Search Results

Search found 13904 results on 557 pages for 'host on demand'.

Page 504/557 | < Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >

• Running an application from an USB device...

  - by Workshop Alex

  I'm working on a proof-of-concept application, containing a WCF service with console host and client, both on a single USB device. On the same device I will also have the client application which will connect to this service. The service uses the entity framework to connect to the database, which in this POC will just return a list of names. If it works, it will be used for a larger project. Creating the client and service was easy and this works well from USB. But getting the service to connect to the database isn't. I've found this site, suggesting that I should modify machine.config but that stops the XCopy deployment. This project cannot change any setting of the PC, so this suggestion is bad. I cannot create a deployment setup either. The whole thing just needs to run from USB disk. So, how do I get it to run? (The service just selects a list of names from the database, which it returns to the client. If this POC works, it will do far more complex things!)

  Read the article

• New user register, script auto create problems!

  - by SKY

  Hi, im currently trying to create a php script that when a new user register, a script (eg:wordpress,blog etc..) will install for them. I'm currently got the code below for just single setup, but how can i setup a form for multi user? which only allowing them to input the username (subdomain) and password. <?php class scriptname_Config { public static $title = 'new_script_title'; // Domain name and path where new script will installed in public static $domain = 'username.domain.com'; public static $absolutePath = '/new_register_username/'; // Settings for general mysql database public static $db = array( 'host' => 'localhost', 'database' => 'scriptname', 'user' => 'root', 'password' => '', 'prefix' => 'scriptname_' ); } define( 'scriptname_BASE_URL', 'http://'.scriptname_Config::$domain.scriptname_Config::$absolutePath ); ?> Or any tutorial that will help is appreciate! Thanks!

  Read the article

• Expressjs route param as variable in main app

  - by MoDFoX

  For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

  Read the article

• Changing the href attribute on hover with jQuery

  - by AverageJoe

  Ok, I have an html page that is loaded into another html page via PHP (ok so its a PHP page, whatever). The page that is loaded is a list of hyperlinks. I need to change the href attribute to make the hyperlinks relative to the location of the stored images they refer too. When i load the page containing the hyperlinks the links are relative to the web host server, not the server that the page is actually hosted from. Somthing like this: <div #screenshots) <p><a href="image1.htm">Image1</a></p> <p><a href="image2.htm">Image2</a></p> <p><a href="image3.htm">Image3</a></p> <p><a href="image4.htm">Image4</a></p> <p><a href="image5.htm">Image5</a></p> </div> When I mouse over the links, the status bar shows the reference as "http://webHostServer.com/image1.htm". If I click it I get a 404 error. I need the href to change to something like this when I mouse over it: "http://www.actualImageHostServerIPaddress/image1.htm" I looked at this for assitance and came out with the following jQuery code, but for some reason none of it works: $(document).ready(function(){ $("button").click(function() { $("#screenshots a").addClass('ss'); }); $(".ss").each(function() { $(this).data("oldHref", $(this).attr("href")); orig = $(this).attr("href"); over = "http://208.167.244.33/208.167.244.33/"; $(this).hover(function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).attr("href").replace(orig, over+orig)); }, function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).data("oldHref")); }); }); When I click the button it dosen't add the class to the anchor tags, so when I hover over them nothing changes. Any help here would be great.

  Read the article

• How can I parse_url in PHP when there is a URL in a string variable?

  - by Eric O

  I am admittedly a PHP newbie, so I need some help. I am creating a self-designed affiliate program for my site and have the option for an affiliate to add a SubID to their link for tracking. Without having control over what is entered, I have been testing different scenarios and found a bug when a full URL is entered (i.e. "http://example.com"). In my PHP I can grab the variable from the string no problem. My problem comes from when I get the referring URL and parse it (since I need to parse the referring URL to get the host mane for other uses). Code below: $refURL = getenv("HTTP_REFERER"); $parseRefURL = parse_url($refURL); WORKS when incoming link is (for example): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=www.test.com ERROR when incoming link is (notice the addition of "http://" after "sid="): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com Here is the warning message: Warning: parse_url(/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com) [function.parse-url]: Unable to parse url in /home4/'directory'/public_html/hosterdoodle/header.php on line 28 Any ideas on how to keep the parse-url function from being thrown off when someone may decide to place a URL in a variable? (I actually tested this problem down to the point that it will throw the error with as little as ":/" in the variable)

  Read the article

• Does Socket open another thread? Does it return something?

  - by Roman

  In the client application I call new Socket(serverIP,serverPort). As a result the client application sends a request to the server application to open a socket. Does it start a new thread? I mean which of the following is true? Client application sends a request and immediately starts to execute following commands (not weighting for the answer). Client sends the request and weights for the answer. As soon as the answer is obtained, the client application continues to execute following commands. The second case seems to be more realistic and logical for me. However, I do not understand what happens if the server does not open a socket and it does not say that it does not "want" to open the second (it can happen if the server does not exist or network is broken). What will happen in this case? Will server weight forever? In general it would be nice for the client to know what is the result of its request for the socket. For example I can imagine the following situations: The socket is opened by the server. The server refuses to open a socket. So, server exists, it got the request from the client but it says "no". There is no response from the server. I know that new Socket(serverIP,serverPort) does not "return" this kind of information. But it throws exceptions. One of them is "UnkownHostException". When it is thrown? When the server is not responding for a while (for how long)? ADDED: I just found out that UnknownHostException is thrown to indicate that the IP address of a host could not be determined. So, it is unrelated with the above described situations (server is not responding, server refuses to open a socket).

  Read the article

• Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

  - by JustJeff

  I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

  Read the article

• How to query an .NET assembly's required framework (not CLR) version?

  - by Bonfire Burns

  Hi, we are using some kind of plug-in architecture in one of our products (based on .NET). We have to consider our customers or even 3rd party devs writing plug-ins for the product. The plug-ins will be .NET assemblies that are loaded by our product at run-time. We have no control about the quality or capabilities of the external plug-ins (apart from checking whether they implement the correct interfaces). So we need to implement some kind of safety check while loading the plug-ins to make sure that our product (and the hosting environment) can actually host the plug-in or deliver a meaningful error message ("The plug-in your are loading needs .NET version 42.42 - the hosting system is only on version 33.33."). Ideally the plug-ins would do this check internally, but our experience regarding their competence is so-so and in any case our product will get the blame, so we want to make sure that this "just works". Requiring the plug-in developers to provide the info in the metadata or to explicitly provide the information in the interface is considered "too complicated". I know about the Assembly.ImageRuntimeVersion property. But to my knowledge this tells me only the needed CLR version, not the framework version. And I don't want to check all of the assembly's dependencies and match them against a table of "framework version vs. available assemblies". Do you have any ideas how to solve this in a simple and maintainable fashion? Thanks & regards, Bon

  Read the article

• Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

  - by Mousarules

  Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

  Read the article

• Compile Apache 2.4.3 on Centos 6.2 (64bit)

  - by RiseCakoPlusplus

  I attempt to compile Apache 2.4.3 with apr-1.4.6 and apr-util-1.5.1 on Centos 6.2 (64bit). ./configure --build=x86_64-unknown-linux-gnu --host=x86_64-unknown-linux-gnu --target=x86_64-redhat-linux-gnu --program-prefix= --prefix=/usr --exec-prefix=/usr --bindir=/usr/bin --sbindir=/usr/sbin --sysconfdir=/etc --datadir=/usr/share --includedir=/usr/include --libdir=/usr/lib64 --libexecdir=/usr/libexec --localstatedir=/var --sharedstatedir=/var/lib --mandir=/usr/share/man --infodir=/usr/share/info --cache-file=../config.cache --with-libdir=lib64 --with-config-file-path=/etc --with-config-file-scan-dir=/etc/php.d --disable-debug --with-pic --disable-rpath --without-pear --with-bz2 --with-exec-dir=/usr/bin --with-freetype-dir=/usr --with-png-dir=/usr --with-xpm-dir=/usr --enable-gd-native-ttf --with-t1lib=/usr --without-gdbm --with-gettext --with-gmp --with-iconv --with-jpeg-dir=/usr --with-openssl --with-zlib --with-layout=GNU --enable-exif --enable-ftp --enable-magic-quotes --enable-sockets --with-kerberos --enable-ucd-snmp-hack --enable-shmop --enable-calendar --with-libxml-dir=/usr --enable-xml --with-system-tzdata --with-mhash --with-apxs2=/usr/sbin/apxs --libdir=/usr/lib64/php --enable-pdo=shared --with-mysql=shared,/usr --with-mysqli=shared,/usr/lib64/mysql/mysql_config --with-pdo-mysql=shared,/usr/lib64/mysql/mysql_config --without-pdo-sqlite --without-gd --disable-dom --disable-dba --without-unixODBC --disable-xmlreader --disable-xmlwriter --without-sqlite3 --disable-phar --disable-fileinfo --disable-json --without-pspell --disable-wddx --without-curl --disable-posix --disable-sysvmsg --disable-sysvshm --disable-sysvsem ./configure --with-included-apr --with-included-apr-util and when I issue make this happen: /root/httpd-2.4.3/srclib/apr/libtool: line 5989: cd: yes/lib: No such file or directory libtool: link: cannot determine absolute directory name of yes/lib' make[3]: *** [libaprutil-1.la] Error 1 make[3]: Leaving directory/root/httpd-2.4.3/srclib/apr-util' make[2]: * [all-recursive] Error 1 make[2]: Leaving directory /root/httpd-2.4.3/srclib/apr-util' make[1]: *** [all-recursive] Error 1 make[1]: Leaving directory/root/httpd-2.4.3/srclib' make: * [all-recursive] Error 1 anything I missed?

  Read the article

• Using a CNAME with Shared Windows Azure Website

  - by user1679021

  I've been following instructions on the Azure site to add a CNAME to point to my Azure website. I have had some problems getting it to work and there seems to be some contradictory information in some of the posts. I have my website running in "Shared" mode, which according to the Azure instructions supports custom domains and indeed it seems to allow me to manage domains. But some posts seem to indicate that I have to run in reserved mode. Can anyone confirm this? Also, some posts seem to indicate that I need to add the CNAME in the Azure management portal, but I cannot find where this is. Any help appreciated? I don't really understand A records and CNAME that well. My DNS provider allows me to add both. Do I need to change both? Currently my A record points the "root" to the IP address that Azure gives me and the CNAME points www.mydomain to the Azure website host mysite.azurewebsites.net. I have left them for a while to propogate and nothing seem to happen.

  Read the article

• Perl, Net::Traceroute::PurePerl return value

  - by John R

  This is a sub routine that I copied from CPAN. It works fine as it is when I run it from the command line. I have a similar function from Net::Traceroute that also works fine AND allows me to return the string with a SOAP call. The problem comes when I try to return the ~string(?) from the function below with a SOAP call. sub tr { use Net::Traceroute::PurePerl; my $t = new Net::Traceroute::PurePerl( backend => 'PurePerl', # this optional host => 'www.whatever.com', debug => 0, max_ttl => 30, query_timeout => 2, packetlen => 40, protocol => 'udp', # Or icmp ); $t->traceroute; $t->pretty_print; return $t; #print $t; } The output looks like a string except the last part of the string looks like this: 28 * * * 29 * * * 30 * * * Net::Traceroute::PurePerl=HASH(0x11fa6bf0) I don't know what is different about Net::Traceroute::PurePerl that won't allow me to return the value with SOAP since the Net::Traceroute version does allow me to return it with SOAP.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to limit outside connections to a subdomain with .htaccess or similar?

  - by digidave0205

  I host a web application. This application serves static html pages that are refreshed at various intervals. Some as often as every 30 secs. At this time I have about 300 unique pages that are accessed via 300 unique subdomains. Some clients have at most 50 visitors to their unique page and it refreshes every 30 secs, no problem. Other clients have up to 1000 or more visitors to their page. These clients are killing my server. There was no predefined limit upon signup but now I have to impose such a limit to remain afloat financially. I would like to define a finite number of connections allowed for each individual subdomain in my hosting account. Connections attempted out of range of this finite value would either be rejected or redirected. I have access to .htaccess and php.ini. Is something of this nature possible? Oh, I have a dedicated/managed server at 1and1.

  Read the article

• How do I retrieve twitter xml for Flash site via php properly

  - by daidai

  Am I using TwitterScript to retrieve Twitter data for inside a Flash site. Due to Twitter's crossdomain policy, I need to setup a php proxy... Firstly I made a simple one <?php $url = $_GET['url']; readfile($url); ?> but I then get this error URL file-access is disabled in the server configuration which is only resolved by getting my host to turn fopen() on, which I don't want to do. Then I found this <?php function get_content($url) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); ob_start(); curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); $string = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $string; } #usage: $url = $_GET['url']; $content = get_content ($url); var_dump ($content); ?> which solves that problem but the data now is the correct XML but looks like: string(39950) "<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <statuses type="array"> <status> ... </statuses>" How do I get the XML data out of that string?

  Read the article

• destructor being called by subclass

  - by zero

  I'm currently learning more about php objects and constructors/destructors, but i've noticed in my code that the parent class's destructor is being called twice, I thought it was because i was extending the first class to my second class and that the second class was calling it, but this is what the php docs say about that: Like constructors, parent destructors will not be called implicitly by the engine. In order to run a parent destructor, one would have to explicitly call parent::__destruct() in the destructor body. so if it is not being called by the subclass then is it because by extended the first class that i've made a reference to the parent class making it call itself twice or I'm I way off base here? the code: <?php class test{ public $test1 = "this is a test of a pulic property"; private $test2 = "this is a test of a private property"; protected $test3 = "this is a test of a protected property"; const hello = 900000; function __construct($h){ //echo 'this is the constructor test '.$h; } function x($x2){ echo ' this is fn x'.$x2; } function y(){ print "this is fn y"; } } $obj = new test("this is an \"arg\" sent to instance of test"); class hey extends test{ function hey(){ $this->x('<br>from the host with the most'); echo ' <br>from hey class'.$this->test3; } } $obj2 = new hey(); echo $obj2::hello; ?>

  Read the article

• find and replace values in csv using PHP

  - by peirix

  I'd think there was a question on this already, but I can't find one. Maybe the solution is too easy... Anyway, I have a csv and want to let the user change the values based on a name. I've already sorted out creating new name+value-pairs using the fopen('a') mode, using jQuery to send the AJAX call with newValue and newName. But say the content looks like this: host|http:www.stackoverflow.com folder|/questions/ folder2|/users/ And now I want to change the folder value. So I'll send in folder as oldName and /tags/ as newValue. What's the best way to overwrite the value? The order in the list doesn't matter, and the name will always be on the left, followed by a |(pipe), the value and then a new-line. My first thought was to read the list, store it in an array, search all the [0]'s for oldName, then change the [1] that belongs to it, and then write it back to a file. But I feel there is a better way around this? Any ideas? Maybe regex?

  Read the article

• Sample twitter App

  - by Jack

  I am now running my code on a web hosting service http://xtreemhost.com/ <?php function updateTwitter($status) { $username = 'xxxxxx'; $password = 'xxxx'; $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); $responseInfo=array(); $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following error now Curl error: Couldn't resolve host 'api.twitter.com' Error: 0 Please somebody solve my problem

  Read the article

• How can I initialize an ActiveX control from a URL?

  - by Peter Ruderman

  I have an MFC ActiveX control embedded in a web page. Some of the parameters for this control are very large. I don't know what these values will be at compile time, but I do know that once retrieved, they will almost certainly never change. Currently, I embed the parameters like so: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="<%= GetData() %>" /> </object> I want to do something like this: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="content/data" valuetype="ref" /> </object> The idea is that the browser would retrieve the resource from the web server and pass it on to the control. The browser's own caching would then take care of the unneccesary downloads. Unfortunately, ref parameters don't work like this. The browser just passes the url along to the control (which strikes me as utterly useless, but I digress). So, is there some way I can make this work? Alternatively, is there an easy way in MFC to instruct the control's host container to retrieve a URI identified resource? Any better ideas?

  Read the article

• $this->url() to another subdomain

  - by Supertino7

  Hello, I created subdomain for my application. host_www.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_www.route = "www.mywebsite.com" host_www.defaults.module = "produits" host_www.defaults.controller = "produits" host_www.defaults.action = "index" fiche_boutique.route = "ficheboutique/:boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.controller = "boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.action = "fiche-boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.module = "default" fiche_boutique.chain = "host_www" host_produits.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_produits.route = "produits.mywebsite.com" host_produits.defaults.module = "produits" host_produits.defaults.controller = "produits" host_produits.defaults.action = "index" fiche_produit.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex" fiche_produit.route = "([-\w]+).htm" fiche_produit.reverse = "%s.htm" fiche_produit.map.1 = "q" fiche_produit.defaults.module = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.controller = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.action = "voir-produit" fiche_produit.chain = "host" I don't know if the syntax in this zend config ini file is correct, in particular for routes chaining. Once I'm on this subdomain, urls constructed with $this-url() like this : <a href="<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> still point to the subdomain produits.mywebsite.com, where I want it to point to www.mywebsite.com For the moment, I do this : <a href="http://www.mywebsite.com<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> But it's not flexible at all. Is there a solution, a parameter to add, or my config file is wrong ? thanks in advance for your help.

  Read the article

• Basic formatting. sed, or cut, or what?

  - by dsclough

  Very new to this whole Unix thing. I'm currently using korn shell to try and format some lines of text. My input has a couple of lines that look something like this Date/Time :- Monday June 03 00:00:00 EDT 2013 Host Name :- HostNameHere PIDS :- NumbersNLetters Product Name :- ProductName The desired output would be as follows: Date/Time="Monday June 03 00:00:00 EDT 2013" HostName="HostNameHere" PIDS="NumbersNLetters" ProductName="ProductName" So, I need to get rid of any spaces in the leftmost column, and throw everything in the rightmost column between quotations. I've looked at the cut command, and got this far: Cut -f 1,2 -d - Which might produce a result like Date/Time:Monday June 03 00:00:00 EDT 2013, which is close to what I want, but not quite. I wasn't sure if cut could let me add parentheses, and it doesn't look like I can remove spaces that way either. sed seems like it might be closer to the answer, but I wasn't able to find through googling how I might just look for any pattern and not a specific one. I apologize for the incredibly basic question, but reading documentation only gets you so far before your brain starts to ache... If there are any better resources I should be looking at I would be happy to get pointed in the right direction. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Unable to Connect to Management Studio Server

  - by Phil Hilliard

  I have a nasty situation. I am using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio Express edition locally on my pc for testing, and once tested I upload database changes to a remote server. I have a situation where I deleted the Default Database on my local machine, and instead of searching hard enough to find an answer to that problem, I uninstalled and reinstalled Management Studio. Since then Management Studio has not been able to connect to the server. Is there any help (or hope for me for that matter), out there????? The following is the detailed error message: =================================== Cannot connect to LENOVO-E7A54767\SQLEXPRESS. =================================== A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) ------------------------------ For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=-1&LinkId=20476 ------------------------------ Error Number: -1 Severity: 20 State: 0 ------------------------------ Program Location: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ObjectExplorer.ValidateConnection(UIConnectionInfo ci, IServerType server) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.ConnectionDlg.Connector.ConnectionThreadUser()

  Read the article

• Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

  - by bufferz

  I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

  Read the article

• Can't get Dialog hosting a WebView to layout properly

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to host a webview on a dialog, without a titlebar, but I'm getting odd layout results. Example test: @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); WindowManager wm = (WindowManager)getContext().getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE); Display display = wm.getDefaultDisplay(); LinearLayout ll = new LinearLayout(getContext()); ll.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); ll.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); ll.setMinimumWidth(display.getWidth() - 10); ll.setMinimumHeight(display.getHeight() - 10); WebView wv = new WebView(getContext()); wv.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); wv.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); ll.addView(mWebView); setContentView(ll, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); } the dialog is inflated at startup, but the webview is not visible. If I rotate the device, it becomes visible, and fills the whole parent layout as requested. What is the right way to do this? I simply want a dialog which occupies most of the device screen, and has a WebView on it which fills the entire space. Thanks

  Read the article

• PHP shell_exec() - Run directly, or perform a cron (bash/php) and include MySQL layer?

  - by Jimbo

  Sorry if the title is vague - I wasn't quite sure how to word it! What I'm Doing I'm running a Linux command to output data into a variable, parse the data, and output it as an array. Array values will be displayed on a page using PHP, and this PHP page output is requested via AJAX every 10 seconds so, in effect, the data will be retrieved and displayed/updated every 10 seconds. There could be as many as 10,000 characters being parsed on every request, although this is usually much lower. Alternative Idea I want to know if there is a better* alternative method of retrieving this data every 10 seconds, as multiple users (<10) will be having this command executed automatically for them. A cronjob running on the server could execute either bash or php (which is faster?) to grab the data and store it in a MySQL database. Then, any AJAX calls to the PHP output would return values in the MySQL database rather than making a direct call to execute server code every 10 seconds. Why? I know there are security concerns with running execs directly from PHP, and (I hope this isn't micro-optimisation) I'm worried about CPU usage on the server. The server is running a sempron processor. Yes, they do still exist. Having this only execute when the user is on the page (idea #1) means that the server isn't running code that doesn't need to be run. However, is this slow and insecure? Just in case the type of linux command may be of assistance in determining it's efficiency: shell_exec("transmission-remote $host:$port --auth $username:$password -l"); I'm hoping that there are differences in efficiency and level of security with the two methods I have outlined above, and that this isn't just micro-micro-optimisation. If there are alternative methods that are better*, I'd love to learn about these! :)

  Read the article

• Does RazorEngine require MVC3 to be installed?

  - by tkha007

  I am working on a web project that uses MVC2. I decided to try out RazorEngine to do some e-mail templating. This appeared to work fine when I was protyping using an MVC2 project so I assumed that RazorEngine will work fine for my e-mail templating solution. What I had forgotten at the time was that I actually had MVC3 installed on my local development machine. After deploying the project on a pre-test server I get the following error in the logs when the application attempts to do anything with RazorEngine: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' at RazorEngine.Compilation.DefaultCompilerServiceFactory.CreateCompilerService(Language language) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplateType(String razorTemplate, Type modelType) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplate[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Razor.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at System.Dynamic.UpdateDelegates.UpdateAndExecute3[T0,T1,T2,TRet](CallSite site, T0 arg0, T1 arg1, T2 arg2) at Persistence.Utility.RazorEngineHelper.Parse(String templateName, Object model) in The fact that it can't find 'System.Web.Razor' means that this DLL does not exist on the deployed server. The only difference I can think of between the deployment server and my local dev machine is that the deployment server does not have MVC3 installed but I may be mistaken because the deployment server is not something I normally control and as such I don't have a lot of information about it. It is meant to host this particular application so there have been previous deployments of this application to this server. This is the first time I'm making a deployment with RazorEngine as a dependency.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >