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  • iPhone --- 3DES Encryption returns "wrong" results?

    - by Jan Gressmann
    Hello fellow developers, I have some serious trouble with a CommonCrypto function. There are two existing applications for BlackBerry and Windows Mobile, both use Triple-DES encryption with ECB mode for data exchange. On either the encrypted results are the same. Now I want to implent the 3DES encryption into our iPhone application, so I went straight for CommonCrypto: http://www.opensource.apple.com/source/CommonCrypto/CommonCrypto-32207/CommonCrypto/CommonCryptor.h I get some results if I use CBC mode, but they do not correspond with the results of Java or C#. Anyway, I want to use ECB mode, but I don't get this working at all - there is a parameter error showing up... This is my call for the ECB mode... I stripped it a little bit: const void *vplainText; plainTextBufferSize = [@"Hello World!" length]; bufferPtrSize = (plainTextBufferSize + kCCBlockSize3DES) & ~(kCCBlockSize3DES - 1); plainText = (const void *) [@"Hello World!" UTF8String]; NSString *key = @"abcdeabcdeabcdeabcdeabcd"; ccStatus = CCCrypt(kCCEncrypt, kCCAlgorithm3DES, kCCOptionECBMode, key, kCCKeySize3DES, nil, // iv, not used with ECB plainText, plainTextBufferSize, (void *)bufferPtr, // output bufferPtrSize, &movedBytes); t is more or less the code from here: http://discussions.apple.com/thread.jspa?messageID=9017515 But as already mentioned, I get a parameter error each time... When I use kCCOptionPKCS7Padding instead of kCCOptionECBMode and set the same initialization vector in C# and my iPhone code, the iPhone gives me different results. Is there a mistake by getting my output from the bufferPtr? Currently I get the encrypted stuff this way: NSData *myData = [NSData dataWithBytes:(const void *)bufferPtr length:(NSUInteger)movedBytes]; result = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:myData encoding:NSISOLatin1StringEncoding]; It seems I almost tried every setting twice, different encodings and so on... where is my error?

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  • How to maintain form state after Post-Redirect-Get in ASP.net?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Imagine a page with a form input: Search Criteria: crackers                   From: [email protected]           To: [email protected]       Subject: How to maintain form state with PRG? Message: Imagine a page with form input:                         Send After the user clicks Send, the server will instruct to client to Redirect, as part of the Post-Redirect-Get pattern. POST /mail/u/compose HTTP/1.1 303 See Other Location: http://stackoverflow.com/mail/u/compose And the client will issue a GET of the new page. The problem is that some elements of the existing form are lost: Search Criteria:                    It gets worse when there are a few drop-downs, and checkboxes. How can i maintain form state in using Post-Redirect-Get in ASP.net, given that the viewstate is then non-existent. Bonus Reading ASP.NET: How to redirect, prefilling form data?

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  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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  • In Mercurial, can I apply changes from one file to another file in the same branch?

    - by Stephen
    In the good old days of Subversion, I would sometimes derive a new file from an existing one using svn copy. Then if something changed in sections they had in common, I could still use svn merge to update the derived version. To use the example from hginit.com, say the "guac" recipe already exists, and I want to create a "superguac" that includes instructions on how to serve guacamole to 1000 raving soccer fans. Using the process I just described, I could: svn cp guac superguac svn ci -m "Created superguac by copying guac" (edit superguac) svn ci -m "Added instructions for serving 1000 raving soccer fans to superguac" (edit guac) svn ci -m "Fixed a typo in guac" svn merge -r3:4 guac superguac and thus the typo fix would be applied to superguac. Mercurial provides an hg copy command that marks a file as a copy of the original, but I'm not sure the repository structure supports a similar workflow. Here's the same example, and I carefully only edit a single file in the commit I want to use in the merge: hg cp guac superguac hg ci -m "Created superguac by copying guac" (edit superguac) hg ci -m "Added instructions for serving 1000 raving soccer fans to superguac" (edit guac) hg ci -m "Fixed a typo in guac" I now want to apply the change in guac to superguac. Is that possible? If so, what's the right command? Is there a different workflow in Mercurial that achieves the same results (limited to a single branch)?

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  • Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code?

    - by finrod
    Is there a way to easily create Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code? Motivation: I need my own implementation of the Process class. The native code spawns me a new process with subprocess' IO streams redirected to unnamed pipes. Problem: The file descriptors for correct ends of those pipes make their way to Java. At this point I get stuck as I cannot create a new FileDescriptor which I could pass to FileInput/FileOutput stream. I have used reflection to get around the problem and got communication with a simple bouncer sub-process running. However I have a notion that it is not the cleanest way to go. Have you used this approach? Do you see any problems with this approach? (the platform will never change) Searching around the internets revealed similar solution using native code. Any thoughts before I dive into heavy testing of this approach are very welcome. I would like to give a shot to existing code before writing my own IO stream implementations... Thank you.

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  • How can I introduce a regex action to match the first element in a Catalyst URI ?

    - by RET
    Background: I'm using a CRUD framework in Catalyst that auto-generates forms and lists for all tables in a given database. For example: /admin/list/person or /admin/add/person or /admin/edit/person/3 all dynamically generate pages or forms as appropriate for the table 'person'. (In other words, Admin.pm has actions edit, list, add, delete and so on that expect a table argument and possibly a row-identifying argument.) Question: In the particular application I'm building, the database will be used by multiple customers, so I want to introduce a URI scheme where the first element is the customer's identifier, followed by the administrative action/table etc: /cust1/admin/list/person /cust2/admin/add/person /cust2/admin/edit/person/3 This is for "branding" purposes, and also to ensure that bookmarks or URLs passed from one user to another do the expected thing. But I'm having a lot of trouble getting this to work. I would prefer not to have to modify the subs in the existing framework, so I've been trying variations on the following: sub customer : Regex('^(\w+)/(admin)$') { my ($self, $c, @args) = @_; #validation of captured arg snipped.. my $path = join('/', 'admin', @args); $c->request->path($path); $c->dispatcher->prepare_action($c); $c->forward($c->action, $c->req->args); } But it just will not behave. I've used regex matching actions many times, but putting one in the very first 'barrel' of a URI seems unusually traumatic. Any suggestions gratefully received.

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  • Pulling $_GET data and creating multidimensional array using loop

    - by Chris J
    I'm creating a checkout for customers and the data about what's in their cart is being sent to a page (for just now) via $_GET. I want to extract that data and then populate a multidimensional array with it using a loop. Here's how I'm naming the data: $itemCount = $_GET['itemCount']; $i = 1; while ($i <= $itemCount) { ${'item_name_'.$i} = $_GET["item_name_{$i}"]; ${'item_quantity_'.$i} = $_GET["item_quantity_{$i}"]; ${'item_price_'.$i} = $_GET["item_price_{$i}"]; //echo "<br />Name: " .${'item_name_'.$i}. " - Quantity: " .${'item_quantity_'.$i}. " - Price: ".${'item_price_'.$i}; $i++; } From here I'd like to create a multidimensional array like such: Array ( [Item_1] => Array ( [item_name] => Shoe [item_quantity] => 2 [item_price] => 40.00 ) [Item_2] => Array ( [item_name] => Bag [item_quantity] => 1 [item_price] => 60.00 ) [Item_3] => Array ( [item_name] => Parrot [item_quantity] => 4 [item_price] => 90.00 ) . . . ) What I'd like to know is if there is a way I can create this array in the existing while loop? I'm aware of being able to add data to an array like $data = [] after delacring an empty array but the actual syntax eludes me. Maybe I'm completely off the right track and there is a better way of doing it? Thanks

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  • How can I tell if a byte array has already been compressed?

    - by MikeG
    Hi, Can I rely on the first few bytes of data compressed using the System.IO.Compression.DeflateStream in .NET always being the same? These bytes seem to always be the 1st bytes: 237, 189, 7, 96, 28, 73, 150, 37, 38, 47 , ... I'm assuming this is some kind of header, I'd like to assume that this header is fixed and isn't going to change. Has anyone got any extra info about this? Background info (The reason I want to know this info is...) I have a load of data in a database table that could do with being made smaller. I've decided I'm going to start compressing the data and not going to bother compressing the existing data. When the data gets into my .NET code the data is a String. I'd like to be able to look at the 1st few bytes of the string and see if it has been compressed, if it has then I need to de-compress it. I was originally thinking I could convert the string to bytes and just try de-compressing the data. Then if an exception happens, I could just assume it wasn't compressed. But I think checking the header bytes would give me much better performance. Many thanks, Mike G

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  • push(ing)_back objects pointers within a loop

    - by Jose Manuel Albornoz
    Consider the following: I have a class CDevices containing, amongst others, a string member class CDevice { public: CDevice(void); ~CDevice(void); // device name std::string Device_Name; etc... } and somewhere else in my code I define another class that contains a vector of pointers to CDevices class CDevice; class CServers { public: CServers(void); ~CServers(void); // Devices vector vector<CDevice*> Devices; etc... } The problem appears in the following lines in my main.c pDevice = new CDevice; pDevice->Device_Name = "de"; Devices.push_back(pDevice); pDevice->Device_Name = " revolotiunibus"; Devices.push_back(pDevice); pDevice->Device_Name = " orbium"; Devices.push_back(pDevice); pDevice->Device_Name = " coelestium"; Devices.push_back(pDevice); for(int i = 0; i < (int)Devices.size(); ++i) cout << "\nLoad name = " << Devices.at(i)->Device_Name << endl; The output I get is " coelestium" repeated four times: each time I push_back a new element into the vector all of the already existing elements take the value of the one which has just been added. I have also tried using iterators to recover each element in the vector with the same results. Could someone please tell me what's wrong here? Thankx

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  • cross-platform development for mobile devices

    - by user924
    What language/framework is best worth learning for mobile application development? My specific situation is that I'm very familiar with Java and C++ (I especially love Qt), but have limited experience with other languages. Some options I'm considering: 1) Learn Objective-C and all the iPhone-specific tools I do have access to a mac. The downside here is I'm restricted to the iPhone, so I'd have to rewrite almost everything if I wanted to branch off into another mobile device (or move later to a cross-platform framework). Even after knowing Objective-C, it seems like other frameworks might be more efficient/faster to code in? 2) Use some existing cross-platform framework for development I've looked at rhomobile, but I only have limited experience with Ruby (and at first glance, it might be a little pricey comapred to other options). Appcelerator also looks popular and nice, but it uses html/css/javascript. Airplaysdk looks good, but it's new and I haven't been able to see much written about it (is it worth going for?). 3) Wait for something better to come along How far away is Qt for the iPhone? That would be ideal, but it isn't available now. So what do you recommend? Productivity/efficiency is my top priority, although learning a useful language for the long term would also be okay. Thanks

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  • Difference between two PHP times as years, months and days for PHP version 5.2

    - by Dominor Novus
    Forward: I've scanned through the existing questions/answers on this matter. This is not a duplicitous question; I cannot find a working solution from the accepted answers. The main questions/answers I've reviewed can be found here: How to calculate the difference between two dates using PHP? What I need: A calucalation of the difference between two dates expressed as years, months and days that works with PHP version: 5.2. <?php $current_date = date('d-M-Y'); $future_date = '2012-11-01'; ?> What I've tried: Most answers I find online don't seem to exact in that they don't factor in leap years. This highly rated answer won't work because DateTime-diff() is php 5.3+. This accepted answer results in (i.e. the second block of code aimed at PHP 5.2) results in the following being parsed: Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 0 [days] = 9473 ) Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 1 [days] = 9473 ) I can't tell if I've incorrectly applied the code or it's simply a case of me not knowing how to manipulate the array.

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  • How do you safely wrap a JS string variable in double quote chars?

    - by incombinative
    Obviously when you're creating an actual string literal yourself, you backslash escape the double quote characters yourself. var foo = "baz\"bat"; Just as you would with the handful of other control characters, like linebreaks and backslashes. var bar = "baz\\bat"; but when you already have a variable, and you're wrapping that existing variable in quote characters, there's some confusion. Obviously you have to escape any potential double quote characters that are in the string. (Assuming whatever system you're giving the explicitly quoted string to, needs to be able to parse them correctly. =) var doubleQuoteRe = /\"/g; var quoted = unquoted.replace(escaper, '\\\"'); However from there opinions diverge a little. In particular, according to some you also have to worry about escaping literal backslash characters in the variable. // now say i have a string bar, that has both single backslash character in it, // as well as a double-quote character in it. // the following code ONLY worries about escaping the double quote char. var quoted = bar.replace(doubleQuoteRe, '\\\"'); The above seems fine to me. But is there a problem im not seeing?

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  • Drupal: How to make a fieldset dependent using CTools

    - by far
    Hello, I am using Ctools Dependency to make a fieldset hideable. This is part of my code: $form['profile-status'] = array( '#type' => 'radios', '#title' => '', '#options' => array( 'new' => t('Create a new profile.'), 'select' => t('Use an existing profile.'), ), ); $form['select'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#title' => t('Select a profile'), '#options' => $options, '#process' => array('ctools_dependent_process'), '#dependency' => array('radio:profile-status' => array('select')), ); $form['profile-properties'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', '#title' => t('View the profile'), '#process' => array('ctools_dependent_process'), '#dependency' => array('radio:profile-status' => array('select')), '#input' => true, ); In snippet above, There are two elements, one select and one fieldset. Both have #process and #dependency parameters and both point to one field for dependent value. Problem is elements like select or textfield can be hidden easily but it does not work for fieldset. In this support request page, CTools creator has mentioned that '#input' = true is a work around. As you see I added it to code, but it does not work as well. Do you have any suggestion?

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  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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  • servicestack Razor view with request and response DTO

    - by user7398
    I'm having a go with the razor functionality in service stack. I have a razor cshtml view working for one of my response DTO's. I need to access some values from the request DTO in the razor view that have been filled in from some fields from the REST route, so i can construct a url to put into the response html page and also label some form labels. Is there anyway of doing this? I don't want to duplicate the property from the request DTO into the response DTO just for this html view. Because i'm trying to emulate an existing REST service of another product, i do not want to emit extra data just for the html view. eg http://localhost/rest/{Name}/details/{Id} eg @inherits ViewPage<DetailsResponse> @{ ViewBag.Title = "todo title"; Layout = "HtmlReport"; } this needs to come from the request dto NOT @Model <a href="/rest/@Model.Name">link to user</a> <a href="/rest/@Model.Name/details/@Model.Id">link to user details</a>

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  • This is a great job opportunity!!! [closed]

    - by Stuart Gordon
    ASP.NET MVC Web Developer / London / £450pd / £25-£50,000pa / Interested contact [email protected] ! As a web developer within the engineering department, you will work with a team of enthusiastic developers building a new ASP.NET MVC platform for online products utilising exciting cutting edge technologies and methodologies (elements of Agile, Scrum, Lean, Kanban and XP) as well as developing new stand-alone web products that conform to W3C standards. Key Responsibilities and Objectives: Develop ASP.NET MVC websites utilising Frameworks and enterprise search technology. Develop and expand content management and delivery solutions. Help maintain and extend existing products. Formulate ideas and visions for new products and services. Be a proactive part of the development team and provide support and assistance to others when required. Qualification/Experience Required: The ideal candidate will have a web development background and be educated to degree level in a Computer Science/IT related course plus ASP.NET MVC experience. The successful candidate needs to be able to demonstrate commercial experience in all or most of the following skills: Essential: ASP.NET MVC with C# (Visual Studio), Castle, nHibernate, XHTML and JavaScript. Experience of Test Driven Development (TDD) using tools such as NUnit. Preferable: Experience of Continuous Integration (TeamCity and MSBuild), SQL Server (T-SQL), experience of source control such as Subversion (plus TortioseSVN), JQuery. Learn: Fluent NHibernate, S#arp Architecture, Spark (View engine), Behaviour Driven Design (BDD) using MSpec. Furthermore, you will possess good working knowledge of W3C web standards, web usability, web accessibility and understand the basics of search engine optimisation (SEO). You will also be a quick learner, have good communication skills and be a self-motivated and organised individual.

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  • Ruby on Rails login using legacy user database

    - by ricsmania
    Hello, I have a Rails application that connects to a legacy database (Oracle) and displays some information from a particular user. Right now the user is passed as a URL parameter, but this has obvious security issues because users should only be able to see their own data. To solve that, I want to implement a user login, and I did some research and came across 2 components for that, restful_authentication and authlogic. The problem is that I need to use an existing user/password database instead of creating a new one, which is the common way to use those components. The password is encrypted by a custom Oracle package, but let's assume it is stored as plain text to make things simpler. I only need very basic functionality, which is login a user and keep them logged in forever until logout. No changes to the database will be made by this application, so there's no need for sign up, e-mail activation, reset password, etc. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to do that? Is any of those 2 components a good solution? If not, what would be recommended? Thanks!

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  • Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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  • Using Java classes(whole module with Spring/Hibernate dependency) in Grails

    - by Sitaram
    I have a Java/Spring/Hibernate application with a payment module. Payment module has some domain classes for payment subscription and transactions etc. Corresponding hibernate mapping files are there. This module uses applicationContext.xml for some of the configuration it needs. Also, This module has a PaymentService which uses a paymentDAO to do all database related work. Now, I want to use this module as it is(without any or minimal re-writing) in my other application(Grails application). I want to bring in the payment module as a jar or copy the source files to src/java folder in Grails. With that background, I have following queries: Will the existing applicationContext.xml for Spring configuration in the module will work as it is in Grails? Does it merge with rest of Grails's Spring config? Where do I put the applicationContext.xml? classpath? src/java should work? Can I bundle the applicationContext.xml in Jar(If I use jar option) and can overwrite in Grails if anything needs to be changed? Multiple bean definition problems in that case? PaymentService recognized as regular service? Will it be auto-injected in controllers and/or other services? Will PaymentDAO use the datasource configuration of Grails? Where do I put the hbm files of this module? Can I bundle the hbm files in Jar(If I use jar option) and can overwrite in Grails if anything needs to be changed? Which hbms are picked? or, there will be problems with that? Too many questions! :) All these concerns are actually before trying. I am going to try this in next few days(busy currently). Any help is appreciated. Thanks. Sitaram Meena

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  • How can flash call jquery function in its event

    - by user2955639
    I want jquery to do something during some of the events when an audio is playing. So I'm coding a function like this <script> $.fn.playMedia = function(options){ var opts = $.extend({}, { swfSrc: '' timeUpdated: function(currentTime){}, startPlay: function(){}, endPlay: function(){} }, options); return $(this).each(function(){ // call flash to play the media whose src is opts.swfSrc // Is it possible that flash can call the js functions(opts.timeUpdate, opts.startPlay and opts.endPlay) at each time of the event is triggered? }); }}; </script> // Usage <div id="player"></div> <script> $('#player').playMedia({ swfSrc: '/path/song.mp3', timeUpdated: function(currentTime){ comsole.log(currentTime); } }); </script> I'm a totally layman of flash, I just guess this works. Hope someone could tell me how to make up a swf file for this jquery function. Or is there any existing jquery plugin which does this thing but can re-design apperance flexibly. Thank you very much!

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  • How to properly handle signals when using the worker thread pattern?

    - by ipartola
    I have a simple server that looks something like this: void *run_thread(void *arg) { // Communicate via a blocking socket } int main() { // Initialization happens here... // Main event loop while (1) { new_client = accept(socket, ...); pthread_create(&thread, NULL, &run_thread, *thread_data*); pthread_detach(thread); } // Do cleanup stuff: close(socket); // Wait for existing threads to finish exit(0); ) Thus when a SIGINT or SIGTERM is received I need to break out of the main event loop to get to the clean up code. Moreover most likely the master thread is waiting on the accept() call so it's not able to check some other variable to see if it should break;. Most of the advice I found was along the lines of this: http://devcry.blogspot.com/2009/05/pthreads-and-unix-signals.html (creating a special signal handling thread to catch all the signals and do processing on those). However, it's the processing portion that I can't really wrap my head around: how can I possibly tell the main thread to return from the accept() call and check on an external variable to see if it should break;?

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  • PHP – Slow String Manipulation

    - by Simon Roberts
    I have some very large data files and for business reasons I have to do extensive string manipulation (replacing characters and strings). This is unavoidable. The number of replacements runs into hundreds of thousands. It's taking longer than I would like. PHP is generally very quick but I'm doing so many of these string manipulations that it's slowing down and script execution is running into minutes. This is a pain because the script is run frequently. I've done some testing and found that str_replace is fastest, followed by strstr, followed by preg_replace. I've also tried individual str_replace statements as well as constructing arrays of patterns and replacements. I'm toying with the idea of isolating string manipulation operation and writing in a different language but I don't want to invest time in that option only to find that improvements are negligible. Plus, I only know Perl, PHP and COBOL so for any other language I would have to learn it first. I'm wondering how other people have approached similar problems? I have searched and I don't believe that this duplicates any existing questions.

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  • ColdFusion Session issue - multiple users behind one proxy IP -- cftoken and cfid seems to be shared

    - by smoothoperator
    Hi Everyone, I have an application that uses coldfusion's session management (instead of the J2EE) session management. We have one client, who has recently switched their company's traffic to us to come viaa proxy server in their network. So, to our Coldfusion server, it appears that all traffic is coming from this one IP Address, for all of the accounts of this one company.. Of the session variables, Part 1 is kept in a cflock, and Part 2 is kept in editable session variables. I may be misundestanding, but we have done it this way as we modify some values as needed throughout the application's usage. We are now running into an issue of this client having their session variables mixed up (?). We have one case where we set a timestamp.. and when it comes time to look it up, it's empty. From the looks of it this is happening because of another user on the same token. My initial thoughts are to look into modifying our existing session management to somehow generate a unique cftoken/cfid, or to start using jsession_ID, if this solves the problem at all. I have done some basic research on this issue and couldn't find anything similar, so I thought I'd ask here. Thanks!

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  • Is there a search engine that indexes source code of a web-page?

    - by Dexter
    I need to search the web for sites that are in our industry that use the same Adwords management company, to ensure that the said company is not violating our contract, as they have been accused of doing. They use a tracking code in the template of every page which has a certain domain in the URL, and I'm wondering if it's possible "Google" the source code using some bot that crawls the code rather than the content? For example, I bought an unlimited license for an image gallery, and I was asked to type the license number in a comment just before the script. I thought it was just so a human could look at the source and find out if someone paid, but it turned out that it was actually that they had a crawler looking for their source code and that comment. If it ran across the code on your site, it would look for the comment, and if it found one, it would check to see if it was an existing one. If not, it would first notify you of your noncompliance, and then notify the owner of the script. Edit: I'm looking to index HTML and JavaScript only, not the server-side languages or Java.

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  • Give the mount point of a path

    - by Charles Stewart
    The following, very non-robust shell code will give the mount point of $path: (for i in $(df|cut -c 63-99); do case $path in $i*) echo $i;; esac; done) | tail -n 1 Is there a better way to do this? Postscript This script is really awful, but has the redeeming quality that it Works On My Systems. Note that several mount points may be prefixes of $path. Examples On a Linux system: cas@txtproof:~$ path=/sys/block/hda1 cas@txtproof:~$ for i in $(df -a|cut -c 57-99); do case $path in $i*) echo $i;; esac; done| tail -1 /sys On a Mac osx system cas local$ path=/dev/fd/0 cas local$ for i in $(df -a|cut -c 63-99); do case $path in $i*) echo $i;; esac; done| tail -1 /dev Note the need to vary cut's parameters, because of the way df's output differs: indeed, awk is better. Answer It looks like munging tabular output is the only way within the shell, but df /dev/fd/impossible | tail -1 | awk '{ print $NF}' is a big improvement on what I had. Note two differences in semantics: firstly, df $path insists that $path names an existing file, the script I had above doesn't care; secondly, there are no worries about dereferncing symlinks. It's not difficult to write Python code to do the job.

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