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• How to merge a "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn copy)

  - by MatrixFrog

  I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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• problem with reload data from table view after come back from another view

  - by user129677

  I have a problem in my application. Any help will be greatly appreciated. Basically it is from view A to view B, and then come back from view B. In the view A, it has dynamic data loaded in from the database, and display on the table view. In this page, it also has the edit button, not on the navigation bar. When user tabs the edit button, it goes to the view B, which shows the pick view. And user can make any changes in here. Once that is done, user tabs the back button on the navigation bar, it saves the changes into the NSUserDefaults, goes back to the view A by pop the view B. When coming back to the view A, it should get the new data from the UIUserDefaults, and it did. I user NSLog to print out to the console and it shows the correct data. Also it should invoke the viewWillAppear: method to get the new data for the table view, but it didn't. It even did not call the tableView:numberOfRowsInSection: method. I place a NSLog statement inside this method but didn't print out in the console. as the result, the view A still has the old data. the only way to get the new data in the view A is to stop and start the application. both view A and view B are the subclass of UIViewController, with UITableViewDelegate and UITableViewDataSource. here is my code in the view A : - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"enter in Schedule2ViewController ..."); // load in data from database, and store into NSArray object //[self.theTableView reloadData]; [self.theTableView setNeedsDisplay]; //[self.theTableView setNeedsLayout]; } in here, the "theTableView" is a UITableView variable. And I try all three cases of "reloadData", "setNeedsDisplay", and "setNeedsLayout", but didn't seem to work. in the view B, here is the method corresponding to the back button on the navigation bar. - (void)viewDidLoad { UIBarButtonItem *saveButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemSave target:self action:@selector(savePreference)]; self.navigationItem.leftBarButtonItem = saveButton; [saveButton release]; } - (IBAction) savePreference { NSLog(@"save preference."); // save data into the NSUSerDefaults [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } Am I doing in the right way? Or is there anything that I missed? Many thanks.

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• Why do we need different CPU architecture for server & mini/mainframe & mixed-core?

  - by claws

  Hello, I was just wondering what other CPU architectures are available other than INTEL & AMD. So, found List of CPU architectures on Wikipedia. It categorizes notable CPU architectures into following categories. Embedded CPU architectures Microcomputer CPU architectures Workstation/Server CPU architectures Mini/Mainframe CPU architectures Mixed core CPU architectures I was analyzing the purposes and have few doubts. I taking Microcomputer CPU (PC) architecture as reference and comparing others. Embedded CPU architecture: They are a completely new world. Embedded systems are small & do very specific task mostly real time & low power consuming so we do not need so many & such wide registers available in a microcomputer CPU (typical PC). In other words we do need a new small & tiny architecture. Hence new architecture & new instruction RISC. The above point also clarifies why do we need a separate operating system (RTOS). Workstation/Server CPU architectures I don't know what is a workstation. Someone clarify regarding the workstation. As of the server. It is dedicated to run a specific software (server software like httpd, mysql etc.). Even if other processes run we need to give server process priority therefore there is a need for new scheduling scheme and thus we need operating system different than general purpose one. If you have any more points for the need of server OS please mention. But I don't get why do we need a new CPU Architecture. Why cant Microcomputer CPU architecture do the job. Can someone please clarify? Mini/Mainframe CPU architectures Again I don't know what are these & what miniframes or mainframes used for? I just know they are very big and occupy complete floor. But I never read about some real world problems they are trying to solve. If any one working on one of these. Share your knowledge. Can some one clarify its purpose & why is it that microcomputer CPU archicture not suitable for it? Is there a new kind of operating system for this too? Why? Mixed core CPU architectures Never heard of these. If possible please keep your answer in this format: XYZ CPU architectures Purpose of XYZ Need for a new architecture. why can't current microcomputer CPU architecture work? They go upto 3GHZ & have upto 8 cores. Need for a new Operating System Why do we need a new kind of operating system for this kind of archictures?

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• How to commit into TortoiseSVN using cruise control config file

  - by pratap

  hi all, can any one tell how to commit into tortoisesvn using cruise control config file. I am getting an error "C:***\Documentation\trunk\dotnet\svn" is not executable or it may not exist. here's the config part... <workingDirectory>C:\*****\Documentation\trunk\dotnet\</workingDirectory> <category>Individual Solutions</category> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>******* svn url *********</trunkUrl> <username> unname </username> <password> pwd </password> <autoGetSource>true</autoGetSource> </sourcecontrol> <tasks> <exec> <executable>C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\MSBuild.exe</executable> <buildTimeoutSeconds>1200</buildTimeoutSeconds> <successExitCodes>0</successExitCodes> </exec> <exec> <executable>iisreset</executable> <buildArgs>/stop</buildArgs> </exec> <exec> <executable>c:\Program Files\TortoiseSVN\bin\TortoiseProc.exe /command:commit /path:"C:\*****\Documentation\trunk\dotnet\"</executable> <buildTimeoutSeconds>1200</buildTimeoutSeconds> <successExitCodes>0</successExitCodes> <description>checkin shared content...</description> </exec> <exec> <executable>iisreset</executable> <buildArgs>/start</buildArgs> </exec> </tasks> </project> Thank you all,

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• Can a View Controller manage more than 1 nib based view?

  - by Hugo Brynjar

  I have a VC controlling a screen of content that has 2 modes; a normal mode and an edit mode. Can I create a single VC with 2 views, each from separate nibs? In many situations on the iphone, you have a VC which controls an associated view. Then on a button press or other event, a new VC is loaded and its view becomes the top level view etc. But in this situation, I have 2 modes that I want to use the same VC for, because they are closely related. So I want a VC which can swap in/out 2 views. As per here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/863321/iphone-how-to-load-a-view-using-a-nib-file-created-with-interface-builder/2683153#2683153 I have found that I can load a VC with an associated view from a nib and then later on load a different view from another nib and make that new view the active view. NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"EditMode" owner:self options:nil]; UIView *theEditView = [nibObjects objectAtIndex:0]; self.editView = theEditView; [self.view addSubview:theEditView]; The secondary nib has outlets wired up to the VC like the primary nib. When the new nib is loaded, the outlets are all connected up fine and everything works nicely. Unfortunately when this edit view is then removed, there doesn't seem to be any elegant way of getting the outlets hooked up again to the (normal mode) view from the original nib. Nib loading and outlet setting seems a once only thing. So, if you want to have a VC that swaps in/out 2 views without creating a new VC, what are the options? 1) You can do everything in code, but I want to use nibs because it makes creating the UI simpler. 2) You have 1 nib for your VC and just hide/show elements using the hidden property of UIView and its subclasses. 3) You load a new nib as described above. This is fine for the new nib, but how do you sort the outlets when you go back to the original nib. 4) Give up and accept having a 1:1 between VCs and nibs. There is a nib for normal mode, a nib for edit mode and each mode has a VC that subclasses a common superclass. In the end, I went with 4) and it works, but requires a fair amount of extra work, because I have a model class that I instantiate in normal mode and then have to pass to the edit mode VC because both modes need access to the model. I'm also using NSTimer and have to start and stop the timer in each mode. It is because of all this shared functionality that I wanted a single VC with 2 nibs in the first place.

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• NSTimer as a self-targeting ivar.

  - by Matt Wilding

  I have come across an awkward situation where I would like to have a class with an NSTimer instance variable that repeatedly calls a method of the class as long as the class is alive. For illustration purposes, it might look like this: // .h @interface MyClock : NSObject { NSTimer* _myTimer; } - (void)timerTick; @end - // .m @implementation MyClock - (id)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _myTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0f target:self selector:@selector(timerTick) userInfo:nil repeats:NO] retain]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [_myTimer invalidate]; [_myTImer release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void)timerTick { // Do something fantastic. } @end That's what I want. I don't want to to have to expose an interface on my class to start and stop the internal timer, I just want it to run while the class exists. Seems simple enough. But the problem is that NSTimer retains its target. That means that as long as that timer is active, it is keeping the class from being dealloc'd by normal memory management methods because the timer has retained it. Manually adjusting the retain count is out of the question. This behavior of NSTimer seems like it would make it difficult to ever have a repeating timer as an ivar, because I can't think of a time when an ivar should retain its owning class. This leaves me with the unpleasant duty of coming up with some method of providing an interface on MyClock that allows users of the class to control when the timer is started and stopped. Besides adding unneeded complexity, this is annoying because having one owner of an instance of the class invalidate the timer could step on the toes of another owner who is counting on it to keep running. I could implement my own pseudo-retain-count-system for keeping the timer running but, ...seriously? This is way to much work for such a simple concept. Any solution I can think of feels hacky. I ended up writing a wrapper for NSTimer that behaves exactly like a normal NSTimer, but doesn't retain its target. I don't like it, and I would appreciate any insight.

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• WCF Self Host Service - Endpoints in C#

  - by Kyle

  My first few attempts at creating a self hosted service. Trying to make something up which will accept a query string and return some text but have have a few issues: All the documentation talks about endpoints being created automatically for each base address if they are not found in a config file. This doesn't seem to be the case for me, I get the "Service has zero application endpoints..." exception. Manually specifying a base endpoint as below seems to resolve this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.ServiceModel; using System.ServiceModel.Description; namespace TestService { [ServiceContract] public interface IHelloWorldService { [OperationContract] string SayHello(string name); } public class HelloWorldService : IHelloWorldService { public string SayHello(string name) { return string.Format("Hello, {0}", name); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string baseaddr = "http://localhost:8080/HelloWorldService/"; Uri baseAddress = new Uri(baseaddr); // Create the ServiceHost. using (ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(HelloWorldService), baseAddress)) { // Enable metadata publishing. ServiceMetadataBehavior smb = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; smb.MetadataExporter.PolicyVersion = PolicyVersion.Policy15; host.Description.Behaviors.Add(smb); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IHelloWorldService), new BasicHttpBinding(), baseaddr + "SayHello"); //for some reason a default endpoint does not get created here host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("The service is ready at {0}", baseAddress); Console.WriteLine("Press to stop the service."); Console.ReadLine(); // Close the ServiceHost. host.Close(); } } } } I still think I'm doing something wrong as I don't get the normal "This is a web service...etc..." page when I load up the url How would I go about setting this up to return the value of name in SayHello(string name) when requested thusly: localhost:8080/HelloWorldService/SayHello?name=kyle Do I have to create an endpoing for the SayHello contract as well? I'm trying to walk before running, but this just seems like crawling...Service has zero application endpoints...

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• Reduce Multiple Errors logging in sysssislog

  - by Akshay

  Need help. I am trying to automate error notifications to be sent in mailers. For that I am querying the sysssislog table. I have pasted an "Execute SQl task" on the package event handler "On error". For testing purpose, I am deliberately trying to load duplicate keys in a table which consists of a Primary key column(so as to get an error). But instead of having just one error, "Violation of primary key constraint", SSIS records 3 in the table. PFA the screenshot as well. How can i restrict the tool to log only one error and not multiple ??? Package Structure. Package ("On error Event handler") - DFT - Oledb Source - Oledb Destination SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80004005. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "The statement has been terminated.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_SalesPerson_SalesPersonID'. Cannot insert duplicate key in object 'dbo.SalesPerson'.". SSIS Error Code DTS_E_INDUCEDTRANSFORMFAILUREONERROR. The "input "OLE DB Destination Input" (56)" failed because error code 0xC020907B occurred, and the error row disposition on "input "OLE DB Destination Input" (56)" specifies failure on error. An error occurred on the specified object of the specified component. There may be error messages posted before this with more information about the failure. SSIS Error Code DTS_E_PROCESSINPUTFAILED. The ProcessInput method on component "OLE DB Destination" (43) failed with error code 0xC0209029 while processing input "OLE DB Destination Input" (56). The identified component returned an error from the ProcessInput method. The error is specific to the component, but the error is fatal and will cause the Data Flow task to stop running. There may be error messages posted before this with more information about the failure. Please guide me. Your help is very much appreciated. Thanks

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• Two UIViews, one UIViewController (in one UINavigationController)

  - by jdandrea

  Given an iPhone app with a UITableViewController pushed onto a UINavigationController, I would like to add a right bar button item to toggle between the table view and an "alternate" view of the same data. Let's also say that this other view uses the same data but is not a UITableView. Now, I know variations on this question already exist on Stack Overflow. However, in this case, that alternate view would not be pushed onto the UINavigationController. It would be visually akin to flipping the current UIViewController's table view over and revealing the other view, then being able to flip back. In other words, it's intended to take up a single spot in the UINavigationController hierarchy. Moreover, whatever selection you ultimately make from within either view will push a common UIViewController onto the UINavigationController stack. Still more info: We don't want to use a separate UINavigationController just to handle this pair of views, and we don't want to split these apart via a UITabBarController either. Visually and contextually, the UX is meant to show two sides of the same coin. It's just that those two sides happen to involve their own View Controllers in normal practice. Now … it turns out I have already gone and quickly set this up to see how it might work! However, upon stepping back to examine it, I get the distinct impression that I went about it in a rather non-MVC way, which of course concerns me a bit. Here's what I did at a high level. Right now, I have a UIViewController (not a UITableViewController) that handles all commonalities between the two views, such as fetching the raw data. I also have two NIBs, one for each view, and two UIView objects to go along with them. (One of them is a UITableView, which is a kind of UIView.) I switch between the views using animation (easy enough). Also, in an effort to keep things encapsulated, the now-split-apart UITableView (not the UIViewController!) acts as its own delegate and data source, fetching data from the VC. The VC is set up as a weak, non-retained object in the table view. In parallel, the alternate view gets at the raw data from the VC in the exact same way. So, there are a few things that smell funny here. The weak linking from child to parent, while polite, seems like it might be wrong. Making a UITableView the table's data source and delegate also seems odd to me, thinking that a view controller is where you want to put that per Apple's MVC diagrams. As it stands now, it would appear as if the view knows about the model, which isn't good. Loading up both views in advance also seems odd, because lazy loading is no longer in effect. Losing the benefits of a UITableViewController (like auto-scrolling to cells with text fields) is also a bit frustrating, and I'd rather not reinvent the wheel to work around that as well. Given all of the above, and given we want that "flip effect" in the context of a single spot on a single UINavigationController, and given that both views are two sides of the same coin, is there a better, more obvious way to design this that I'm just happening to miss completely? Clues appreciated!

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• Dynamic Linq help, different errors depending on object passed as parameter?

  - by sah302

  I have an entityDao that is inherbited by everyone of my objectDaos. I am using Dynamic Linq and trying to get some generic queries to work. I have the following code in my generic method in my EntityDao : public abstract class EntityDao<ImplementationType> where ImplementationType : Entity { public ImplementationType getOneByValueOfProperty(string getProperty, object getValue){ ImplementationType entity = null; if (getProperty != null && getValue != null) { LCFDataContext lcfdatacontext = new LCFDataContext(); //Generic LINQ Query Here entity = lcfdatacontext.GetTable<ImplementationType>().Where(getProperty + " =@0", getValue).FirstOrDefault(); //.Where(getProperty & "==" & CStr(getValue)) } //lcfdatacontext.SubmitChanges() //lcfdatacontext.Dispose() return entity; } }         Then I do the following method call in a unit test (all my objectDaos inherit entityDao): [Test] public void getOneByValueOfProperty() { Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("AccomplishmentType.Name", "Publication"); Assert.IsNotNull(result); } The above passes (AccomplishmentType has a relationship to accomplishment) Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("Description", "Can you hear me now?"); Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("LocalId", 4); Both of the above work Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("Id", New Guid("95457751-97d9-44b5-8f80-59fc2d170a4c"))       Does not work and says the following: Operator '=' incompatible with operand types 'Guid' and 'Guid Why is this happening? Guid's can't be compared? I tried == as well but same error. What's even moreso confusing is that every example of Dynamic Linq I have seen simply usings strings whether using the parameterized where predicate or this one I have commented out: //.Where(getProperty & "==" & CStr(getValue)) With or without the Cstr, many datatypes don't work with this format. I tried setting the getValue to a string instead of an object as well, but then I just get different errors (such as a multiword string would stop comparison after the first word). What am I missing to make this work with GUIDs and/or any data type? Ideally I would like to be able to just pass in a string for getValue (as I have seen for every other dynamic LINQ example) instead of the object and have it work regardless of the data Type of the column.

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• How can I fix the website's splash page to work in IE8 and below?

  - by Abriel

  I have been trying to figure out for the longest time how I can get the splash page on this website to work correctly in IE8 and below? Right now, it works on all the other browsers (Firefox, Chrome, Safari). Here is the website: http://gds.parkland.edu/student/fall10/gds220/ashipley/p2/final_revised/index.html jQuery code: /* Sliding Affect Splash Page */ $(function() { $('.box').each(function() { var $this = $(this); $.data(this, 'css', { width: $this.css('width'), background: $this.css('background-image') }); }); }); function restore() { $('.box').each(function() { var orig = $.data(this, 'css'); $(this).animate({ width: orig.width },{queue:false}); $(this).css({backgroundImage: orig.background}); }); } /* box 1 */ function boxHover(){ $('.box').stop().animate({'width' : '596px'},{queue:false}); } function box1master(){ $('.box2').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/zatgun_midtop.jpg)'}); $('.box3').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/zatgun_midbottom.jpg)'}); $('.box4').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/zatgun_bottom.jpg)'}); } function box2master(){ $('.box1').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/bryan_top.jpg)'}); $('.box3').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/bryan_midbottom.jpg)'}); $('.box4').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/bryan_bottom.jpg)'}); } function box3master(){ $('.box1').css({backgroundImage:'url(images/splash/galleries_top.jpg)'}); $('.box2').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/galleries_midtop.jpg)'}); $('.box4').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/galleries_bottom.jpg)'}); } function box4master(){ $('.box1').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/contact_top.jpg)'}); $('.box2').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/contact_midtop.jpg)'}); $('.box3').css({backgroundImage: 'url(images/splash/contact_midbottom.jpg)'}); } $(document).ready(function(){ $('.box1').hover(function(){ boxHover(); box1master(); }, function(){ restore(); }); $('.box2').hover(function(){ boxHover(); box2master(); }, function(){ restore(); }); $('.box3').hover(function(){ boxHover(); box3master(); }, function(){ restore(); }); $('.box4').hover(function(){ boxHover(); box4master(); }, function(){ restore(); }); }); I wonder if I could change the spacing in-between each of the boxes using jQuery or if I somehow have to do this in the CSS/HTML?

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• Android popup style activity which sits on top of any other apps

  - by RenegadeAndy

  What I want to create is a popup style application. I have a service in the background - something arrives on the queue and i want an activity to start to inform the user - very very similar to the functionality of SMSPopup app. So I have the code where something arrives on the queue and it calls my activity. However for some reason the activity always shows on top of the originally started activity instead of just appearing on the main desktop of the android device. As an example: I have the main activity which is shown when the application is run I have the service which checks queue I have a popup activity. When i start the main activity it starts the service - I can now close this. I then have something on the queue and it creates the popup activity which launches the main activity with the popup on top of it :S How do I stop this and have it behave as i want... The popup class is : package com.andy.tabletsms.work; import com.andy.tabletsms.tablet.R; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.Gravity; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.PopupWindow; import android.widget.TextView; import android.widget.Toast; public class SMSPopup extends Activity implements OnClickListener{ public static String msg; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ super.onCreate(bundle); // Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), msg, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); this.setContentView(R.layout.popup); TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.txtLbl); Intent intent = getIntent(); if (intent != null){ Bundle bb = intent.getExtras(); if (bb != null){ msg = bb.getString("com.andy.tabletsms.message"); } } if(msg == null){ msg = "LOLOLOL"; } tv.setText(msg); Button b = (Button)findViewById(R.id.closeBtn); b.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { this.finish(); } } and I call the activity from a broadcast receiver which checks the queue every 30 seconds or so : if(main.msgs.size()0){ Intent testActivityIntent = new Intent(context.getApplicationContext(), com.andy.tabletsms.work.SMSPopup.class); testActivityIntent.putExtra("com.andy.tabletsms.message", main.msgs.get(0)); testActivityIntent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(testActivityIntent); } The layout is here : http://pastebin.com/F25u6wdM

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• How to merge an improperly created "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn cop

  - by MatrixFrog

  I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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• Minimum-Waste Print Job Grouping Algorithm?

  - by Matt Mc

  I work at a publishing house and I am setting up one of our presses for "ganging", in other words, printing multiple jobs simultaneously. Given that different print jobs can have different quantities, and anywhere from 1 to 20 jobs might need to be considered at a time, the problem would be to determine which jobs to group together to minimize waste (waste coming from over-printing on smaller-quantity jobs in a given set, that is). Given the following stable data: All jobs are equal in terms of spatial size--placement on paper doesn't come into consideration. There are three "lanes", meaning that three jobs can be printed simultaneously. Ideally, each lane has one job. Part of the problem is minimizing how many lanes each job is run on. If necessary, one job could be run on two lanes, with a second job on the third lane. The "grouping" waste from a given set of jobs (let's say the quantities of them are x, y and z) would be the highest number minus the two lower numbers. So if x is the higher number, the grouping waste would be (x - y) + (x - z). Otherwise stated, waste is produced by printing job Y and Z (in excess of their quantities) up to the quantity of X. The grouping waste would be a qualifier for the given set, meaning it could not exceed a certain quantity or the job would simply be printed alone. So the question is stated: how to determine which sets of jobs are grouped together, out of any given number of jobs, based on the qualifiers of 1) Three similar quantities OR 2) Two quantities where one is approximately double the other, AND with the aim of minimal total grouping waste across the various sets. (Edit) Quantity Information: Typical job quantities can be from 150 to 350 on foreign languages, or 500 to 1000 on English print runs. This data can be used to set up some scenarios for an algorithm. For example, let's say you had 5 jobs: 1000, 500, 500, 450, 250 By looking at it, I can see a couple of answers. Obviously (1000/500/500) is not efficient as you'll have a grouping waste of 1000. (500/500/450) is better as you'll have a waste of 50, but then you run (1000) and (250) alone. But you could also run (1000/500) with 1000 on two lanes, (500/250) with 500 on two lanes and then (450) alone. In terms of trade-offs for lane minimization vs. wastage, we could say that any grouping waste over 200 is excessive. (End Edit) ...Needless to say, quite a problem. (For me.) I am a moderately skilled programmer but I do not have much familiarity with algorithms and I am not fully studied in the mathematics of the area. I'm I/P writing a sort of brute-force program that simply tries all options, neglecting any option tree that seems to have excessive grouping waste. However, I can't help but hope there's an easier and more efficient method. I've looked at various websites trying to find out more about algorithms in general and have been slogging my way through the symbology, but it's slow going. Unfortunately, Wikipedia's articles on the subject are very cross-dependent and it's difficult to find an "in". The only thing I've been able to really find would seem to be a definition of the rough type of algorithm I need: "Exclusive Distance Clustering", one-dimensionally speaking. I did look at what seems to be the popularly referred-to algorithm on this site, the Bin Packing one, but I was unable to see exactly how it would work with my problem. Any help is appreciated. :)

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• Why do I get "Sequence contains no elements"?

  - by Gary McGill

  NOTE: see edits at bottom. I am an idiot. I had the following code to process set of tag names and identify/process new ones: IEnumberable<string> tagNames = GetTagNames(); List<Tag> allTags = GetAllTags(); var newTagNames = tagNames.Where(n => !allTags.Any(t => t.Name == n)); foreach (var tagName in newTagNames) { // ... } ...and this worked fine, except that it failed to deal with cases where there's a tag called "Foo" and the list contains "foo". In other words, it wasn't doing a case-insensitive comparison. I changed the test to use a case-insensitive comparison, as follows: var newTagNames = tagNames.Where(n => !allTags.Any(t => t.Name.Equals(n, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase))); ... and suddenly I get an exception thrown when the foreach runs (and calls MoveNext on) newTagNames. The exception says: Sequence has no elements I'm confused by this. Why would foreach insist on the sequence being non-empty? I'd expect to see that error if I was calling First(), but not when using foreach? EDIT: more info. This is getting weirder by the minute. Because my code is in an async method, and I'm superstitious, I decided that there was too much "distance" between the point at which the exception is raised, and the point at which it's caught and reported. So, I put a try/catch around the offending code, in the hope of verifying that the exception being thrown really was what I thought it was. So now I can step through in the debugger to the foreach line, I can verify that the sequence is empty, and I can step right up to the bit where the debugger highlights the word "in". One more step, and I'm in my exception handler. But, not the exception handler I just added, no! It lands in my outermost exception handler, without visiting my recently-added one! It doesn't match catch (Exception ex) and nor does it match a plain catch. (I did also put in a finally, and verified that it does visit that on the way out). I've always taken it on faith that an Exception handler such as those would catch any exception. I'm scared now. I need an adult. EDIT 2: OK, so um, false alarm... The exception was not being caught by my local try/catch simply because it was not being raised by the code I thought. As I said above, I watched the execution in the debugger jump from the "in" of the foreach straight to the outer exception handler, hence my (wrong) assumption that that was where the error lay. However, with the empty enumeration, that was simply the last statement executed within the function, and for some reason the debugger did not show me the step out of the function or the execution of the next statement at the point of call - which was in fact the one causing the error. Apologies to all those who responded, and if you would like to create an answer saying that I am an idoit, I will gladly accept it. That is, if I ever show my face on SO again...

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• Analyzing bitmaps produced by NSAffineTransform and CILineOverlay filters

  - by Adam

  I am trying to manipulate an image using a chain of CIFilters, and then examine each byte of the resulting image (bitmap). Long term, I do not need to display the resulting image (bitmap) -- I just need to "analyze" it in memory. But near-term I am displaying it on screen, to help with debugging. I have some "bitmap examination" code that works as expected when examining the NSImage (bitmap representation) I use as my input (loaded from a JPG file into an NSImage). And it SOMETIMES works as expected when I use it on the outputBitmap produced by the code below. More specifically, when I use an NSAffineTransform filter to create outputBitmap, then outputBitmap contains the data I would expect. But if I use a CILineOverlay filter to create the outputBitmap, none of the bytes in the bitmap have any data in them. I believe both of these filters are working as expected, because when I display their results on screen (via outputImageView), they look "correct." Yet when I examine the outputBitmaps, the one created from the CILineOverlay filter is "empty" while the one created from NSAffineTransfer contains data. Furthermore, if I chain the two filters together, the final resulting bitmap only seems to contain data if I run the AffineTransform last. Seems very strange, to me??? My understanding (from reading the CI programming guide) is that the CIImage should be considered an "image recipe" rather than an actual image, because the image isn't actually created until the image is "drawn." Given that, it would make sense that the CIimage bitmap doesn't have data -- but I don't understand why it has data after I run the NSAffineTransform but doesn't have data after running the CILineOverlay transform? Basically, I am trying to determine if creating the NSCIImageRep (ir in the code below) from the CIImage (myResult) is equivalent to "drawing" the CIImage -- in other words if that should force the bitmap to be populated? If someone knows the answer to this please let me know -- it will save me a few hours of trial and error experimenting! Finally, if the answer is "you must draw to a graphics context" ... then I have another question: would I need to do something along the lines of what is described in the Quartz 2D Programming Guide: Graphics Contexts, listing 2-7 and 2-8: drawing to a bitmap graphics context? That is the path down which I am about to head ... but it seems like a lot of code just to force the bitmap data to be dumped into an array where I can get at it. So if there is an easier or better way please let me know. I just want to take the data (that should be) in myResult and put it into a bitmap array where I can access it at the byte level. And since I already have code that works with an NSBitmapImageRep, unless doing it that way is a bad idea for some reason that is not readily apparent to me, then I would prefer to "convert" myResult into an NSBitmapImageRep. CIImage * myResult = [transform valueForKey:@"outputImage"]; NSImage *outputImage; NSCIImageRep *ir = [NSCIImageRep alloc]; ir = [NSCIImageRep imageRepWithCIImage:myResult]; outputImage = [[[NSImage alloc] initWithSize: NSMakeSize(inputImage.size.width, inputImage.size.height)] autorelease]; [outputImage addRepresentation:ir]; [outputImageView setImage: outputImage]; NSBitmapImageRep *outputBitmap = [[NSBitmapImageRep alloc] initWithCIImage: myResult]; Thanks, Adam

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• bug/error in basis set path algorithm i can't figure out

  - by Roy McAvoy

  The following looks through a 2d array to find basis set paths. It is supposed to print out the individual paths but not repeat any and end when all paths are found. It however doesn't stop at the last path and has a bug in it somewhere in which the following happens: It goes halfway through the path and then goes to zero and ends the path for some reason. For example the table is filled with the following: all 0s, except for [1][2], [1][3], [2][4], [2][5], [3][5], [4][6], [5][6], [6][0] which all have a 1 in them. The desired paths are P1: 1 2 4 6 0 P2: 1 3 5 6 0 P3: 1 2 5 6 0. The output I get when i run the program is 12460 13560 1250 124 Any and all help on this is much appreciated, this is just the function that scans through the array looking for paths, I can add the entire program if that would be helpful. Thanks.. void find_path(int map[][MAX], int x){ int path =0; int m=1; int blah=0; bool path_found = false; do { for(int n=0;n<(x+1);n++){ if(map[m][n]==-1){ blah=(n+1); if(blah<(x+1)){ for(blah;blah<(x+1);blah++){ if(map[m][blah]==1){ map[m][blah]=-1; path=m; path_found = true; cout<<path; m=blah; n=0; } } } else{ path=m; path_found=false; cout<<path; m=n; if(m==0){ path=0; cout<<path<<endl; m=1; path_found=false; } } } else if(map[m][n]==1){ map[m][n]=-1; path=m; path_found = true; cout<<path; m=n; if(m==0){ path=0; cout<<path<<endl; m=1; path_found=false; } } } } while(m<(x+1) && path_found); }

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• Tomcat/Hibernate Problem "SEVERE: Error listenerStart"

  - by JSteve

  I downloaded working example of hibernate (with maven) and installed it on my tomcat, it worked. Then I created a new web project in MyEclipse, added hibernate support and moved all source files (no jar) to this new project and fixed package/paths wherever was necessary. My servlets are responding correctly but when I add "Listener" in web.xml, tomcat returns error "Error ListenerStart" on startup and my application doesn't start. I've carefully checked all packages, paths and classes, they look good. Error message is also not telling anything more except these two words Here is complete tomcat startup log: 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol init INFO: Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-8810 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina load INFO: Initialization processed in 293 ms 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardService start INFO: Starting service Catalina 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngine start INFO: Starting Servlet Engine: Apache Tomcat/6.0.20 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Error listenerStart 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Context [/addressbook] startup failed due to previous errors 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol start INFO: Starting Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-8810 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket init INFO: JK: ajp13 listening on /0.0.0.0:8009 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.jk.server.JkMain start INFO: Jk running ID=0 time=0/22 config=null 17-Jun-2010 12:13:37 PM org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina start INFO: Server startup in 446 ms My web.xml is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <web-app version="2.4" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd"> <listener> <listener-class>addressbook.util.SessionFactoryInitializer</listener-class> </listener> <filter> <filter-name>Session Interceptor</filter-name> <filter-class>addressbook.util.SessionInterceptor</filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>Session Interceptor</filter-name> <servlet-name>Country Manager</servlet-name> </filter-mapping> <servlet> <servlet-name>Country Manager</servlet-name> <servlet-class>addressbook.managers.CountryManagerServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Country Manager</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/countrymanager</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> Can somebody either help me figure out what I am doing wrong? or point to some resource where I may get some precise solution of my problem?

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• jQuery .ajax call to bit.ly returns results in IE but not FF or Chrome

  - by Ian Quigley

  I am trying to call to the bit.ly URL shortening service using jQuery with an .ajax call. <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.twipler.com/settings/scripts/jquery.1.4.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.fn.shorten = function(url) { var resultUrl = url; $.ajax( { url: "http://api.bit.ly/shorten?version=2.0.1&login=twipler&apiKey=R_4e618e42fadbb802cf95c6c2dbab3763&longUrl=" + url, async: false, dataType: 'json', data: "", type: "GET", success: function (json) { resultUrl = json.results[url].shortUrl; } }); return resultUrl; } ; </script></head><body> <a href="#" onclick="alert($().shorten('http://amiconnectedtotheinternet.com'));"> Shorten</a> </body> </html> This works in IE8 but does not work in FireFox (3.5.9) nor in Chrome. In both cases 'json' is null. Headers in IE8 GET http://api.bit.ly/shorten?ver..[SNIP]..dtotheinternet.com HTTP/1.1 Accept: application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language: en-US Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Host: api.bit.ly Connection: Keep-Alive Headers in Chrome GET http://api.bit.ly/shorten?versio..[SNIP]..nectedtotheinternet.com HTTP/1.1 Host: api.bit.ly Connection: keep-alive User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.1.249.1045 Safari/532.5 Origin: file:// Accept: application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language: en-US,en;q=0.8 Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 So the only obvious difference is that Chrome is sending "Origin: file://" and I've no idea how to stop it doing that.

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• Can I make Axis2 generate a WSDL with 'unwrapped' types?

  - by Bedwyr Humphreys

  I'm trying to consume a hello world AXIS2 SOAP web service using a PHP client. The Java class is written in Netbeans and the AXIS2 aar file is generated using the Netbeans AXIS2 plugin. You've all seen it before but here's the java class: public class SOAPHello { public String sayHello(String username) { return "Hello, "+username; } } The wsdl genereated by AXIS2 seems to wrap all the parameters so that when I consume the service i have to use a crazy PHP script like this: $client = new SoapClient("http://myhost:8080/axis2/services/SOAPHello?wsdl"); $parameters["username"] = "Dave"; $response = $client->sayHello($parameters)->return; echo $response."!"; When all I really want to do is echo $client->sayHello("Dave")."!"; My question is two-fold: why is this happening? and what can I do to stop it? :) Here's are the types, message and porttype sections of the generated wsdl: <wsdl:types> <xs:schema attributeFormDefault="qualified" elementFormDefault="qualified" targetNamespace="http://soap.axis2.myhost.co.uk"> <xs:element name="sayHello"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" name="username" nillable="true" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="sayHelloResponse"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" name="return" nillable="true" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> </wsdl:types> <wsdl:message name="sayHelloRequest"> <wsdl:part name="parameters" element="ns:sayHello"/> </wsdl:message> <wsdl:message name="sayHelloResponse"> <wsdl:part name="parameters" element="ns:sayHelloResponse"/> </wsdl:message> <wsdl:portType name="SOAPHelloPortType"> <wsdl:operation name="sayHello"> <wsdl:input message="ns:sayHelloRequest" wsaw:Action="urn:sayHello"/> <wsdl:output message="ns:sayHelloResponse" wsaw:Action="urn:sayHelloResponse"/> </wsdl:operation> </wsdl:portType>

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• Using boost locks for RAII access to a semaphore

  - by dan

  Suppose I write a C++ semaphore class with an interface that models the boost Lockable concept (i.e. lock(); unlock(); try_lock(); etc.). Is it safe/recommended to use boost locks for RAII access to such an object? In other words, do boost locks (and/or other related parts of the boost thread library) assume that the Lockable concept will only be modeled by mutex-like objects which are locked and unlocked from the same thread? My guess is that it should be OK to use a semaphore as a model for Lockable. I've browsed through some of the boost source and it "seems" OK. The locks don't appear to store explicit references to this_thread or anything like that. Moreover, the Lockable concept doesn't have any function like whichThreadOwnsMe(). It also looks like I should even be able to pass a boost::unique_lock<MySemaphore> reference to boost::condition_variable_any::wait. However, the documentation is not explicitly clear about the requirements. To illustrate what I mean, consider a bare-bones binary semaphore class along these lines: class MySemaphore{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } Now suppose that somewhere, either on an object or globally, I have MySemaphore sem; I want to lock and unlock it using RAII. Also I want to be able to "pass" ownership of the lock from one thread to another. For example, in one thread I execute void doTask() { boost::unique_lock<MySemaphore> lock(sem); doSomeWorkWithSharedObject(); signalToSecondThread(); waitForSignalAck(); lock.release(); } While another thread is executing something like { waitForSignalFromFirstThread(); ackSignal(); boost::unique_lock<MySemaphore>(sem,boost::adopt_lock_t()); doMoreWorkWithSameSharedObject(); } The reason I am doing this is that I don't want anyone else to be able to get the lock on sem in between the time that the first thread executes doSomeWorkWithSharedObject() and the time the second executes doMoreWorkWithSameSharedObject(). Basically, I'm splitting one task into two parts. And the reason I'm splitting the task up is because (1) I want the first part of the task to get started as soon as possible, (2) I want to guarantee that the first part is complete before doTask() returns, and (3) I want the second, more time-consuming part of the task to be completed by another thread, possibly chosen from a pool of slave threads that are waiting around to finish tasks that have been started by master threads. NOTE: I recently posted this same question (sort of) here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2754884/unlocking-a-mutex-from-a-different-thread-c but I confused mutexes with semaphores, and so the question about using boost locks didn't really get addressed.

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• Sending multiline message via sockets without closing the connection

  - by Yasir Arsanukaev

  Hello folks. Currently I have this code of my client-side Haskell application: import Network.Socket import Network.BSD import System.IO hiding (hPutStr, hPutStrLn, hGetLine, hGetContents) import System.IO.UTF8 connectserver :: HostName -- ^ Remote hostname, or localhost -> String -- ^ Port number or name -> IO Handle connectserver hostname port = withSocketsDo $ do -- withSocketsDo is required on Windows -- Look up the hostname and port. Either raises an exception -- or returns a nonempty list. First element in that list -- is supposed to be the best option. addrinfos <- getAddrInfo Nothing (Just hostname) (Just port) let serveraddr = head addrinfos -- Establish a socket for communication sock <- socket (addrFamily serveraddr) Stream defaultProtocol -- Mark the socket for keep-alive handling since it may be idle -- for long periods of time setSocketOption sock KeepAlive 1 -- Connect to server connect sock (addrAddress serveraddr) -- Make a Handle out of it for convenience h <- socketToHandle sock ReadWriteMode -- Were going to set buffering to LineBuffering and then -- explicitly call hFlush after each message, below, so that -- messages get logged immediately hSetBuffering h LineBuffering return h sendid :: Handle -> String -> IO String sendid h id = do hPutStr h id -- Make sure that we send data immediately hFlush h -- Retrieve results hGetLine h The code portions in connectserver are from this chapter of Real World Haskell book where they say: When dealing with TCP data, it's often convenient to convert a socket into a Haskell Handle. We do so here, and explicitly set the buffering – an important point for TCP communication. Next, we set up lazy reading from the socket's Handle. For each incoming line, we pass it to handle. After there is no more data – because the remote end has closed the socket – we output a message about that. Since hGetContents blocks until the server closes the socket on the other side, I used hGetLine instead. It satisfied me before I decided to implement multiline output to client. I wouldn't like the server to close a socket every time it finishes sending multiline text. The only simple idea I have at the moment is to count the number of linefeeds and stop reading lines after two subsequent linefeeds. Do you have any better suggestions? Thanks.

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• Is it possible to implement bitwise operators using integer arithmetic?

  - by Statement

  Hello World! I am facing a rather peculiar problem. I am working on a compiler for an architecture that doesn't support bitwise operations. However, it handles signed 16 bit integer arithmetics and I was wondering if it would be possible to implement bitwise operations using only: Addition (c = a + b) Subtraction (c = a - b) Division (c = a / b) Multiplication (c = a * b) Modulus (c = a % b) Minimum (c = min(a, b)) Maximum (c = max(a, b)) Comparisons (c = (a < b), c = (a == b), c = (a <= b), et.c.) Jumps (goto, for, et.c.) The bitwise operations I want to be able to support are: Or (c = a | b) And (c = a & b) Xor (c = a ^ b) Left Shift (c = a << b) Right Shift (c = a b) (All integers are signed so this is a problem) Signed Shift (c = a b) One's Complement (a = ~b) (Already found a solution, see below) Normally the problem is the other way around; how to achieve arithmetic optimizations using bitwise hacks. However not in this case. Writable memory is very scarce on this architecture, hence the need for bitwise operations. The bitwise functions themselves should not use a lot of temporary variables. However, constant read-only data & instruction memory is abundant. A side note here also is that jumps and branches are not expensive and all data is readily cached. Jumps cost half the cycles as arithmetic (including load/store) instructions do. On other words, all of the above supported functions cost twice the cycles of a single jump. Some thoughts that might help: I figured out that you can do one's complement (negate bits) with the following code: // Bitwise one's complement b = ~a; // Arithmetic one's complement b = -1 - a; I also remember the old shift hack when dividing with a power of two so the bitwise shift can be expressed as: // Bitwise left shift b = a << 4; // Arithmetic left shift b = a * 16; // 2^4 = 16 // Signed right shift b = a >>> 4; // Arithmetic right shift b = a / 16; For the rest of the bitwise operations I am slightly clueless. I wish the architects of this architecture would have supplied bit-operations. I would also like to know if there is a fast/easy way of computing the power of two (for shift operations) without using a memory data table. A naive solution would be to jump into a field of multiplications: b = 1; switch (a) { case 15: b = b * 2; case 14: b = b * 2; // ... exploting fallthrough (instruction memory is magnitudes larger) case 2: b = b * 2; case 1: b = b * 2; } Or a Set & Jump approach: switch (a) { case 15: b = 32768; break; case 14: b = 16384; break; // ... exploiting the fact that a jump is faster than one additional mul // at the cost of doubling the instruction memory footprint. case 2: b = 4; break; case 1: b = 2; break; }

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• How to get jQuery to work with Prototype

  - by thinkfuture

  Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris BTW: when I try this, from the jQuery site: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); // Use jQuery via jQuery(...) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("div").hide(); }); // Use Prototype with $(...), etc. $('someid').hide(); </script> my page disappears!

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• Spring/RMI server error

  - by 4herpsand7derpsago

  We have a Spring MVC web app (WAR) deploying to Tomcat (6.0.35) that launches a thread inside a separate JVM at deploy time (don't ask why - not my design) and then communicates with that thread via RMI over port 8888. Despite being totally convoluded, this was working perfectly fine up until yesterday, and now the thread is failing at startup and despite our best efforts to add logging into the mix, we are hitting a wall. This is the only exception we are able to find in the logs: Jun 12, 2012 3:11:36 AM com.ourapp.ImageController destroy SEVERE: Shutdown Error: Lookup of RMI stub failed; nested exception is java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: localhost; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused Jun 12, 2012 3:11:37 AM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext listenerStop SEVERE: Exception sending context destroyed event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/web/context/ContextCleanupListener at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener.contextDestroyed(ContextLoaderListener.java:80) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.listenerStop(StandardContext.java:3973) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.stop(StandardContext.java:4577) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.checkResources(HostConfig.java:1165) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.check(HostConfig.java:1271) at org.apache.catalina.startup.HostConfig.lifecycleEvent(HostConfig.java:296) at org.apache.catalina.util.LifecycleSupport.fireLifecycleEvent(LifecycleSupport.java:119) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.backgroundProcess(ContainerBase.java:1337) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase$ContainerBackgroundProcessor.processChildren(ContainerBase.java:1601) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase$ContainerBackgroundProcessor.processChildren(ContainerBase.java:1610) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase$ContainerBackgroundProcessor.run(ContainerBase.java:1590) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:662) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.web.context.ContextCleanupListener at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1387) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1233) ... 12 more The ImageController is the Spring MVC Controller that is responsible for kicking off this daemon/spawned RMI thread. Based on the verbage of this error, does anybody have any idea what might be causing this "connection refused" error? Running a netstat -an | grep 8888 (this is a Linux machine) produces no output which means nothing is listening on that port. Thanks in advance for any ideas/suggestions that lead to a fix. Edit: Here's another ConnectionException we're seeing: Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:351) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:213) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:200) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:478) at java.net.Socket.<init>(Socket.java:375) at java.net.Socket.<init>(Socket.java:189) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIDirectSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIDirectSocketFactory.java:22) at sun.rmi.transport.proxy.RMIMasterSocketFactory.createSocket(RMIMasterSocketFactory.java:128) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPEndpoint.newSocket(TCPEndpoint.java:595) ... 74 more

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