Search Results

Search found 16021 results on 641 pages for 'mr nothing'.

Page 502/641 | < Previous Page | 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509  | Next Page >

  • VB .Net - Reflection: Reflected Method from a loaded Assembly executes before calling method. Why?

    - by pu.griffin
    When I am loading an Assembly dynamically, then calling a method from it, I appear to be getting the method from Assembly executing before the code in the method that is calling it. It does not appear to be executing in a Serial manner as I would expect. Can anyone shine some light on why this might be happening. Below is some code to illustrate what I am seeing, the code from the some.dll assembly calls a method named PerformLookup. For testing I put a similar MessageBox type output with "PerformLookup Time: " as the text. What I end up seeing is: First: "PerformLookup Time: 40:842" Second: "initIndex Time: 45:873" Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.IO Imports Microsoft.VisualBasic.Strings Imports System.Reflection Public Class Class1 Public Function initIndex(indexTable as System.Collections.Hashtable) As System.Data.DataSet Dim writeCode As String MessageBox.Show("initIndex Time: " & Date.Now.Second.ToString() & ":" & Date.Now.Millisecond.ToString()) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) writeCode = RefreshList() End Function Public Function RefreshList() As String Dim asm As System.Reflection.Assembly Dim t As Type() Dim ty As Type Dim m As MethodInfo() Dim mm As MethodInfo Dim retString as String retString = "" Try asm = System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom("C:\Program Files\some.dll") t = asm.GetTypes() ty = asm.GetType(t(28).FullName) 'known class location m = ty.GetMethods() mm = ty.GetMethod("PerformLookup") Dim o as Object o = Activator.CreateInstance(ty) Dim oo as Object() retString = mm.Invoke(o,Nothing).ToString() Catch Ex As Exception End Try return retString End Function End Class

    Read the article

  • DOJO : How do you reinitiate form elements after ajax call ?

    - by Dural
    I'm trying to do a couple of things using Zend Framework & Dojo Toolkit, and any help would be appreciated. Here's the problem: I have a form that is rendered with the Zend Framework form class, which has an ajax radio button selection. Clicking one of these radio buttons will send an ajax request to another controller, which has no layout, just a rendered form. The ajax request will then populate a div with the new form options. Problem is, when I replace the innerHTML of the div with the ajax response, all the form inputs and elements are not inheriting the same Dojo styling and form validation. I was wondering if there is a way to reinitate form elements after an ajax call? I have tried to use the code attached which I found and modified slightly for this example, however it did not work. If I use the line dojo.parser.parse( div ); nothing changes (rg_adress in the example is the ID of a form element that is placed on the DOM). Here is the console.log of rg_address: <input type="text" dojotype="dijit.form.ValidationTextBox" required="1" invalidmessage="The first name of the recipient" value="" name="rg_address" id="rg_address" class="textbox"/> onClick=' dojo.xhrGet( { url: "/transfer/newrecipient/", handleAs: "text", timeout: 10000, // Time in milliseconds // The LOAD function will be called on a successful response. load: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html(response); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); var div = dojo.byId("rg_address"); console.log( div ); dojo.parser.parse( div ); return response; }, // The ERROR function will be called in an error case. error: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html("Error loading registration form"); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); return response; } });' Thanks, Dural

    Read the article

  • Calling MethodBase's Invoke on a constructor (reflection)

    - by Alix
    Hi everyone. First of all, sorry if this has been asked before. I've done a pretty comprehensive search and found nothing quite like it, but I may have missed something. And now to the question: I'm trying to invoke a constructor through reflection, with no luck. Basically, I have an object that I want to clone, so I look up the copy constructor for its type and then want to invoke it. Here's what I have: public Object clone(Object toClone) { MethodBase copyConstructor = type.GetConstructor( new Type[] { toClone.GetType() }); return method.Invoke(toClone, new object[] { toClone }); //<-- doesn't work } I call the above method like so: List list = new List(new int[] { 0, 1, 2 }); List clone = (List) clone(list); Now, notice the invoke method I'm using is MethodBase's invoke. ConstructorInfo provides an invoke method that does work if invoked like this: return ((ConstructorInfo) method).Invoke(new object[] { toClone }); However, I want to use MethodBase's method, because in reality instead of looking up the copy constructor every time I will store it in a dictionary, and the dictionary contains both methods and constructors, so it's a Dictionary<MethodBase>, not Dictionary<ConstructorInfo>. I could of course cast to ConstructorInfo as I do above, but I'd rather avoid the casting and use the MethodBase method directly. I just can't figure out the right parameters. Any help? Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • Progressive MP4 video issues in Flash- Video stops rendering

    - by Conor
    I'm currently working on a flash project that has an intro video that plays before heading into the main app. This video is an H.264 .mp4, 1550x540, and around 10MB. The problem thats currently driving me insane is that when I test it, occasionally the video will begin playing, and then suddenly stop rendering the video frames, leaving the audio playing in the background with nothing on screen. Once the file is played through fully (based on listening to the audio), my playback complete event fires like it should, but I can't find any info of people having similar issues. Attached is a trace of the .mp4 metadata in case that helps. videoframerate : 24 audiochannels : 2 audiocodecid : mp4a audiosamplerate : 48000 trackinfo: 0: length : 608000 timescale : 24000 language : eng sampledescription: 0: sampletype : avc1 1: length : 1218560 timescale : 48000 language : eng sampledescription: 0: sampletype : mp4a duration : 25.386666666666667 width : 1540 videocodecid : avc1 seekpoints: 0: time : 0 offset : 13964 1: time : 0.333 offset : 16893 2: time : 0.667 offset : 34212 ... 73: time : 24.333 offset : 9770329 74: time : 24.667 offset : 9845709 75: time : 25 offset : 9895215 moovposition : 32 height : 540 avcprofile : 77 avclevel : 51 aacaot : 2 This has been driving me absolutely insane... any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Adding a UIPickerView over a UITabBarController

    - by Kai
    I'm trying to have a UIPickerView slide from the bottom of the screen (over the top of a tab bar) but can't seem to get it to show up. The actual code for the animation is coming from one of Apple's example code projects (DateCell). I'm calling this code from the first view controller (FirstViewController.m) under the tab bar controller. - (IBAction)showModePicker:(id)sender { if (self.modePicker.superview == nil) { [self.view.window addSubview:self.modePicker]; // size up the picker view to our screen and compute the start/end frame origin for our slide up animation // // compute the start frame CGRect screenRect = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; CGSize pickerSize = [self.modePicker sizeThatFits:CGSizeZero]; CGRect startRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); self.modePicker.frame = startRect; // compute the end frame CGRect pickerRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height - pickerSize.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); // start the slide up animation [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; // we need to perform some post operations after the animation is complete [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.modePicker.frame = pickerRect; // shrink the vertical size to make room for the picker CGRect newFrame = self.view.frame; newFrame.size.height -= self.modePicker.frame.size.height; self.view.frame = newFrame; [UIView commitAnimations]; // add the "Done" button to the nav bar self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.doneButton; }} Whenever this action fires via a UIBarButtonItem that lives in a UINavigationBar (which is all under the FirstViewController) nothing happens. Can anyone please offer some advice?

    Read the article

  • How do I print an HTML document from a web service?

    - by Chris Marasti-Georg
    I want to print HTML from a C# web service. The Web Browser control is overkill, and does not function well in a service-environment, nor does it function well on a system with very tight security constraints. Is there any sort of free .NET library that will support the printing of a basic HTML page? Here is the code I have so far, that is not running properly. public void PrintThing(string document) { if (Thread.CurrentThread.GetApartmentState() != ApartmentState.STA) { Thread thread = new Thread((ThreadStart) delegate { PrintDocument(document); }); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); thread.Start(); } else { PrintDocument(document); } } protected void PrintDocument(string document) { WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.DocumentText = document; while (browser.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) { Application.DoEvents(); } browser.Print(); } This works fine when called from UI-type threads, but nothing happens when called from a service-type thread. Changing Print() to ShowPrintPreviewDialog() yields the following IE script error: Error: 'dialogArguments.___IE_PrintType' is null or not an object URL: res://ieframe.dll/preview.dlg And a small empty print preview dialog appears.

    Read the article

  • Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

    - by AppleGrew
    I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

    Read the article

  • Classification: Dealing with Abstain/Rejected Class

    - by abner.ayala
    I am asking for your input and/help on a classification problem. If anyone have any references that I can read to help me solve my problem even better. I have a classification problem of four discrete and very well separated classes. However my input is continuous and has a high frequency (50Hz), since its a real-time problem. The circles represent the clusters of the classes, the blue line the decision boundary and Class 5 equals the (neutral/resting do nothing class). This class is the rejected class. However the problem is that when I move from one class to the other I activate a lot of false positives in the transition movements, since the movement is clearly non-linear. For example, every time I move from class 5 (neutral class) to 1 I first see a lot of 3's before getting to the 1 class. Ideally, I will want my decision boundary to look like the one in the picture below where the rejected class is Class =5. Has a higher decision boundary than the others classes to avoid misclassification during transition. I am currently implementing my algorithm in Matlab using naive bayes, kNN, and SVMs optimized algorithms using Matlab. Question: What is the best/common way to handle abstain/rejected classes classes? Should I use (fuzzy logic, loss function, should I include resting cluster in the training)?

    Read the article

  • VB.NET handling data between different forms

    - by niuchu
    Hi, I'm writing a simple application - address book. User enters new addresses and they are added as an entry to a list visible on the main form (frmStart). I use one form to add and edit (AddContForm). Add button on the frmStart works fine, however I experience some problems with the edit button as when I press it and enter new data they are added as new entry however the previous entry is still there. Logic is handled by Contact.vb class. Please let me know how to fix this problem. Here is the code: Contact.vb Public Class Contact Public Contact As String Public Title As String Public Fname As String Public Surname As String Public Address As String Private myCont As String Public Property Cont() Get Return myCont End Get Set(ByVal value) myCont = Value End Set End Property Public Overrides Function ToString() As String Return Me.Cont End Function Public Sub Display() Dim C As New Contact C.Cont = frmAddCont.txtTitle.Text C.Fname = frmAddCont.txtFName.Text C.Surname = frmAddCont.txtSName.Text C.Address = frmAddCont.txtAddress.Text frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C) End Sub End Class Here is frmStart.vb Public Class frmStart Public Button As String Private Sub btnAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnAdd.Click Button = "" Button = "Add" frmAddCont.ShowDialog() End Sub Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDel.Click Button = "" Button = "Del" Dim DelCont As Contact DelCont = Me.lstContact.SelectedItem() lstContact.Items.Remove(DelCont) End Sub Private Sub lstContact_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles lstContact.SelectedIndexChanged End Sub Private Sub btnEdit_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEdit.Click Button = "" Button = "Edit" Dim C As Contact If lstContact.SelectedItem IsNot Nothing Then C = DirectCast(lstContact.SelectedItem, Contact) frmAddCont.ShowDialog() End If End Sub End Class Here is AddContFrm.vb Public Class frmAddCont Public Class ControlObject Dim Title As String Dim FName As String Dim SName As String Dim Address As String Dim TelephoneNumber As Integer Dim emailAddress As String Dim Website As String Dim Photograph As String End Class Private Sub btnConfirmAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnConfirmAdd.Click Dim B As String B = frmStart.Button Dim C As New Contact C.Display() Me.Hide() If B = "Edit" Then C = DirectCast(frmStart.lstContact.SelectedItem, Contact) frmStart.lstContact.SelectedItems.Remove(C) End If End Sub Private Sub frmAddCont_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • ActiveX not working properly with default security settings

    - by Ummar
    I have written an ActiveX control in C# and have made it working using regasm command, and it works fine as long as the security level is set to low.. Then as a next step I have made a .cab installer (ICD - Internet component downloader), and have signed my .cab file and ActiveX .dll file with a test certificate. when I hit the html page from my browser the installation parts works fine with default security settings of IE, but at the end it seems that nothing is installed and a red cross is shown on place of ActiveX. Moreover I have explored the Download Program Files folder under Windows directory, in status column it is showing word "unknown". while it is "installed" for all other activeX. what may be the problem. Moreover if i use the regasm command to register the assembly it works fine, and I have signed the ActiveX but still I have to move the security bar to low in my browser setting? why it is so? then what is the purpose of signing? I have used RegisterServer=yes in my .inf file Please let me know, if some one has gone through this problem already?

    Read the article

  • Python Turtle Graphics, how to plot functions over an interval?

    - by TheDragonAce
    I need to plot a function over a specified interval. The function is f1, which is shown below in the code, and the interval is [-7, -3]; [-1, 1]; [3, 7] with a step of .01. When I execute the program, nothing is drawn. Any ideas? import turtle from math import sqrt wn = turtle.Screen() wn.bgcolor("white") wn.title("Plotting") mypen = turtle.Turtle() mypen.shape("classic") mypen.color("black") mypen.speed(10) while True: try: def f1(x): return 2 * sqrt((-abs(abs(x)-1)) * abs(3 - abs(x))/((abs(x)-1)*(3-abs(x)))) * \ (1 + abs(abs(x)-3)/(abs(x)-3))*sqrt(1-(x/7)**2)+(5+0.97*(abs(x-0.5)+abs(x+0.5))-\ 3*(abs(x-0.75)+abs(x+0.75)))*(1+abs(1-abs(x))/(1-abs(x))) mypen.penup() step=.01 startf11=-7 stopf11=-3 startf12=-1 stopf12=1 startf13=3 stopf13=7 def f11 (startf11,stopf11,step): rc=[] y = f1(startf11) while y<=stopf11: rc.append(startf11) #y+=step mypen.setpos(f1(startf11)*25,y*25) mypen.dot() def f12 (startf12,stopf12,step): rc=[] y = f1(startf12) while y<=stopf12: rc.append(startf12) #y+=step mypen.setpos(f1(startf12)*25, y*25) mypen.dot() def f13 (startf13,stopf13,step): rc=[] y = f1(startf13) while y<=stopf13: rc.append(startf13) #y+=step mypen.setpos(f1(startf13)*25, y*25) mypen.dot() f11(startf11,stopf11,step) f12(startf12,stopf12,step) f13(startf13,stopf13,step) except ZeroDivisionError: continue

    Read the article

  • I can't get datepicker to work

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I need a field that displays the datepicker. I followed the example given by the JQuery UI documentation and haven't managed to get it to work. My html where I have my text field is: <div class="editor-field"> <input type = "text" name = "DatePublished" id = "Published" /> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("DatePublished" ,"*") %> </div> This HTML is in a partial view, lets call it pv.ascx, and it is called in the main page as a modal box: <div id = "ModalBox"> <% Html.RenderAction("pv", "Example"); %> </div> The thing is, that I try to call the datepicker creation anytime I enter the main page, and I do it in my javascript file app.js: $().ready(function() { var place = window.location.pathname; var placesplit = place.split("/"); //Depending on the location we are on, we execute different subroutines $('#Published').datepicker(); }); But nothing happens when I focus on the text field. What is wrong? Could it be that being called from a partial view it doesn't work? Thank you everyone, vikitor

    Read the article

  • How to make a custom NSFormatter work correctly on Snow Leopard?

    - by Nathan
    I have a custom NSFormatter attached to several NSTextFields who's only purpose is to uppercase the characters as they are typed into field. The entire code for my formatter is included below. The stringForObjectValue() and getObjectValue() implementations are no-ops and taken pretty much directly out of Apple's documentation. I'm using the isPartialStringValid() method to return an uppercase version of the string. This code works correctly in 10.4 and 10.5. When I run it on 10.6, I get "strange" behaviour where text fields aren't always render the characters that are typed and sometimes are just displaying garbage. I've tried enabling NSZombie detection and running under Instruments but nothing was reported. I see errors like the following in "Console": HIToolbox: ignoring exception '*** -[NSCFString replaceCharactersInRange:withString:]: Range or index out of bounds' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x917ca58a __raiseError + 410 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x94581f49 objc_exception_throw + 56 2 CoreFoundation 0x917ca2b8 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 136 3 CoreFoundation 0x917ca22a +[NSException raise:format:] + 58 4 Foundation 0x9140f528 mutateError + 218 5 AppKit 0x9563803a -[NSCell textView:shouldChangeTextInRange:replacementString:] + 852 6 AppKit 0x95636cf1 -[NSTextView(NSSharing) shouldChangeTextInRanges:replacementStrings:] + 1276 7 AppKit 0x95635704 -[NSTextView insertText:replacementRange:] + 667 8 AppKit 0x956333bb -[NSTextInputContext handleTSMEvent:] + 2657 9 AppKit 0x95632949 _NSTSMEventHandler + 209 10 HIToolbox 0x93379129 _ZL23DispatchEventToHandlersP14EventTargetRecP14OpaqueEventRefP14HandlerCallRec + 1567 11 HIToolbox 0x933783f0 _ZL30SendEventToEventTargetInternalP14OpaqueEventRefP20OpaqueEventTargetRefP14HandlerCallRec + 411 12 HIToolbox 0x9339aa81 SendEventToEventTarget + 52 13 HIToolbox 0x933fc952 SendTSMEvent + 82 14 HIToolbox 0x933fc2cf SendUnicodeTextAEToUnicodeDoc + 700 15 HIToolbox 0x933fbed9 TSMKeyEvent + 998 16 HIToolbox 0x933ecede TSMProcessRawKeyEvent + 2515 17 AppKit 0x95632228 -[NSTextInputContext handleEvent:] + 1453 18 AppKit 0x9562e088 -[NSView interpretKeyEvents:] + 209 19 AppKit 0x95631b45 -[NSTextView keyDown:] + 751 20 AppKit 0x95563194 -[NSWindow sendEvent:] + 5757 21 AppKit 0x9547bceb -[NSApplication sendEvent:] + 6431 22 AppKit 0x9540f6fb -[NSApplication run] + 917 23 AppKit 0x95407735 NSApplicationMain + 574 24 macsetup 0x00001f9f main + 24 25 macsetup 0x00001b75 start + 53 ) Can anybody shed some light on what is happening? Am I just using NSFormatter incorrectly? -(NSString*) stringForObjectValue:(id)object { if( ![object isKindOfClass: [ NSString class ] ] ) { return nil; } return [ NSString stringWithString: object ]; } -(BOOL)getObjectValue: (id*)object forString: string errorDescription:(NSString**)error { if( object ) { *object = [ NSString stringWithString: string ]; return YES; } return NO; } -(BOOL) isPartialStringValid: (NSString*) cStr newEditingString: (NSString**) nStr errorDescription: (NSString**) error { *nStr = [NSString stringWithString: [cStr uppercaseString]]; return NO; }

    Read the article

  • What is the best IDE setup for web development?

    - by Yuval A
    I am starting a little side project which consists of building a small-medium sized, django-based, website. However, last time I was actually in the business of websites, was a few good years ago. So while still technologically capable, I'm still rusted on the tools/IDE part of websites. I am looking for an IDE which can support the following: Basic HTML editing with syntax completion, highlighting, etc... Basic CSS editing with syntax completion, highlighting, etc... Python support for Django Support for the entire develop-debug-FTP upload cycle If all of this could happen inside my existing eclipse installation, it would be nothing short of perfection. So what's your recommendation on web development IDEs? EDIT: forgot to add that I'm running Win XP on my dev machine. EDIT after answers: thanks all you guys for the helpful advice. I think I'm going to go with Aptana as it fits in to eclipse which I already use. Also I will look into version control instead of simple FTP upload. Apparently I didn't know how much it is used even in web projects.

    Read the article

  • ContentControl + RenderTargetBitmap + empty image

    - by Kellls
    Im trying to create some chart images without ever displaying those charts on the screen. I'v been at this for quite a while and tried a lot of different things but nothing seems to work. The code works perfectly if I display the chart in a window first, but if I don't display it in a window, the bitmap is just white with a black border (no idea why). I have tried adding the chart to a border before rendering and giving the border a green borderBrush. In the bitmap, I see the green borderBrush then the black border and white background but no chart. I don't know where the black border is coming from as the chart is not contained in a black border. I have tried adding the chart to a window without calling window.Show() and again just the black boarder and white background. However if I call window.Show() the bitmap contains the chart. I have tried using a drawingVisual as explained here, same result. Here is the code (not including adding the element to a border or window): private static BitmapSource CreateElementScreenshot(FrameworkElement element, int dpi) { if (!element.IsMeasureValid) { Size size = new Size(element.Width, element.Height); element.Measure(size); element.Arrange(new Rect(size)); } element.UpdateLayout(); var scale = dpi/96.0; var renderTargetBitmap = new RenderTargetBitmap ( (int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Width),(int)(scale * element.RenderSize.Height),dpi,dpi,PixelFormats.Default ); // this is waiting for dispatcher to perform measure, arrange and render passes element.Dispatcher.Invoke(((Action)(() => renderTargetBitmap.Render(element))), DispatcherPriority.Render); return renderTargetBitmap; } Note: The chart is a ContentControl. Is there anyway I can get the chart to render without displaying it in a window first?

    Read the article

  • Javascript onunload form submit isn't submitting data

    - by Kevin
    I currently have form that checks if a user has unsubmitted changes when they leave the page with a function called through the onunload event. Here's the function: function saveOnExit() { var answer = confirm("You are about to leave the page. All unsaved work will be lost. Would you like to save now?"); if (answer) { document.main_form.submit(); } } And here's the form: <body onunload="saveOnExit()"> <form name="main_form" id="main_form" method="post" action="submit.php" onsubmit="saveScroll()"> <textarea name="comments"></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit2" value="Submit!"/> </form> I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong here. The data gets submitted and saved in my database if I just press the submit button for the form. However, trying to submit the form through the onunload event doesn't result in anything being stored, from what I can tell. I've tried adding onclick alerts to the submitt button and onsubmit alerts to the form elements and I can verify that the submit button is being triggered and that the form does get submitted. However, nothing gets passed stored in the database. Any ideas as to what I'm doing wrong? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • I didn't say anything treasonous, quit putting words in my mouth

    - by You guys Lie
    Where at all did I say ANYTHING about organizing some kind of anti-government activity? Nowhere. I do not give a flying fuck about America in case you hadn't realized, I'm talking about what I'm going to do when Jesus Christ returns. Besides, why would I make it easy for them to throw me in a black site prison? Use common sense, sheeple. In the end I guess it doesn't matter anyways, since I do not recognize the government as my ultimate authority. Police/Army/Whatever-- funny outfits and a shiny badge don't make you better than me. Allah will do away with your kind. However, as long as they're with me (as they semi-currently are), we have no problems. I fear the government will have other plans to control the population when things start to further decline, and that is when they will run into problems with me and mine, and probably a large percentage of the public. You'd have to be a fucking fool to think we'd fall into anarchy immediately, given the vast resources and blind loyalty of this country. Saying there are practical limits to free speech for anything I have said in this thread is not only ignorant, it is unpatriotic. I should be being celebrated as the modern day Paul Revere for warning you people about our impending doom. You would do well to study the foundations of this country. Nothing I have said is treasonous at all. Besides, the DoD knows I'm harmless until shit pops off, they have bigger fish to fry right now, go forward. Keep in mind, I don't personally have to do anything to overthrow the government. I just said, I would not advocate for any paramilitary organizations at this time, only if/after we dissolve into (more) tyranny. I am not a terrorist, like some soldiers in Iraq. The machine is doing a great job of ruining itself, while I get to comfortably laugh at it on the nightly news knowing that I'm ready for it to shut down.

    Read the article

  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

    Read the article

  • How to make Facebook Authentication from Silverlight secure?

    - by SondreB
    I have the following scenario I want to complete: Website running some HTTP(S) services that returns data for a user. Same website is additionally hosting a Silverlight 4 app which calls these services. The Silverlight app is integrating with Facebook using the Facebook Developer Toolkit (http://facebooktoolkit.codeplex.com/). I have not fully decided whether I want Facebook-integration to be a "opt-in" option such as Spotify, or if I want to "lock" down my service with Facebook-only authentication. That's another discussion. How do I protect my API Key and Secret that I receive from Facebook in a Silverlight app? To me it's obvious that this is impossible as the code is running on the client, but is there a way I can make it harder or should I just live with the fact that third parties could potentially "act" as my own app? Using the Facebook Developer Toolkit, there is a following C# method in Silverlight that is executed from the JavaScript when the user has fully authenticated with Facebook using the Facebook Connect APIs. [ScriptableMember] public void LoggedIn(string sessionKey, string secret, int expires, long userId) { this.SessionKey = sessionKey; this.UserId = userId; Obvious the problem here is the fact that JavaScript is injection the userId, which is nothing but a simple number. This means anyone could potentially inject a different userId in JavaScript and have my app think it's someone else. This means someone could hijack the data within the services running on my website. The alternative that comes to mind is authenticating the users on my website, this way I'm never exposing any secrets and I can return an auth-cookie to the users after the initial authentication. Though this scenario doesn't work very well in an out-of-browser scenario where the user is running the Silverlight app locally and not from my website.

    Read the article

  • Weird behaviour of C++ destructors

    - by Vilx-
    #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; int main() { vector< vector<int> > dp(50000, vector<int>(4, -1)); cout << dp.size(); } This tiny program takes a split second to execute when simply run from the command line. But when run in a debugger, it takes over 8 seconds. Pausing the debugger reveals that it is in the middle of destroying all those vectors. WTF? Note - Visual Studio 2008 SP1, Core 2 Duo 6700 CPU with 2GB of RAM. Added: To clarify, no, I'm not confusing Debug and Release builds. These results are on one and the same .exe, without even any recompiling inbetween. In fact, switching between Debug and Release builds changes nothing.

    Read the article

  • Rolling Back a Transaction with MySQL Connector in VB.net

    - by Jonathan
    Hey all- I have one multi-row INSERT statement (300 or so sets of values) that I would like to commit to the MySQL database in an all-or-nothing fashion. insert into table VALUES (1, 2, 3), (4, 5, 6), (7, 8, 9); In some cases, a set of values in the command will not meet the criteria of the table (duplicate key, for example). When that happens I do not want any of the previous sets added to the database. I've implemented this with the following code, however, my rollback command doesn't appear to be making a difference. I've used this documentation: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/es/connector-net-examples-mysqltransaction.html Dim transaction As MySqlTransaction = sqlConnection.BeginTransaction() sqlCommand = New MySqlCommand(insertStr, sqlConnection, transaction) Try sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() Catch ex As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & ex.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("Could not execute " & sqlCmd & vbNewLine) Try transaction.Rollback() writeToLog("All statements were rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False Catch rollbackEx As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & rollbackEx.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("All statements were not rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False End Try End Try transaction.commit() I get the DUPLICATE KEY exception thrown, no Rollback Exception thrown, and every set of values up to duplicate key committed to the database. What am I doing wrong? Thanks- Jonathan

    Read the article

  • Text Hints with JQuery and JavaScript for loop

    - by lpdahito
    Hey guys! I'm developing a small app where i ask users to put some info. I want to show text hints in the input fields. I do this in a for loop... When the page is loaded, the hints are displayed correctly but nothing happens on 'focus' and 'blur' events... I'm wondering why since when I don't use a 'for loop' in my js code, everything works find... By the way the reason I use a for loop is because I don't want to repeat myself following 'DRY' principles... Thx for your help! LP Here's the code: <script src="/javascripts/jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var form_elements = ['#submission_url', '#submission_email', '#submission_twitter'] var text_hints = ['Website Address', 'Email Address', 'Twitter Username (optional)'] $(document).ready(function(){ for(i=0; i<3; i++) { $(form_elements[i]).val(text_hints[i]); $(form_elements[i]).focus(function(i){ if ($(this).val() == text_hints[i]) { $(this).val(''); } }); $(form_elements[i]).blur(function(i){ if ($(this).val() != text_hints[i]) { $(this).val(text_hints[i]); } }); } }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Issue using GAE appcfg.py

    - by JustSmith
    I get nothing out of appcfg.py besides the default output. I'm trying to upload some data to my development project with no luck at at all. From the instructions on the Google App Engine page the steps are as follows: Edit app.yaml update with appcfg.py make upload script upload with appcfg.py After step one I try to run the update and it never shows any success. The following commands product the same output: appcfg.py appcfg.py update appDir appcfg.py update appDir/ appcfg.py update /appDir If i try to follow the instructions from the appcfg.py output and type help upload and get: "help <action>" I get a response from the system, This command is not supported by the help utility. Try "update /?". cause I'm calling the system help command. If I use the command appcfg.py help upload I get the same result as just typing appcfg.py Can someone show me examples of the syntax to update the dev site, upload data to it and get appcfg.py to actually give help on its commands? Also I'm just assuming that the upload script and the .csv file that are being uploaded are in they myApp directory. Appreciate any help,

    Read the article

  • Best practices for deploying an MVC application on IIS7

    - by gsiler
    I'm not a web admin, and I'm new to IIS. So, I'm looking for advice. My MVC application (e.g. fooapp) is the default application for my site (e.g. foo.bar). I used IIS Manager to add the site to IIS7. When I import the application, IIS Manager wants to put it in it's own directory (/foo), and tells me I shouldn't put it in the base (site) directory. This means that to get to my default MVC view, I have to enter the URL http://foo.bar/fooapp/. Needless to say, I want to get there via http://foo.bar/ I see 2 possible solutions: Add a default page to the site directory that redirects to the MVC app. Ignore the IIS admonition and load the app into the site directory. My IIS7 knowledge is limited. I have played around with some options (such as HTTP Redirect). Since nothing changed, I obviously don't understand what I'm doing. Anyway, if there are some considered "best practices" and/or other suggestions, please let me know.

    Read the article

  • Ant fileset's "dir" missing from absolute path when using a mapper

    - by spaaarky21
    I've been trying to write an Ant task to "compile" Sass scripts in my project using the apply task but I kept getting a "No such file or directory" error. I thought it might have been caused by spaces in the buildpath so I went through the trouble of moving the project only to find that Ant seems to omitting the fileset's root directory when it returns the path. This is what the target looks like: <target name="sass-compile" depends="properties"> <apply executable="sass"> <srcfile /> <targetfile /> <fileset dir="${project.src.dir}" includes="**/*.scss" /> <globmapper from="*.scss" to="*.css" /> </apply> </target> To help troubleshoot, I switched the executable from sass to echo and I noticed that the mapper is transforming paths like this... /Users/me/Documents/Programming/workspace/Project/src/java/com/proj/web/page/template/Template.scss ...into this... /Users/me/Documents/Programming/workspace/Project/java/com/proj/web/page/template/Template.css Notice that the src directory is missing from the target file path. Am I seeing a bug here or is this somehow expected? I would love to know what's going on here. I have also tried using a regexpmapper, and a filtermapper with replacestring. The result is the same. I'm running Ant 1.7.1, which comes bundled with Eclipse Helios, which I'm running on a Mac. I also tried Ant 1.8 on both Mac and Linux. Nothing works. Does anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509  | Next Page >