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  • Jquery get each div's sub child divs and grab info into an array

    - by McNabbToSkins
    I have a some html that looks like this <div id="main"> <div id="sub_main_1" class="sub_main"> <input type="text" class="sub_name_first" /><br /> <input type="text" class="sub_name_second" /><br /> </div> <div id="sub_main_2" class="sub_main"> <input type="text" class="sub_name_first" /><br /> <input type="text" class="sub_name_second" /><br /> </div> </div> I would like to pull out each sub_main divs information into an array in javascript. So far I have this as my jquery code $('#main').find('.sub_main').each( function() { alert('hi'); }); The alert is just a test that it should show "hi" twice. But this is not working. I am also not clear on how I can store the two inputs in a javascript array. Any help would be great! Thanks,

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • Why do child elements cause 'dropleave' to be called (drag-n-drop file upload)?

    - by tundoopani
    I have a HTML5 drag-n-drop script that allows users to drop files in #droparea. The #droparea div has child elements that are also div elements. <div id="droparea"> <div id="showif_no_dragover">Drag files here!</div> <div id="showif_dragover">Drop the files!</div> </div> The associated javascript/jquery is: var droptarget = "#droparea"; $(droptarget).live('dragenter', dragEnter); $(droptarget).live('dragleave', dragExit); $(droptarget).live('dragover', nothing); $(droptarget).live('drop', dropGo); (Side question: should I use .live(), .on() or .bind() here?) I have created a sample jsFiddle with some additional code here: http://jsfiddle.net/PwFr9/3/ If you look at the console, you will notice that as you drag a file within #droparea, dragenter() and dragleave() are called multiple times, even though the drag is still inside #droparea. If you remove the child elements (#child1 and #child2), the problem is gone because the child elements are gone. How can I keep the child elements and prevent them from messing up the drag events? I have searched Stackoverflow and Google for hours without much help. I found this questions here at Stackoverflow: How to keep child elements from interfering with HTML5 dragover and drop events? I don't know why it works, though. I have tried placing 2 div elements on top of each other (via CSS positioning). The top-most div has the drag events attached whereas the bottom-most div has the child elements. I do not like this approach because it doesn't work with the rest of my page and does not allow mouse-click interaction with the bottom-most div. Any help is appreciated! Thank you in advance. Regards, tundoo

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  • Fixed div background

    - by Fahad
    I want to create a layout where I want to display an image to the left and content on the right. The image should stay constant when the content scrolls. The css I'm using: <style type="text/css"> html, body { margin:0; padding:0; } #page-container { margin:auto; width:900px; background-color:Black; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment: fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #main-image { float:left; width:250px; height:687px; background-image:url('images/desired_layout.png'); background-attachment:fixed; background-repeat:no-repeat; } #content { margin-left:250px; background-color:Olive; height:800px; width:650px; } </style> The HTML: <div id="page-container"> <div id="main-image"></div> <div id="content"></div> </div> Alot of time on this site and I have understood that background-attachment:fixed positions the image in the entire viewport and not the element it is applied to. My question is how do I go about creating that kind of layout? I do not want to give that image as a background image, as if the window is resized, it might get hidden. I want scrollbars to appear if the window size is less than 900px( my page width) so that the image can be viewed at all times. That happens with this code, however I would like the image to start at my element instead. How do I go about doing this?? Thanks in Advance :)

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  • MySQL MyISAM table performance... painfully, painfully slow

    - by Salman A
    I've got a table structure that can be summarized as follows: pagegroup * pagegroupid * name has 3600 rows page * pageid * pagegroupid * data references pagegroup; has 10000 rows; can have anything between 1-700 rows per pagegroup; the data column is of type mediumtext and the column contains 100k - 200kbytes data per row userdata * userdataid * pageid * column1 * column2 * column9 references page; has about 300,000 rows; can have about 1-50 rows per page The above structure is pretty straight forwad, the problem is that that a join from userdata to page group is terribly, terribly slow even though I have indexed all columns that should be indexed. The time needed to run a query for such a join (userdata inner_join page inner_join pagegroup) exceeds 3 minutes. This is terribly slow considering the fact that I am not selecting the data column at all. Example of the query that takes too long: SELECT userdata.column1, pagegroup.name FROM userdata INNER JOIN page USING( pageid ) INNER JOIN pagegroup USING( pagegroupid ) Please help by explaining why does it take so long and what can i do to make it faster. Edit #1 Explain returns following gibberish: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE userdata ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE page eq_ref PRIMARY,pagegroupid PRIMARY 4 topsecret.userdata.pageid 1 1 SIMPLE pagegroup eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.page.pagegroupid 1 Edit #2 SELECT u.field2, p.pageid FROM userdata u INNER JOIN page p ON u.pageid = p.pageid; /* 0.07 sec execution, 6.05 sec fecth */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE u ALL pageid 372420 1 SIMPLE p eq_ref PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 topsecret.u.pageid 1 Using index SELECT p.pageid, g.pagegroupid FROM page p INNER JOIN pagegroup g ON p.pagegroupid = g.pagegroupid; /* 9.37 sec execution, 60.0 sec fetch */ id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE g index PRIMARY PRIMARY 4 3646 Using index 1 SIMPLE p ref pagegroupid pagegroupid 5 topsecret.g.pagegroupid 3 Using where Moral of the story Keep medium/long text columns in a separate table if you run into performance problems such as this one.

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  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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  • Retactoring advanced has_many example

    - by atmorell
    Hello, My user model has three relations for the same message model, and is using raw SQL :/ Is there a better more rails way to achieve the same result? Could the foreign key be changed dynamically? e.g User.messages.sent (foreign key = author_id) and User.messages.received (foreign key = recipient ) I have been trying to move some of the logic into scopes in the message model, but the user.id is not available from the message model... Any thoughts? Table layout: create_table "messages", :force => true do |t| t.string "subject" t.text "body" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.integer "author_id" t.integer "recipient_id" t.boolean "author_deleted", :default => false t.boolean "recipient_deleted", :default => false end This is my relations for my user model: has_many :messages_received, :foreign_key => "recipient_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['recipient_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_sent, :foreign_key => "author_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['author_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_deleted, :class_name => "Message", :finder_sql => 'SELECT * FROM Messages WHERE author_id = #{self.id} AND author_deleted = true OR recipient_id = #{self.id} AND recipient_deleted = true' Best regards. Asbjørn Morell

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  • JQuery Autocomplete plugin not working with JQuery 1.4.1

    - by Russ Clark
    I've been using the JQuery Autocomplete plugin with JQuery version 1.3.2, and it has been working great. I recently updated JQuery in my project to version 1.4.2, and the Autocomplete plugin is now broken. The JQuery code to add items to a textbox on my web page doesn't seem to be getting called at all. Does anyone know if the JQuery Autocomplete plugin is incompatible with JQuery version 1.4.2, and if there is a fix for this problem? Here is some sample code I've built in an ASP.Net web site (which works fine if I change the JQuery file to jquery-1.3.2.js, but nothing happens using jquery-1.4.2.js): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.autocomplete.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $(':input:text:id$=sapleUser').autocomplete(data); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> API Reference: <input id="sapleUser" autocomplete="off" type="text" runat="server" /> (try "C" or "E") </form> </body> </html>

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  • How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

    - by adopilot
    Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

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  • How do i close the alert dialog that displays custom view

    - by Asdfg
    I have an activity named MainActivity which has a button. On click of that button i am displaying an AlertDialog which contains a custom view named ChildWindow.xml. That custom view has multiple textboxes and a OK button. On click of the OK button, i am calling a method of MainActivity. I am able to access the ChildWindow here as view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Once the user clicks on the OK button, i have to close the alert dialog which i am able to do as view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); My problem is even though i have closed the the ChildWindow in the above statement, i am able to get reference to the textbox in the next line which means AlertDialog is closed but child window is still there. This is how the OK button click looks like: This works as expected: EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); This should not work as i am closing the alert dialog and then getting the reference of the textbox but this works too. view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); I think i am closing the alert dialog but i am not destroying it from the memory. Can someone point me out what am i missing here?

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  • problem with RenderOuterTable property for .net 4.0 controls

    - by Mario
    According to the new 4.0 framework overview, one should be able to add the attrib RenderOuterTable="false" to a control that supports the attribute and see css friendly code be spit out - in other words no html tables. To test this, I threw a login control into a basic fresh webpage with the following code: <asp:Login ID="Login1" runat="server" RenderOuterTable="false"></asp:Login> The result? Crappy html table output, which supposedly doesn't happen with this attrib set to false. Here is the output: &lt;table cellpadding=&quot;0&quot;&gt; <tr> <td align="center" colspan="2">Log In</td> </tr><tr> <td align="right"><label for="MainContent_Login1_UserName">User Name:</label></td><td><input name="ctl00$MainContent$Login1$UserName" type="text" id="MainContent_Login1_UserName" /><span id="MainContent_Login1_UserNameRequired" title="User Name is required." style="visibility:hidden;">*</span></td>... Hopefully you get the point. Anyone know how to stop these controls from outputting tables? This is super annoying.

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  • Autocomplete Error Question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a very simple blog application using Ruby on Rails. New to both Ruby and Rails so excuse the stupid questions. I currently have two tables that relate to this question. I have a Post table and a Tag table. Basically I set it up such that Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. I am using AJAX to process and display the tags in the show view of the post. I installed the auto_complete plugin and I am getting an error when I enter the letters in the text_field_with_auto_complete for tag creation. My suspicion is this is because the form is a remote_form_for or something I am doing wrong in the routes.rb. Here is the error and code: Error Processing PostsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-13 23:25:46) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"f"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Post Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Post with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/posts_controller.rb:22:in `show' Rendered rescues/_trace (26.0ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.2ms) Rendering rescues/layout (not_found) remote_form_for located in /views/posts/show.html.erb <% remote_form_for [@post, Tag.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :tag_name, "Tag" %><br/> <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :tag, :tag_name, {}, {:method => :get} %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> tags_controller.rb (I'll spare you all the actions but added the following here) auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name routes.rb map.resources :posts, :has_many => :comments map.resources :posts, :has_many => :tags map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get }

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  • [JS] getSelection on DIV contentEditable

    - by cactoos
    Hi all ! I am trying to achieve project and i must do a WYSIWYG editor in JavaScript. I can't use an existing editor because I need use my plugins (for example a colorPicker or imagePicker).. For this time I have this HTML : <div class="K_editor" id="idExample"> <div class="K_links"> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkBold">B</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkItalic">I</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkUnderline">U</div> </div> <iframe width="696" height="212" frameborder="0" src="js/myEditor_iFrame.php"> <html> <head/> <body> <div id="contentIframe" contenteditable="true"> This is a test code, with <strong>bold</strong> text and <em>italic</em> text. </div> </body> </html> </iframe> <input type="submit"/> </div> On event click on ".K_editor_link", a function is open with arguments : - tagStart (exemple '', or '') - tagEnd (exemple '', or '') - id (here 'idExample') I know get a Selection on Textarea but "setSelectionRange()", ".selectionStart" and ".selectionEnd" are only for textbox (XUL), input (XHTML) or textarea (XHTML). Why can I do for do that ?? I'm realy block.. Thank all ! CactO_o's

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  • Spring MVC: How to resolve the path to subdirectories of the root 'JSP' folder in a web application

    - by chrisjleu
    What is a simple way to resolve the path to a JSP file that is not located in the root JSP directory of a web application using SpringMVCs viewResolvers? For example, suppose we have the following web application structure: web-app |-WEB-INF |-jsp |-secure |-admin.jsp |-admin2.jsp index.jsp login.jsp I would like to use some out-of-the-box components to resolve the JSP files within the jsp root folder and the secure subdirectory. I have a *-servlet.xml file that defines: an out-of-the-box, InternalResourceViewResolver: <bean id="jspViewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> a handler mapping: <bean id="handlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/index.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/login.htm">urlFilenameViewController</prop> <prop key="/secure/**">urlFilenameViewController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> an out-of-the-box UrlFilenameViewController controller: <bean id="urlFilenameViewController" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.UrlFilenameViewController"> </bean> The problem I have is that requests to the JSPs in the secure directory cannot be resolved, as the jspViewResolver only has a prefix defined as /jsp/ and not /jsp/secure/. Is there a way to handle subdirectories like this? I would prefer to keep this structure because I'm also trying to make use of Spring Security and having all secure pages in a subdirectory is a nice way to do this. There's probably a simple way to acheive this but I'm new to Spring and the Spring MVC framework so any pointers would be appreciated.

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  • Parsing email with Python

    - by Manuel Ceron
    I'm writing a Python script to process emails returned from Procmail. As suggested in this question, I'm using the following Procmail config: :0: |$HOME/process_mail.py My process_mail.py script is receiving an email via stdin like this: From hostname Tue Jun 15 21:43:30 2010 Received: (qmail 8580 invoked from network); 15 Jun 2010 21:43:22 -0400 Received: from mail-fx0-f44.google.com (209.85.161.44) by ip-73-187-35-131.ip.secureserver.net with SMTP; 15 Jun 2010 21:43:22 -0400 Received: by fxm19 with SMTP id 19so170709fxm.3 for <[email protected]>; Tue, 15 Jun 2010 18:47:33 -0700 (PDT) MIME-Version: 1.0 Received: by 10.103.84.1 with SMTP id m1mr2774225mul.26.1276652853684; Tue, 15 Jun 2010 18:47:33 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.123.143.4 with HTTP; Tue, 15 Jun 2010 18:47:33 -0700 (PDT) Date: Tue, 15 Jun 2010 20:47:33 -0500 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Subject: TEST 12 From: Full Name <[email protected]> To: [email protected] Content-Type: text/plain; charset=ISO-8859-1 ONE TWO THREE I'm trying to parse the message in this way: >>> import email >>> msg = email.message_from_string(full_message) I want to get message fields like 'From', 'To' and 'Subject'. However, the message object does not contain any of these fields. What am I doing wrong?

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  • JW Player can not play m3u8 stream?

    - by why
    with check this example, http://developer.longtailvideo.com/player/branches/adaptive/test/provider.html , I tried the example myself, There is my code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jwplayer.js"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <title>Provider tests</title> <style> body { padding: 50px; font: 13px/20px Arial; background: #EEE; } form { margin-top: 20px; } #player { -webkit-box-shadow: 0 0 5px #999; background: #000; } ul { margin-top: 40px; padding: 0 0 0 20px; list-style-type: square; } </style> </head> <body> Test M3U8 <div id="player">You need Flash to play these tests</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("player").setup({ file: '../m3u8/index.m3u8', flashplayer: 'player.swf', provider:'adaptiveProvider.swf', height: 360, width: 640 }); function loadStream(url) { jwplayer("player").load({file: url,provider: 'adaptiveProvider.swf'}); jwplayer("player").play(); return false; } $(document).ready(function() { loadStream('http://localhost/m3u8/index.m3u8'); }); </script> <ul id="streamlist"></ul> <div id="panel"></div> </body> </html> But the Jw Play can not work BTW: my vlc can play http://localhost/m3u8/index.m3u8 well

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  • How to access "Custom" or non-System TFS workitem fields using PowerShell?

    - by DaBozUK
    When using PowerShell to extract information from TFS, I find that I can get at the standard fields but not "Custom" fields. I'm not sure custom is the correct term, but for example if I look at the Process Editor in VS2008 and edit the Work Item type, there are fields such as listed below, with Name, Type and RefName: Title String System.Title State String System.State Rev Integer System.Rev Changed By String System.ChangedBy I can access these with Get-TfsItemHistory: Get-TfsItemHistory "$/path" -Version "D01/12/10~" -R | Select -exp WorkItems | Format-Table Title, State, Rev, ChangedBy -Auto So far so good. However, there are also some other fields in the WorkItem type, which I'm calling "Custom" or non-System fields, e.g.: Activated By String Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ActivatedBy Resolved By String Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ResolvedBy And the following command does not retrieve the data, just spaces. Get-TfsItemHistory "$/path" -Version "D01/12/10~" -R | Select -exp WorkItems | Format-Table ActivatedBy, ResolvedBy -Auto I've also tried the names in quotes, the fully qualified refname, but no luck. How do you access these "non-System" fields? Thanks Boz UPDATE: From Keith's answer I can get the fields I need: Get-TfsItemHistory "$/Hermes/Main" -Version "D01/12/10~" -Recurse ` | Select ChangeSetId, Comment -exp WorkItems ` | Select ChangeSetId, Comment, @{n='WI-Id'; e={$_.Id}}, Title -exp Fields ` | Where {$_.ReferenceName -eq 'Microsoft.VSTS.Common.ResolvedBy'} ` | Format-Table ChangesetId, Comment, WI-Id, Title, @{n='Resolved By'; e={$_.Value}} -Auto

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  • filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

    - by Mike
    Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

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  • nhibernate not taking mappings from assembly

    - by cvista
    Hi I'm using fnh and castle nhib facility. I followed the advice from mike hadlow here: http://mikehadlow.blogspot.com/2009/01/integrating-fluent-nhibernate-and.html here is my FluentNHibernateConfigurationBuilder: public Configuration GetConfiguration(IConfiguration facilityConfiguration) { var defaultConfigurationBuilder = new DefaultConfigurationBuilder(); var configuration = defaultConfigurationBuilder.GetConfiguration(facilityConfiguration); configuration.AddMappingsFromAssembly(typeof(User).Assembly); return configuration; } i know the facility is picking it up as i can break inside that method and it steps through. however, when it's done, non of the mappings are created and i get the following error when i try to save an entity: No persister for: IsItGd.Model.Entities.User here is my user class: //simple model of web user public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FullName { get; set; } } and here is the mapping: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Id(x=>x.Id); Map(x=>x.FullName); } } i really can't see what the problem is. the strange thing is - is that if i use automapping it picks everything up - but i don't want to use automapping as i can't do certain things in that scenario. any clues? w://

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  • radio buttons and cookie settings

    - by Cola
    I don't know nothing about cookies and how to set them and i need some advice. I have this 2 radio buttons. For example if an option is changed from one to another, that option will remain even if the page is refreshed or changed on other pages where this radio buttons exist , and i need to make the cookie setting for this code. Can someone can give me an advice what code should i add to my php? thanks This is js code: $(document).ready(function() { $('radio[name=radio]').each(function() { $(this).click(function() { my_function(); }); }); }); my_function() { var value_checked = $("input[name='radio']:checked").val(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'page.php', data: {'value_checked':value_checked}, }); } html code <form> <div id="radio"> <input type="radio" id="radio1" name="radio" checked="checked" /><label for="radio1">Choice 1</label> <input type="radio" id="radio2" name="radio" /><label for="radio2">Choice 2</label> </div> </form>

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  • Create a menu in a perspective in Eclipse

    - by Krt_Malta
    Hi. I am developing an Eclipse plug-in and I'd like to associate a new menu (at the top of the screen along with File, Edit etc) with a perspective I'm creating. I did the menu ok but it is being displayed even in other perspectives. How can I associate it only with my perspective? This is the code I am using in plugin.xml: <plugin> <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.perspectives"> <perspective class="org.eclipse.ui.articles.perspective.API_Development" id="org.eclipse.ui.articles.perspective.API_Development" name="API Development"> </perspective> </extension> <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.actionSets"> <actionSet label="Sample Action Set" visible="true" id="API_Development_Menu.actionSet"> <menu label="API Development" id="sampleMenu"> <separator name="sampleGroup"> </separator> </menu> </actionSet> </extension> </plugin> Thanks and regards, Kurt

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  • Creating LINQ to SQL Data Models' Data Contexts with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm just getting started with ASP.NET MVC, mostly by reading ScottGu's tutorial. To create my database connections, I followed the steps he outlined, which were to create a LINQ-to-SQL dbml model, add in the database tables through the Server Explorer, and finally to create a DataContext class. That last part is the part I'm stuck on. In this class, I'm trying to create methods that work around the exposed data. Following the example in the tutorial, I created this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MySite.Models { public partial class MyDataContext { public List<Post> GetPosts() { return Posts.ToList(); } public Post GetPostById(int id) { return Posts.Single(p => p.ID == id); } } } As you can see, I'm trying to use my Post data table. However, it doesn't recognize the "Posts" part of my code. What am I doing wrong? I have a feeling that my problem is related to my not adding the data tables correctly, but I'm not sure. Thanks in advance.

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  • Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

    - by user1889776
    I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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  • Creating a framework for ASP.NET web forms similar to Flex states.

    - by Shawn Simon
    I really enjoy the flex states framework. You define a few states for your control, and then can set child controls to only appear in certain states. Check out this code: <s:states> <s:State name="signin"/> <s:State name="register"/> </s:states> <mx:FormItem label="Last name:" includeIn="register" id="lastNameItem" alpha="0.0"> <s:TextInput id="lastName" width="220"/> </mx:FormItem> Now the last name form will only appear in the register screen. This would be really useful I think in .NET where you use the page for views like update / insert. I was considering extending the Page element to have a states property using extension methods, and adding the include in to controls. This way I could auto-hide controls based on the current view at render time. What is even cooler in Flex, is that you can use different handlers / properties based on the current state. <s:Button label="Sign in" label.register="Register" id="loginButton" enabled="true" click.signin="signin()" click.register="register()"/> I'm sure there's a way I could implement something similar to this as well. Do you think this is a good idea? Or does it just add a level of abstraction to framework that already has a poor separation of concerns?

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  • Where does IE store the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie?

    - by scherand
    I am a bit baffled here; using IE7, ASP.NET 2.0 and Cassini (the VS built-in web server; although the same thing seems to be true for "real" applications deployed in IIS) I am looking for the session-id-cookie. My test page shows a session id (by printing out Session.SessionId) and Response.Cookies.Keys contains ASP.NET_SessionId. So far so good. But I cannot find the cookie in IEs cookie-store! Nor does "remove all cookies" reset the session (as it does in FF)... So where - I am tempted to write that four letter word - does IE store that bloody cookie? Or am I missing something? By the way there is no hidden field with a session id either, as far as I can see. If I check in FF there is a cookie called ASP.NET_SessionId as I would expect. And as mentioned above deleting that cookie does start a new session; as I would expect. Can anybody imagine what is happening here?

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