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class Base{ public: virtual void print(){ cout << "Base" << endl;} }; class Derived: public Base{ public: void print(){ cout << "Derived" << endl;} }; class User{ public: vector<Base> items; void add_item( Base& item ){ item.print(); items.push_back( item ); items.back().print(); } }; void fill_items( User& u ){ Derived d; u.add_item( d ); } int main(){ User u; fill_items( u ); u.items[0].print(); }

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• Problem with derived ControlTemplates in WPF

  - by Frank Fella

  The following xaml code works: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <ControlTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> Now, if you define the following data template: using System.Windows.Controls; namespace DerivedTemplateBug { public class DerivedTemplate : ControlTemplate { } } And then swap the ControlTemplate for the derived class: <Window x:Class="DerivedTemplateBug.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:DerivedTemplateBug" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Button> <Button.Template> <local:DerivedTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <TextBlock>Testing!</TextBlock> </Border> </local:DerivedTemplate> </Button.Template> </Button> </Window> You get the following error: Invalid ContentPropertyAttribute on type 'DerivedTemplateBug.DerivedTemplate', property 'Content' not found. Can anyone tell me why this is the case?

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• Rails creating users, roles, and projects

  - by Bobby

  I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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