Search Results

Search found 15376 results on 616 pages for 'once'.

Page 508/616 | < Previous Page | 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515  | Next Page >

  • Separating code logic from the actual data structures. Best practices?

    - by Patrick
    I have an application that loads lots of data into memory (this is because it needs to perform some mathematical simulation on big data sets). This data comes from several database tables, that all refer to each other. The consistency rules on the data are rather complex, and looking up all the relevant data requires quite some hashes and other additional data structures on the data. Problem is that this data may also be changed interactively by the user in a dialog. When the user presses the OK button, I want to perform all the checks to see that he didn't introduce inconsistencies in the data. In practice all the data needs to be checked at once, so I cannot update my data set incrementally and perform the checks one by one. However, all the checking code work on the actual data set loaded in memory, and use the hashing and other data structures. This means I have to do the following: Take the user's changes from the dialog Apply them to the big data set Perform the checks on the big data set Undo all the changes if the checks fail I don't like this solution since other threads are also continuously using the data set, and I don't want to halt them while performing the checks. Also, the undo means that the old situation needs to be put aside, which is also not possible. An alternative is to separate the checking code from the data set (and let it work on explicitly given data, e.g. coming from the dialog) but this means that the checking code cannot use hashing and other additional data structures, because they only work on the big data set, making the checks much slower. What is a good practice to check user's changes on complex data before applying them to the 'application's' data set?

    Read the article

  • Problem with unlink() in php!

    - by Holicreature
    I'm creating a temp image always named 1.png under specific folder and once i read the image_contents and process, i use unlink() to delete that specific image from that folder. But sometimes the image file is not deleted and the same image is file is read and processed. That script is working otherwise fine... There is no permission related issues , as the files are deleted sometimes... Will there be any issue when the script is repeatedly called and the image with the name is already present and not deleted etc.. ??? Please suggest me what would be the problem extension_loaded('ffmpeg'); $max_width = 120; $max_height = 72; $path ="/home/fff99/public_html/temp/"; ..... ..... $nname = "/home/friend99/public_html/temp/".$imgname; $fileo = fopen($nname,"rb"); if($fileo) { $imgData = addslashes(file_get_contents($nname)); .... ... .. } unlink('$nname');

    Read the article

  • Prototype or jQuery for DOM manipulation (client-side dynamic content)

    - by luiggitama
    I need to know which of these two JavaScript frameworks is better for client-side dynamic content modification for known DOM elements (by id), in terms of performance, memory usage, etc.: Prototype's $('id').update(content) jQuery's jQuery('#id').html(content) BTW, both libraries coexist with no conflict in my app, because I'm using RichFaces for JSF development, that's why I can use "jQuery" instead of "$". I have at least 20 updatable areas in my page, and for each one I prepare content (tables, option lists, etc.), based on some user-defined client-side criteria filtering or some AJAX event, etc., like this: var html = []; int idx = 0; ... html[idx++] = '<tr><td class="cell"><span class="link" title="View" onclick="myFunction('; html[idx++] = param; html[idx++] = ')"></span>'; html[idx++] = someText; html[idx++] = '</td></tr>'; ... So here comes the question, which is better to use: // Prototype's $('myId').update(html.join('')); // or jQuery's jQuery('#myId').html(html.join('')); Other needed functions are hide() and show(), which are present in both frameworks. Which is better? Also I'm needing to enable/disable form controls, and to read/set their values. Note that I know my updatable area's id (I don't need CSS selectors at this point). And I must tell that I'm saving these queried objects in some data structure for later use, so they are requested just once when the page is rendered, like this: MyData = {div1:jQuery('#id1'), div2:$('id2'), ...}; ... div1.update('content 1'); div2.html('content 2'); So, which is the best practice?

    Read the article

  • Rails: bi-directional has_many :through relationship

    - by Chris
    I have three models in a Rails application: Game represents an instance of a game being played. Player represents an instance of a participant in a game. User represents a registered person who can participate in games. Each Game can have many Players, and each User can have many Players (a single person can participate in multiple games at once); but each Player is in precisely one Game, and represents precisely one User. Hence, my relationships are as follows at present. class Game has_many :players end class User has_many :players end class Player belongs_to :game belongs_to :user end ... where naturally the players table has game_id and user_id columns, but games and users have no foreign keys. I would also like to represent the fact that each Game has many Users playing in it; and each User has many Games in which they are playing. How do I do this? Is it enough to add class Game has_many :users, :through => :players end class User has_many :games, :through => :players end

    Read the article

  • Virtualmin - Domain / Subdomain confusion

    - by Dan
    Hi, I've just purchased a new VPS and setup Virtualmin on it. I pointed my domain at the IP of the server and set up a new virtual server through Virtualmin. I uploaded a simple php script to check it was working and it seemed to be fine. I then created a subserver and also pointed test.mydomain.com to my IP, with the intension of having mydomain.com and test.mydomain.com both pointing to different directories on my VPS. However, once I added the subserver, I received a 403 Forbidden message if I tried to access either the new subdomain OR the existing site. I uploaded a similar php script to the subfolder and it then displayed correctly. However, I now get sent to the same script regardless of what URL I type in. I did try posting this message on the Virtualmin forum, but their filters picked it up as spam and wouldn't allow it. Can anyone help me? I'm sure it's just something simple, but this is driving me crazy! Any advice appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to make html-files with content to be used in a simple ajax site to behave nicely in google?

    - by metatron
    I made some ajax sites in the past where I used ajax to get more of a desktop application feeling for my sites and also to keep the site maintainable. My strategy was making one index page and from there pulling in html content from some subpages. (So far I didn't use ajax to send data to the server.) The problem that I ran into is this: I want the subpages to be readable by google since they contain valuable content but once they show up in google's results they lead to the naked html-file (no css nor Javascript). I solved this by putting a javascript redirect (window.location = ...) on the subpages so they lead to the correct page. So as an example let's say I have a site at example.com with some javascript and css and a naked content page that should be loaded via ajax: example.com/content.html. Via ajax I pull in what I need from the content file but since my index.html contains href's to the content.html file (I want the content of my ajax site to be readable without Javascript) it will be indexed by google and gets listed in the search results. But I don't want people to see the naked html file. Hence the redirect that goes to the index page and gets handled by some Javascript to show the content as I want it to be showed. I was wondering if there are nicer solutions to this problem or different approaches.

    Read the article

  • Modifying Django's pre_save/post_save Data

    - by Rodrogo
    Hi, I'm having a hard time to grasp this post_save/pre_save signals from django. What happens is that my model has a field called status and when a entry to this model is added/saved, it's status must be changed accordingly with some condition. My model looks like this: class Ticket(models.Model): (...) status = models.CharField(max_length=1,choices=OFFERT_STATUS, default='O') And my signal handler, configured for pre_save: def ticket_handler(sender, **kwargs): ticket = kwargs['instance'] (...) if someOtherCondition: ticket.status = 'C' Now, what happens if I put aticket.save() just bellow this last line if statement is a huge iteration black hole, since this action calls the signal itself. And this problem happens in both pre_save and post_save. Well... I guess that the capability of altering a entry before (or even after) saving it is pretty common in django's universe. So, what I'm doing wrong here? Is the Signals the wrong approach or I'm missing something else here? Also, would it be possible to, once this pre_save/post_save function is triggered, to access another model's instance and change a specific row entry on that? Thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL Trigger Need to set x from a value

    - by Eric
    Im stuck on a the type of trigger needed to for this constraint. I will have a price and a commission. The price determines the commission amount, < 100 - 4%, < 200 - 5% etc. My idea. the database contains a separate table that will hold 4 price values , 101, 201, 401, 601, with their own matching comission %, this will be called PC. When i create a property listing i want to calculate the commission they earn depending on the price entered. on insert, i need to check the new.price and compare it to the prices in PC. Once new.price is less than the price tuple, i set the price to that commission value create or replace TRIGGER findCommission BEFORE INSERT OR UPDATE ON HASLISTING FOR each ROW BEGIN IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 100001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 6.0; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 250001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 5.5; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE < 1000001) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 5.0; END IF; IF (:NEW.ASKING_PRICE > 1000000) THEN :NEW.COMMISSION = 4.0; END IF; END;

    Read the article

  • Disable a form and all contained elements until an ajax query completes (or another solution to prev

    - by Max Williams
    I have a search form with inputs and selects, and when any input/select is changed i run some js and then make an ajax query with jquery. I want to stop the user from making further changes to the form while the request is in progress, as at the moment they can initiate several remote searches at once, effectively causing a race between the different searches. It seems like the best solution to this is to prevent the user from interacting with the form while waiting for the request to come back. At the moment i'm doing this in the dumbest way possible by hiding the form before making the ajax query and then showing it again on success/error. This solves the problem but looks horrible and isn't really acceptable. Is there another, better way to prevent interaction with the form? To make things more complicated, to allow nice-looking selects, the user actually interacts with spans which have js hooked up to them to tie them to the actual, hidden, selects. So, even though the spans aren't inputs, they are contained in the form and represent the actual interactive elements of the form. Grateful for any advice - max. Here's what i'm doing now: function submitQuestionSearchForm(){ //bunch of irrelevant stuff var questionSearchForm = jQuery("#searchForm"); questionSearchForm.addClass("searching"); jQuery.ajax({ async: true, data: jQuery.param(questionSearchForm.serializeArray()), dataType: 'script', type: 'get', url: "/questions", success: function(msg){ //more irrelevant stuff questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); }, error: function(msg){ questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); } }); return true; }

    Read the article

  • PHP site scheduling Java execution?

    - by obfuscation
    I'm trying to get started on combining my (slightly limited) PHP experience with my (better) Java experience, in a project where I need to allow uploads of Java source files to the server, which the server then executes Javac on to compile it. Then, at a set time (e.g. specified on upload) I need to run that once on the server, which will generate some database info for the PHP site to display. To describe my current programming abilities- I have made many desktop Java programs, and am confident in 'pure' Java, but so far have only undertaken a couple of PHP projects (including using the CodeIgniter framework). My motivation for using PHP as the frontend is because I know it is very fast, lightweight and I will be able to display the results I need very easily with it (simple DB readout). Ideally, the technology used should be able to be developed on a localhost (e.g. WAMP, Tomcat etc..) Is there any advice which you could give on what technology I should consider to use to bridge this gap, and what resources could help in using that technology? I have looked at a few, but have struggled to find documentation helping in achieving what I need.

    Read the article

  • Create table class as a singleton

    - by Mark
    I got a class that I use as a table. This class got an array of 16 row classes. These row classes all have 6 double variables. The values of these rows are set once and never change. Would it be a good practice to make this table a singleton? The advantage is that it cost less memory, but the table will be called from multiple threads so I have to synchronize my code which way cause a bit slower application. However lookups in this table are probably a very small portion of the total code that is executed. EDIT: This is my code, are there better ways to do this or is this a good practice? Removed synchronized keyword according to recommendations in this question. final class HalfTimeTable { private HalfTimeRow[] table = new HalfTimeRow[16]; private static final HalfTimeTable instance = new HalfTimeTable(); private HalfTimeTable() { if (instance != null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Already instantiated"); } table[0] = new HalfTimeRow(4.0, 1.2599, 0.5050, 1.5, 1.7435, 0.1911); table[1] = new HalfTimeRow(8.0, 1.0000, 0.6514, 3.0, 1.3838, 0.4295); //etc } @Override @Deprecated public Object clone() throws CloneNotSupportedException { throw new CloneNotSupportedException(); } public static HalfTimeTable getInstance() { return instance; } public HalfTimeRow getRow(int rownumber) { return table[rownumber]; } }

    Read the article

  • Java reflection Method invocations yield result faster than Fields?

    - by omerkudat
    I was microbenchmarking some code (please be nice) and came across this puzzle: when reading a field using reflection, invoking the getter Method is faster than reading the Field. Simple test class: private static final class Foo { public Foo(double val) { this.val = val; } public double getVal() { return val; } public final double val; // only public for demo purposes } We have two reflections: Method m = Foo.class.getDeclaredMethod("getVal", null); Field f = Foo.class.getDeclaredField("val"); Now I call the two reflections in a loop, invoke on the Method, and get on the Field. A first run is done to warm up the VM, a second run is done with 10M iterations. The Method invocation is consistently 30% faster, but why? Note that getDeclaredMethod and getDeclaredField are not called in the loop. They are called once and executed on the same object in the loop. I also tried some minor variations: made the field non-final, transitive, non-public, etc. All of these combinations resulted in statistically similar performance. Edit: This is on WinXP, Intel Core2 Duo, Sun JavaSE build 1.6.0_16-b01, running under jUnit4 and Eclipse.

    Read the article

  • Calling a constructor from method within the same class

    - by Nathan
    I'm new to java and I'm learning about creating object classes. One of my homework assignment requires that I call the constructor at least once within a method of the same object class. I'm getting an error that says The method DoubleMatrix(double[][]) is undefined for the type DoubleMatrix Here's my constructor: public DoubleMatrix(double[][] tempArray) { // Declaration int flag = 0; int cnt; // Statement // check to see if doubArray isn't null and has more than 0 rows if(tempArray == null || tempArray.length < 0) { flag++; } // check to see if each row has the same length if(flag == 0) { for(cnt = 0; cnt <= tempArray.length - 1 || flag != 1; cnt++) { if(tempArray[cnt + 1].length != tempArray[0].length) { flag++; } } } else if(flag == 1) { makeDoubMatrix(1, 1);// call makeDoubMatrix method } }// end constructor 2 Here's the method where I try and call the constructor: public double[][] addMatrix(double[][] tempDoub) { // Declaration double[][] newMatrix; int rCnt, cCnt; //Statement // checking to see if both are of same dimension if(doubMatrix.length == tempDoub.length && doubMatrix[0].length == tempDoub[0].length) { newMatrix = new double[doubMatrix.length][doubMatrix[0].length]; // for loop to add matrix to a new one for(rCnt = 0; rCnt <= doubMatrix.length; rCnt++) { for(cCnt = 0; cCnt <= doubMatrix.length; cCnt++) { newMatrix[rCnt][cCnt] = doubMatrix[rCnt][cCnt] + tempDoub[rCnt][cCnt]; } } } else { newMatrix = new double[0][0]; DoubleMatrix(newMatrix) } return newMatrix; }// end addMatrix method Can someone point me to the right direction and explain why I'm getting an error?

    Read the article

  • Calling a method from another view in objective-c. (iphone sdk).

    - by MarcZero
    Hello. I am currently creating a multi-view game on the iPhone platform. I have my main view start to play some background music upon loading. I then go to another view and start the game. I am trying to get the background music from the original view to stop once I start the game. I am having trouble getting the stop playing music message to my original view. Here is the relevant info: The main view where the sound is played from is just a subView of the programViewController class called *viewController. The heading is in the programAppDelegate class. The sound is done using the AVAudioPlayer class and plays fine when the program starts up and when I navigate to other subviews that are added on by going through the menu system. In the view that I want to start the game, I attempt to call the instance of the class to turn of the player but anytime I use this format of code: [viewController #######]; It gives a build error of "viewController undeclared" no matter what I put after the "viewController" in the message.I have attempted to import the programAppDelegate.h file but it still gives the same error. I realize this might be a simple misunderstanding of the objective-c language but I cannot find any info on this issue. I am a recent convert from Java so I am trying to wrap my head around everything. Thank you for your time!

    Read the article

  • Use external inline script as local function

    - by Aidan
    Had this closed once as a duplicate, yet the so-called duplicate DID NOT actually address my whole question. I have found this script that, when run inline, returns your IP. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://l2.io/ip.js"></script> http://l2.io/ip.js Has nothing more than a line of code that says document.write('123.123.123.123'); (But obviously with the user's IP address) I want to use this IP address as a return string for a function DEFINED EXTERNALLY, BUT STILL ON MY DOMAIN. That is, I have a "scripts.js" that contains all the scripts I wish to use, and I would like to include it in that list as a local function that calls to the 12.io function, but javascript won't allow the < tags, so I am unsure as to how to do this. I.e. function getIP() { return (THAT SCRIPT'S OUTPUT); } This is the topic this was supposedly a duplicate of, and it is very similar. Get ip address with javascript However, this DOES NOT address defining as a forwarded script it in my own script file.

    Read the article

  • Debugging a local SQL Server 2008 stored proceedure from Visual studio 2008

    - by Ricibob
    Hi all, There are a few posts about this question around but most concern remote debugging - here everything is on same machine. Visual studio 2008. I have a data connection to localhost SQL Server 2008 using Windows authentication with an admin account - this account is a member of sysadmin in SQL server. I double click stored proc and add a break point. I right click and select "Step into stored proceedure". I get the loathed and feared "Canceled by user." in output window. Does anyone know whats doing? Further - right clicking on the data connection shows both "Application debugging" and "Allow SQL/CLR Debugging". I have checked "Enable SQL Server debugging" on the properties of the C# client app. If run that in debug and try to step in to stored proc code "command.ExecuteNonQuery()" then the break points in the stored proc become disabled and are not pulled. After doing this once the right click on stored proc "Execute" and "Step into stored proceedure" are greyed/disabled. To get them back I have to restart visual studio (refresh connection doesn't do it). Any help much appreciated!! Cheers.

    Read the article

  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur (MS SQL/ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second LINQ TO SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

    Read the article

  • What would be the Better db design for the old db structure?

    - by yawok
    i've a old database where i store the data of the holidays and dates in which they are celebrated.. id country hdate description link 1 Afghanistan 2008-01-19 Ashura ashura 2 Albania 2008-01-01 New Year Day new-year the flaws in the above structure is that, i repeat the data other than date for every festival and every year and every country.. For example, I store a new date for 2009 for ashura and afghanistan .. I tried to limit the redundancy and split the tables as countries (id,name) holidays (id, holiday, celebrated_by, link) // celebrated_by will store the id's of countries separated by ',' holiday_dates (holiday_id, date, year) // date will the full date and year will be as 2008 or 2009 Now i have some problems with the structure too.. consider that i store the holiday like Independence day , its common for more countries but will have different dates. so how to handle this and and the link will have to be different too.. And i need to list the countries which celebrates the same holiday and also when i describe about a single holiday i need to list all the other holidays that country would be celebrating.. And the most of all , i already have huge amount of data in the old tables and i need to split it to the new one once the new design is finalized... Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • custom function is not getting called

    - by nectar
    here my code - $child1 = create_childid()."01"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child1', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); echo $newid; update_level(); $child2 = create_childid()."02"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child2', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); $child3 = create_childid()."03"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child3', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); $child4 = create_childid()."04"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child4', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); $child5 = create_childid()."05"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child5', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); ERROR : update_level(); is executing only once why??

    Read the article

  • "javascript: void(0)" links sometimes break event handlers in internet explorer

    - by internet man
    A while back I ran in to a problem where after clicking an anchor with "javascript: void(0)" events just stopped firing. I read that following a link puts the page in a different state and in that different state events don't fire. Even though the link is not real, it sometimes confuses IE. Anyway, I removed the "javascript: void(0)"'s and the problem has not been seen again. Now, in a different application I am seeing the same thing... kinda. Clicking the "javascript: void(0)" sometimes has no ill effect. But then for some reason or another after clicking the bad link the page will stop working. Once this happens it will continue to happen consistently until the client machine is rebooted. After reboot, you are back to it sometimes happening. Crazy right? Reboot fixing a web page!?!?! So, my question is has anyone seen this before? Can anyone give an explanation for this issue? Any documentation on this issue? I can't seem to find anything on it again. Does this even make sense? I already know "javascript: void(0)" is bad practice... I am just looking to understand the issue. Specifically, this is IE7. Thanks for reading!

    Read the article

  • memcached: which is faster, doing an add (and checking result), or doing a get (and set when returni

    - by Mike Sherov
    The title of this question isn't so clear, but the code and question is straightforward. Let's say I want to show my users an ad once per day. To accomplish this, every time they visit a page on my site, I check to see if a certain memcache key has any data stored on it. If so, don't show an ad. If not, store the value '1' in that key with an expiration of 86400. I can do this 2 ways: //version a $key='OPD_'.date('Ymd').'_'.$type.'_'.$user; if($memcache->get($key)===false){ $memcache->set($key,'1',false,$expire); //show ad } //version b $key='OPD_'.date('Ymd').'_'.$type.'_'.$user; if($memcache->add($key,'1',false,$expire)){ //show ad } Now, it might seem obvious that b is better, it always makes 1 memcache call. However, what is the overhead of "add" vs. "get"? These aren't the real comparisons... and I just made up these numbers, but let's say 1 add ~= 1 set ~= 5 get in terms of effort, and the average user views 5 pages a day: a: (5 get * 1 effort) + (1 set * 5 effort) = 10 units of effort b: (5 add * 5 effort) = 25 units of effort Would it make sense to always do the add call? Is this an unnecessary micro-optimization?

    Read the article

  • Application crash

    - by Ovi
    I have an application that, as any other app, crashes once in a while for various reasons. When it crashes, it does it gracefully and the users get a nice message of the crash. At the same time the crash is reported on the server for analysis so it can be fixed in future versions. However, I would like that the app keeps working through the crash. What that means is that I would like to run the forms in an 'atomic' way. If it goes down, it doesn't take down the entire app. The users should just need to start over the work done with the particular form. Is this something that can be done through architecture? Or maybe the new framework versions has something to aid this? The application is build mostly in C# over the 3.5 framework, but it also uses some external references, some COMs and web service references. I am not interested in an answer: 'well fix the crashes'. Me and my team and the testing team are working round the clock for this.

    Read the article

  • Need help INSERT record(s) MySQL DB

    - by JM4
    I have an online form which collects member(s) information and stores it into a very long MySQL database. We allow up to 16 members to enroll at a single time and originally structured the DB to allow such. For example: If 1 Member enrolls, his personal information (first name, last name, address, phone, email) are stored on a single row. If 15 Members enroll (all at once), their personal information are stored in the same single row. The row has information housing columns for all 'possible' inputs. I am trying to consolidate this code and having every nth member that enrolls put onto a new record within the database. I have seen sugestions before for inserting multiple records as such: INSERT INTO tablename VALUES (('$f1name', '$f1address', '$f1phone'), ('$f2name', '$f2address', '$f2phone')... The issue with this is two fold: I do not know how many records are being enrolled from person to person so the only way to make the statement above is to use a loop The information collected from the forms is NOT a single array so I can't loop through one array and have it parse out. My information is collected as individual input fields like such: Member1FirstName, Member1LastName, Member1Phone, Member2Firstname, Member2LastName, Member2Phone... and so on Is it possible to store information in separate rows WITHOUT using a loop (and therefore having to go back and completely restructure my form field names and such (which can't happen due to the way the validation rules are built.)

    Read the article

  • Access database Need to prevent from approving overlapping OT.Second Try with modified request Not a programmer [on hold]

    - by user2512764
    Employees Signups on company Website for advance overtime line. Access table already has overtime signups which does not require user to add the time but it requires only to add location as approved. Since this table has field Employee name, Date, start time and End time and location, All the fields has the data except for location. In the data base I have created a form based on this table. Since the table already have most of the information User only has to add location in the form field in order to approve overtime. Once user approves an overtime line for example: User approves overtime for employee name 'John' which starts on 7/1/2013 at 0400-0800, location is successfully added. When user tries to add location for John again which might has the start time for 7/1/2013 at 0600=0900. Again we are not entering Start time, End time and date it is already in the table. we are only entering location as approval. Soon user enters the location for John in the form field, since there is a conflict with previously overtime line which has already been approved. program needs to check employee name, date and time in previously approved (Added location) overtime line and The location in current record needs to be deleted and go to next record. I hope I have explained it in understandable format. Thank You,

    Read the article

  • Best way to get distinct values from large table

    - by derivation
    I have a db table with about 10 or so columns, two of which are month and year. The table has about 250k rows now, and we expect it to grow by about 100-150k records a month. A lot of queries involve the month and year column (ex, all records from march 2010), and so we frequently need to get the available month and year combinations (ie do we have records for april 2010?). A coworker thinks that we should have a separate table from our main one that only contains the months and years we have data for. We only add records to our main table once a month, so it would just be a small update on the end of our scripts to add the new entry to this second table. This second table would be queried whenever we need to find the available month/year entries on the first table. This solution feels kludgy to me and a violation of DRY. What do you think is the correct way of solving this problem? Is there a better way than having two tables?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515  | Next Page >