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  • Foreign Key Relationships and "belongs to many"

    - by jan
    I have the following model: S belongs to T T has many S A,B,C,D,E (etc) have 1 T each, so the T should belong to each of A,B,C,D,E (etc) At first I set up my foreign keys so that in A, fk_a_t would be the foreign key on A.t to T(id), in B it'd be fk_b_t, etc. Everything looks fine in my UML (using MySQLWorkBench), but generating the yii models results in it thinking that T has many A,B,C,D (etc) which to me is the reverse. It sounds to me like either I need to have A_T, B_T, C_T (etc) tables, but this would be a pain as there are a lot of tables that have this relationship. I've also googled that the better way to do this would be some sort of behavior, such that A,B,C,D (etc) can behave as a T, but I'm not clear on exactly how to do this (I will continue to google more on this) What do you think is the better solution? UML: Here's the DDL (auto generated). Just pretend that there is more than 3 tables referencing T. -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`T` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`T` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`S` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`S` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `thing` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `t` INT NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_S_T` (`id` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_S_T` FOREIGN KEY (`id` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`A` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`A` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `bar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foo` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`B` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`B` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`C` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`C` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff3` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other4` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB;

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  • CakePHP 1.3.4: EmailComponent error - Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller

    - by Kevin S.
    I'm trying to develop an invitation system for my website which runs on CakePHP 1.3.4. I am trying to use the built in EmailComponent to send an email. I'm getting this error (expanded): Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Code | Context */ function _render($content) { $viewClass = $this-Controller-view; $content = array( "", "" ) EmailComponent::_render() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428 EmailComponent::send() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 368 UsersController::send_quick_add_email() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 77 UsersController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 104 SinglesResultsController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/singles_results_controller.php, line 63 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 204 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 171 [main] - APP/webroot/index.php, line 83 I also get the following, which I can expand if necessary: Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Undefined property: View::$webroot [CORE/cake/libs/view/view.php, line 805] Warning (2): Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/cake/cake/libs/debugger.php:673) [CORE/cake/libs/controller/controller.php, line 746] I think that the EmailComponent object holds a reference to the controller it's being called from. I don't know why it's undefined in this case. Here is the code that fails (specifically, it errors on the call to $this-Email-send()): function send_quick_add_email($email) { if($email) { $this->Email->reset(); $this->Email->to = $email; $this->Email->subject = 'Some subject text'; $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'email_template'; $this->set('user', $user); $this->set('token', $token); $this->Email->delivery = 'debug'; $this->Email->send(); } } Ok, for more clarification: The main data I am collecting on the site is results of a game played in meatspace. SinglesResultsController has an action, quick_add, which expects email addresses of people not already registered on the site. If the email addresses aren't associated with Users, UsersController::quick_add is called, which creates an inactive user, and sends an invitation email in UsersController::send_quick_add_email() I think the problem is related to the fact that the email isn't being sent in the first controller initialized (SinglesResultsController). Any thoughts on how to make it work? The Email component is declared at the top of both Controllers.

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  • VBA Excel - Workbook_SheetChange

    - by user2947014
    Hopefully this question hasn't already been asked, I tried searching for an answer and couldn't find anything. This is probably a simple question, but I am writing my first macro in excel and am having a problem that I can't find out a solution to. I wrote a couple of macros that basically sum up columns dynamically (so that the number of rows can change and the formula moves down automatically) based on a value in another column of the same row, and I call those macros from the event Workbook_SheetChange. The problem I'm having is, I change a cell's value from my macro to display the result of the sum, and this then calls Workbook_SheetChange again, which I do not want. Right now it works, but I can trace it and see that Workbook_SheetChange is being called multiple times. This is preventing me from adding other cell changes to the macros, because then it results in an infinite loop. I want the macros to run every time a change is made to the sheet, but I don't see any way around allowing the macros to change a cell's value, so I don't know what to do. I will paste my code below, in case it is helpful. Private Sub Workbook_SheetChange(ByVal Sh As Object, ByVal Target As Range) Dim Row As Long Dim Col As Long Row = Target.Row Col = Target.Column If Col <> 7 Then Range("G" & Row).Select Selection.Formula = "=IF(F" & Row & "=""Win"",E" & Row & ",IF(F" & Row & "=""Loss"",-D" & Row & ",0))" Target.Select End If Call SumRiskColumn End Sub Private Sub Workbook_SheetCalculate(ByVal Sh As Object) Call SumOutcomeColumn End Sub Sub SumOutcomeColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Cells(N + 1, "G").Formula = "=SUM(G2:G" & N & ")" End Sub Sub SumRiskColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Dim CurrTotalRisk As Long CurrTotalRisk = 0 For i = 2 To N If IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 6)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 1)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 2)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 3)) Then CurrTotalRisk = CurrTotalRisk + ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 4).Value End If Next i Cells(N + 1, "D").Value = CurrTotalRisk End Sub Thank you for any help you can give me! I really appreciate it.

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  • Issue while trying to give a floating effect to a footer bar in IE

    - by Shailesh
    Hi, I'm trying to put a footer bar at the bottom of the browser no matter what the length of the content is. The footer bar should always be visible to the user and should be on the top layer. Following is my code: <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> #wrapper { width: 910px; margin: 0 auto; padding: 0px 20px 50px 20px; text-align: left; } #footer-wrapper { -moz-background-clip:border; -moz-background-inline-policy:continuous; -moz-background-origin:padding; bottom:0; clear:both; font-size:11px !important; left:0; position:fixed; white-space:nowrap; width:100%; z-index:8000; } </style> <script> var counter = 0; function addContent(ctr) { document.getElementById(ctr).innerHTML=document.getElementById (ctr).innerHTML+" dynaContent"+counter; counter++; } </script> </head> <body> <div> <div><input type="button" onclick="addContent('wrapper')" value="Add dynaContent" /></div> <div id="wrapper" style="color:#FFFFFF; background-color: #111111;"> STATIC TEXT - HEADER-WRAPPER </div> <div style="color:#FFFFFF;background-color: #555555;">STATIC TEXT - FOOTER-WRAPPER</div> </div> </body> </html> It's working fine in Mozilla Firefox and giving the intended results, but, in IE, the footer bar always sticks just under the header. Please help. Thanks in advance, Shailesh.

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  • Passing Info From One View to Another

    - by 01010011
    EDIT 1. The results of a query from my database are displayed on my view page. Next to each unique result is a button: // first_view.php <?php echo form_open('controller/method'); ?> <?php foreach($results_found as $item): ?> <p><?php echo $item->name ?></p> <p><?php form_submit('buy','Buy This'); ?></p> When a user clicks on one of these buttons (lets say button 4), I would like to display the user's choice from the array onto another view. I've tried using this: // first_view.php <?php echo $this->session->set_userdata('choice',$item); ?> immediately before // first_view.php <?php echo form_close(); ?> thinking that the user's final choice would be stored there so I can display it on another view like this: // second_controller.php $c = $this->session->userdata('choice'); // second_view.php echo 'Your Choose: '. $c; However, what actually displays is the last result displayed on first_view.php, not what the user choose. My question is, if the user clicked on button 4, how do I get that particular choice displayed onto another view? END OF EDIT1 ORIGINAL QUESTION My view page (CodeIgniter) displays the contents of an array in the form of several links. If a user clicks on a link, I want the user to be taken to another view page (via a controller) that gives more information concerning that particular link (which is stored in that particular position in the array) My question is, how do I access and display the contents of that particular location within the array on the second view file without getting a "Undefined variable error" on the second view? Here is what I am trying to do in code form // my_controller.php $array_name['variable_name']; $this->load->view('first_view.php'); // first_view.php <?php foreach($variable_name as $vn): ?> <?php echo anchor('controller_name' $vn->info ?> // if user clicks on 3rd link <?php endforeach ?> // I want to beable to access // index 2 of the array in the // second view file so I can // display more info // second_view.php <?php $vn[2]->info ?>

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  • iPhone: Tracking/Identifying individual touches

    - by FlorianZ
    I have a quick question regarding tracking touches on the iPhone and I seem to not be able to come to a conclusion on this, so any suggestions / ideas are greatly appreciated: I want to be able to track and identify touches on the iphone, ie. basically every touch has a starting position and a current/moved position. Touches are stored in a std::vector and they shall be removed from the container, once they ended. Their position shall be updated once they move, but I still want to keep track of where they initially started (gesture recognition). I am getting the touches from [event allTouches], thing is, the NSSet is unsorted and I seem not to be able to identify the touches that are already stored in the std::vector and refer to the touches in the NSSet (so I know which ones ended and shall be removed, or have been moved, etc.) Here is my code, which works perfectly with only one finger on the touch screen, of course, but with more than one, I do get unpredictable results... - (void) touchesBegan:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { [self handleTouches:[event allTouches]]; } - (void) touchesEnded:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { [self handleTouches:[event allTouches]]; } - (void) touchesMoved:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { [self handleTouches:[event allTouches]]; } - (void) touchesCancelled:(NSSet*)touches withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { [self handleTouches:[event allTouches]]; } - (void) handleTouches:(NSSet*)allTouches { for(int i = 0; i < (int)[allTouches count]; ++i) { UITouch* touch = [[allTouches allObjects] objectAtIndex:i]; NSTimeInterval timestamp = [touch timestamp]; CGPoint currentLocation = [touch locationInView:self]; CGPoint previousLocation = [touch previousLocationInView:self]; if([touch phase] == UITouchPhaseBegan) { Finger finger; finger.start.x = currentLocation.x; finger.start.y = currentLocation.y; finger.end = finger.start; finger.hasMoved = false; finger.hasEnded = false; touchScreen->AddFinger(finger); } else if([touch phase] == UITouchPhaseEnded || [touch phase] == UITouchPhaseCancelled) { Finger& finger = touchScreen->GetFingerHandle(i); finger.hasEnded = true; } else if([touch phase] == UITouchPhaseMoved) { Finger& finger = touchScreen->GetFingerHandle(i); finger.end.x = currentLocation.x; finger.end.y = currentLocation.y; finger.hasMoved = true; } } touchScreen->RemoveEnded(); } Thanks!

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  • How to match multiple substrings in jQuery combobox autocomplete

    - by John R
    I found more than a couple examples of this with a plain jquery autocomplete but not in a way that will work with the autocomplete included in the combobox code from the demo because the structure of the code is structured so differently. I want to match every item that has all of the search tokens anywhere in any word. I don't need to match the start of any word, any part of it is fine. I don't care if the search strings are highlighted in the autocomplete list if that makes things too complicated. Desired search/result combos: (please excuse the spacing) "fi th" "fi rst second th ird" "rs on" "fi rs t sec on d third" "ec rd" "first s ec ond thi rd" but not limited to any max/min length or number of tokens. EDIT I figured part of it out using the code structure from the other autocorrect I had working. source: function( requestObj, responseFunc ) { var matchArry = $("select > option").map(function(){return this.innerHTML;}).get(); var srchTerms = $.trim(requestObj.term).split(/\s+/); // For each search term, remove non-matches $.each (srchTerms, function (J, term) { var regX = new RegExp (term, "i"); matchArry = $.map (matchArry, function (item) { if( regX.test(item) ){ return{ label: item, value: item, option: HTMLOptionElement } ? item :null; } } ); }); // Return the match results responseFunc (matchArry); }, and select: function( event, ui ) { ui.item.option.selected = true; self._trigger( "selected", event, { item: ui.item.option }); $("destination").val(ui.item.value); // I added this line }, but I can't get both multiple words AND being able to click to select working at the same time. If I remove the } ? item :null; on the return in the map function I can click to select an item. If I leave it I can type multiple words, but I can't click any of the items... Is that the problem or the option: this? I've tried replacing it with HTMLOptionElement and null and I'm stuck. I am able to set the value of another field with ui.item.value within the select label but that doesn't put the value in the search box or close the dropdown menu. Fiddle of current code: http://jsfiddle.net/eY3hM/

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  • Problem while adding new Object to CoreData App

    - by elementsense
    Hi Another Day, another CoreData problem,...but hopefully the last one now. Ok here is a copy of what I have : I have a List of Hotel Guests that stay in one Room and have Preferences. Once ready the user should select a guest and see the data and should also be able to add new guest, select the room (maintained also by application) and select their preferences (where the user can also add new preferences). The guest can have no or many preferences. So here is what I have so far. I created 3 Entities : - Rooms with roomnumber - Preferences with name - GuestInfo with name - with these Relationships room (Destination Rooms) and prefs (Destination Preferences with "To-Many Relationship") The prefs is a NSSet when you create a Managed Object Class. Now I created a UITableViewController to display all the data. I also have an edit and add mode. When I add a new Guest and just fill out the name, everything works fine. But when I want to add the prefs or the room number I get this error : Illegal attempt to establish a relationship 'room' between objects in different contexts Now, what confuses me is that when I add a guest and enter just the name, save it, go back and edit it and select the prefs and room number it works ? I have this line in both ViewControllers to select the room or prefs : [editedObject setValue:selectedRoom forKey:editedFieldKey]; with this .h : NSManagedObject *editedObject; NSString *editedFieldKey; NSString *editedFieldName; Again, it works on the editing mode but not when I want to add a fresh object. And to be sure, this is what I do for adding an new Guest : - (IBAction)addNewItem { AddViewController *addViewController = [[AddViewController alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; addViewController.delegate = self; addViewController.context = _context; // Create a new managed object context for the new book -- set its persistent store coordinator to the same as that from the fetched results controller's context. NSManagedObjectContext *addingContext = [[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] init]; self.addingManagedObjectContext = addingContext; [addingContext release]; [addingManagedObjectContext setPersistentStoreCoordinator:[[_fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext] persistentStoreCoordinator]]; GuestInfo *info = (GuestInfo *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"GuestInfo" inManagedObjectContext:addingContext]; addViewController.info = info; UINavigationController *navController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:addViewController]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; [addViewController release]; [navController release]; } Anything I have to do to initialize the Room or Prefs ? Hope someone can help me out. Thanks

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  • VB6 ADO Command to SQL Server

    - by Emtucifor
    I'm getting an inexplicable error with an ADO command in VB6 run against a SQL Server 2005 database. Here's some code to demonstrate the problem: Sub ADOCommand() Dim Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim Cmd As ADODB.Command Dim ErrorAlertID As Long Dim ErrorTime As Date Set Conn = New ADODB.Connection Conn.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Initial Catalog=database;Data Source=server" Conn.CursorLocation = adUseClient Conn.Open Set Rs = New ADODB.Recordset Rs.CursorType = adOpenStatic Rs.LockType = adLockReadOnly Set Cmd = New ADODB.Command With Cmd .Prepared = False .CommandText = "ErrorAlertCollect" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .NamedParameters = True .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ErrorAlertID", adInteger, adParamOutput) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@CreateTime", adDate, adParamOutput) Set .ActiveConnection = Conn Rs.Open Cmd ErrorAlertID = .Parameters("@ErrorAlertID").Value ErrorTime = .Parameters("@CreateTime").Value End With Debug.Print Rs.State ' Shows 0 - Closed Debug.Print Rs.RecordCount ' Of course this fails since the recordset is closed End Sub So this code was working not too long ago but now it's failing on the last line with the error: Run-time error '3704': Operation is not allowed when the object is closed Why is it closed? I just opened it and the SP returns rows. I ran a trace and this is what the ADO library is actually submitting to the server: declare @p1 int set @p1=1 declare @p2 datetime set @p2=''2010-04-22 15:31:07:770'' exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running this as a separate batch from my query editor yields: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near '2010'. Of course there's an error. Look at the double single quotes in there. What the heck could be causing that? I tried using adDBDate and adDBTime as data types for the date parameter, and they give the same results. When I make the parameters adParamInputOutput, then I get this: declare @p1 int set @p1=default declare @p2 datetime set @p2=default exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running that as a separate batch yields: Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. What the heck? SQL Server doesn't support this kind of syntax. You can only use the DEFAULT keyword in the actual SP execution statement. I should note that removing the extra single quotes from the above statement makes the SP run fine. ... Oh my. I just figured it out. I guess it's worth posting anyway.

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  • Sending HTML email from PHP

    - by KevinM
    I am trying to send a simple HTML e-mail from PHP. The code below simply results in a blank e-mail in GMail. It also has an empty attachment called 'noname', which is not at all what I want; though that might just be a symptom of it not working. The code I am using is: <?php //define the receiver of the email $to = '[email protected]'; //define the subject of the email $subject = 'Test HTML email'; //create a boundary string. It must be unique //so we use the MD5 algorithm to generate a random hash $random_hash = md5(date('r', time())); //define the headers we want passed. Note that they are separated with \r\n $headers = "From: [email protected]\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; //add boundary string and mime type specification $headers .= "\r\nContent-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=\"PHP-alt-".$random_hash."\""; //define the body of the message. ob_start(); //Turn on output buffering ?> --PHP-alt-<?php echo $random_hash; ?> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit Hello World!!! This is simple text email message. --PHP-alt-<?php echo $random_hash; ?> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/html; charset="iso-8859-1" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit <h2>Hello World!</h2> <p>This is something with <b>HTML</b>formatting.</p> --PHP-alt-<?php echo $random_hash; ?>-- <? //copy current buffer contents into $message variable and delete current output buffer $message = ob_get_clean(); //send the email $mail_sent = @mail( $to, $subject, $message, $headers ); //if the message is sent successfully print "Mail sent". Otherwise print "Mail failed" echo $mail_sent ? "Mail sent" : "Mail failed";

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  • How to get compatibility between C# and SQL2k8 AES Encryption?

    - by Victor Rodrigues
    I have an AES encryption being made on two columns: one of these columns is stored at a SQL Server 2000 database; the other is stored at a SQL Server 2008 database. As the first column's database (2000) doesn't have native functionality for encryption / decryption, we've decided to do the cryptography logic at application level, with .NET classes, for both. But as the second column's database (2008) allow this kind of functionality, we'd like to make the data migration using the database functions to be faster, since the data migration in SQL 2k is much smaller than this second and it will last more than 50 hours because of being made at application level. My problem started at this point: using the same key, I didn't achieve the same result when encrypting a value, neither the same result size. Below we have the full logic in both sides.. Of course I'm not showing the key, but everything else is the same: private byte[] RijndaelEncrypt(byte[] clearData, byte[] Key) { var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael algorithm = Rijndael.Create(); algorithm.Key = Key; algorithm.IV = InitializationVector; var criptoStream = new CryptoStream(memoryStream, algorithm.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); criptoStream.Write(clearData, 0, clearData.Length); criptoStream.Close(); byte[] encryptedData = memoryStream.ToArray(); return encryptedData; } private byte[] RijndaelDecrypt(byte[] cipherData, byte[] Key) { var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael algorithm = Rijndael.Create(); algorithm.Key = Key; algorithm.IV = InitializationVector; var criptoStream = new CryptoStream(memoryStream, algorithm.CreateDecryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); criptoStream.Write(cipherData, 0, cipherData.Length); criptoStream.Close(); byte[] decryptedData = memoryStream.ToArray(); return decryptedData; } This is the SQL Code sample: open symmetric key columnKey decryption by password = N'{pwd!!i_ll_not_show_it_here}' declare @enc varchar(max) set @enc = dbo.VarBinarytoBase64(EncryptByKey(Key_GUID('columnKey'), 'blablabla')) select LEN(@enc), @enc This varbinaryToBase64 is a tested sql function we use to convert varbinary to the same format we use to store strings in the .net application. The result in C# is: eg0wgTeR3noWYgvdmpzTKijkdtTsdvnvKzh+uhyN3Lo= The same result in SQL2k8 is: AI0zI7D77EmqgTQrdgMBHAEAAACyACXb+P3HvctA0yBduAuwPS4Ah3AB4Dbdj2KBGC1Dk4b8GEbtXs5fINzvusp8FRBknF15Br2xI1CqP0Qb/M4w I just didn't get yet what I'm doing wrong. Do you have any ideas? EDIT: One point I think is crucial: I have one Initialization Vector at my C# code, 16 bytes. This IV is not set at SQL symmetric key, could I do this? But even not filling the IV in C#, I get very different results, both in content and length.

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  • Calculating rotation and translation matrices between two odometry positions for monocular linear triangulation

    - by user1298891
    Recently I've been trying to implement a system to identify and triangulate the 3D position of an object in a robotic system. The general outline of the process goes as follows: Identify the object using SURF matching, from a set of "training" images to the actual live feed from the camera Move/rotate the robot a certain amount Identify the object using SURF again in this new view Now I have: a set of corresponding 2D points (same object from the two different views), two odometry locations (position + orientation), and camera intrinsics (focal length, principal point, etc.) since it's been calibrated beforehand, so I should be able to create the 2 projection matrices and triangulate using a basic linear triangulation method as in Hartley & Zissermann's book Multiple View Geometry, pg. 312. Solve the AX = 0 equation for each of the corresponding 2D points, then take the average In practice, the triangulation only works when there's almost no change in rotation; if the robot even rotates a slight bit while moving (due to e.g. wheel slippage) then the estimate is way off. This also applies for simulation. Since I can only post two hyperlinks, here's a link to a page with images from the simulation (on the map, the red square is simulated robot position and orientation, and the yellow square is estimated position of the object using linear triangulation.) So you can see that the estimate is thrown way off even by a little rotation, as in Position 2 on that page (that was 15 degrees; if I rotate it any more then the estimate is completely off the map), even in a simulated environment where a perfect calibration matrix is known. In a real environment when I actually move around with the robot, it's worse. There aren't any problems with obtaining point correspondences, nor with actually solving the AX = 0 equation once I compute the A matrix, so I figure it probably has to do with how I'm setting up the two camera projection matrices, specifically how I'm calculating the translation and rotation matrices from the position/orientation info I have relative to the world frame. How I'm doing that right now is: Rotation matrix is composed by creating a 1x3 matrix [0, (change in orientation angle), 0] and then converting that to a 3x3 one using OpenCV's Rodrigues function Translation matrix is composed by rotating the two points (start angle) degrees and then subtracting the final position from the initial position, in order to get the robot's straight and lateral movement relative to its starting orientation Which results in the first projection matrix being K [I | 0] and the second being K [R | T], with R and T calculated as described above. Is there anything I'm doing really wrong here? Or could it possibly be some other problem? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Inline-SVG not rendering when generated by JS

    - by Lucas Gasenzer
    I want to implement some visual statistics into a jQuery mobile page. If I embed the folowing snippet it will show me the same results as if I would embed it from a separate *.svg-file. <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" height="115" width="100%"> <rect x="0%" y="0" fill="#8cc63f" width="19.2%" height="100" /> <text x="10%" y="115" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">A</text> <text x="10%" y="15" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">100</text> <rect x="20.2%" y="50" fill="#8cc63f" width="19.2%" height="50" /> <text x="30.2%" y="115" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">B</text> <text x="30.2%" y="65" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">50</text> <rect x="40.4%" y="90" fill="#8cc63f" width="19.2%" height="10" /> <text x="50.4%" y="115" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">C</text> <text x="50.4%" y="85" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">10</text> <rect x="60.6%" y="78" fill="#8cc63f" width="19.2%" height="22" /> <text x="70.6%" y="115" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">D</text> <text x="70.6%" y="73" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">22</text> <rect x="80.8%" y="40" fill="#8cc63f" width="19.2%" height="60" /> <text x="90.8%" y="115" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">E</text> <text x="90.8%" y="55" font-family="helvetica, sans-serif" font-size="10" style="text-anchor:middle;">60</text> Now because these statistics obviously change for each site I generate code like the one above using JavaScript. The HTML-Source-Code looks the same but the SVG will not be showing. Instead it looks like this: A 100 B 50 C 10 D 22 E60 so really just a line of text Am I missing something? Thank you for your help!

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  • How to display the data of DOM parsed attributes in the listView display ?

    - by Praween k
    Hi, I am building a test output for DOM parser with node "Rider" and within that 7 attributes are there.URL://http://ps700.pranasystems.com/tours/8/xml/results/stage1results.xml. I want to display only the "name" and the "team" attributes output in the listview mode of the device.I am not getting clear where to store the output to display. Please help me someone for how to store and display that data to the output of the device in List view. Thanks in advance //-------------------------------// Here is my code------------// public String getSearch(String strURL) { URL url; URLConnection urlConn = null; NamedNodeMap nnm = null; int len; try { url = new URL(strURL); urlConn = url.openConnection(); } catch (IOException ioe) { Log.e("Could not Connect: "+ioe.getMessage(), "."); } DocumentBuilder builder = null ; Document doc = null ; try { DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); doc = db.parse(urlConn.getInputStream()); Node thisNode, currentNode, node,theAttribute ; NodeList nchild, nodeList; String name; ArrayList<Node> result = new ArrayList<Node>(); nodeList = doc.getElementsByTagName("rider"); int length = nodeList.getLength(); for (int i = 0; i < length; i++) { currentNode = nodeList.item(i); NamedNodeMap attributes = currentNode.getAttributes(); Log.i("TAG", attributes.toString()); for (int a = 0; a < attributes.getLength(); a++) { theAttribute = attributes.item(a); } // s1.setAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<Node>(this, // android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1,result)); }catch(ParserConfigurationException pce ){ Log.e("Could not Parse XML:" +pce.getMessage() ,"."); } catch (SAXException se) {Log.e("Could not Parse XML: "+se.getMessage(), ".");} catch (IOException ioe) {Log.e("Invalid XML: "+ioe.getMessage(), ".");} return strURL; }

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  • Create a Color Picker, similar to Photoshop's, using Javascript and HTML Canvas

    - by André Alçada Padez
    I am not at all versed in Computer Graphics and am in need of creating a color picker as a javascript tool to embed in an HTML page. First, and looking at Photoshop's one, i thought of the RGB palette as a three-dimensional matrix. My first attempt envolved: <script type="text/javascript"> var rgCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); rgCanvas.width = 256; rgCanvas.height = 256; rgCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (g = 0; g < 256; g++){ for (r = 0; r < 256; r++){ var context = rgCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(r,g); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + r + ', ' + g + ', 0)'; context.lineTo(r+1,g+1); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } } var bCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); bCanvas.width = 20; bCanvas.height = 256; bCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (b = 0; b < 256; b++){ var context = bCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(0,b); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + 0 + ', ' + 0 + ', ' + b + ')'; context.lineTo(20, b); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } document.body.appendChild(rgCanvas); document.body.appendChild(bCanvas); </script> this results in something like My thought is this is too linear, comparing to the ones i see in Photoshop and on the web. I would like to know the logic behind the color mapping in a picker like this: I don't really need the algorythms itself, i'm mainly trying to understand the logic. Thanks

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  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

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  • How to retain headers for all the pages of an exported word document in php?

    - by udaya
    Hi I exported data from php page to word document but the problm is the header is not available in all pages I got the same problem while i am exporting the datas to pdf but i got the result for that one by using fpdf library In pdf i got the results like this ex page1 slno name 1 udaya 2 sankar In page 2 slno name 3 chendu 4 Akila I want the same kind of result in word how to get that This is the function i used function changeDetails() { $bType = $this->input->post('textvalue'); if($bType == "word") { $this->load->library('table'); $data['countrytoword'] = $this->AddEditmodel1->export(); $this->table->set_heading('Name','Country','State','Town'); $out = $this->table->generate($data['countrytoword']); header("Content-Type: application/vnd.ms-word"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Content-disposition: attachment; filename=$cur_date.doc"); echo '<br><br>'; echo '<strong>CountryList</strong><br><br>'; print_r($out); } } <? if(isset($countrytoword)) { ?> <table align="center" border="0"> <tr> <td> Name </td> <td> Country </td> <td> State </td> <td> Town </td> </tr> <? foreach($countrytoword as $dsasffd) { ?> <tr> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbName'] ?></td> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbCountry']; ?></td> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbState']; ?></td> <td><?= $dsasffd['dbTown']; ?></td> <? } } ?> </tr> </table>

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  • How do I create a Spring 3 + Tiles 2 webapp using REST-ful URLs?

    - by Ichiro Furusato
    I'm having a heck of a time resolving URLs with Spring 3.0 MVC. I'm just building a HelloWorld to try out how to build a RESTful webapp in Spring, nothing theoretically complicated. All of the examples I've been able to find are based on configurations that pay attention to file extensions ("*.htm" or "*.do"), include an artificial directory name prefix ("/foo") or even prefix paths with a dot (ugly), all approaches that use some artificial regex pattern as a signal to the resolver. For a REST approach I want to avoid all that muck and use only the natural URL patterns of my application. I would assume (perhaps incorrectly) that in web.xml I'd set a url-pattern of "/*" and pass everything to the DispatcherServlet for resolution, then just rely on URL patterns in my controller. I can't reliably get my resolver(s) to catch the URL patterns, and in all my trials this results in a resource not found error, a stack overflow (loop), or some kind of opaque Spring 3 ServletException stack trace — one of my ongoing frustrations with Spring generally is that the error messages are not often very helpful. I want to work with a Tiles 2 resolver. I've located my *.jsp files in WEB-INF/views/ and have a single line index.jsp file at the application root redirecting to the index file set by my layout.xml (the Tiles 2 Configurer). I do all the normal Spring 3 high-level configuration: <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:view-controller path="/" view-name="index"/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.acme.web.controller" /> ...followed by all sorts of combinations and configurations of UrlBasedViewResolver, InternalResourceViewResolver, UrlFilenameViewController, etc. with all manner of variantions in my Tiles 2 configuration file. Then in my controller I've trying to pick up my URL patterns. Problem is, I can't reliably even get the resolver(s) to catch the patterns to send to my controller. This has now stretched to multiple days with no real progress on something I thought would be very simple to implement. I'm perhaps trying to do too much at once, though I would think this should be a simple (almost a default) configuration. I'm just trying to create a simple HelloWorld-type application, I wouldn't expect this is rocket science. Rather than me post my own configurations (which have ranged all over the map), does anyone know of an online example that: shows a simple Spring 3 MVC + Tiles 2 web application that uses REST-ful URLs (i.e., avoiding forced URL patterns such as file extensions, added directory names or dots) and relies solely on Spring 3 code/annotations (i.e., nothing outside of Spring MVC itself) to accomplish this? Is there an easy way to do this? Thanks very much for any help.

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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  • How do I use ViewScripts on Zend_Form File Elements?

    - by Sonny
    I am using this ViewScript for my standard form elements: <div class="field" id="field_<?php echo $this->element->getId(); ?>"> <?php if (0 < strlen($this->element->getLabel())) : ?> <?php echo $this->formLabel($this->element->getName(), $this->element->getLabel());?> <?php endif; ?> <span class="value"><?php echo $this->{$this->element->helper}( $this->element->getName(), $this->element->getValue(), $this->element->getAttribs() ) ?></span> <?php if (0 < $this->element->getMessages()->length) : ?> <?php echo $this->formErrors($this->element->getMessages()); ?> <?php endif; ?> <?php if (0 < strlen($this->element->getDescription())) : ?> <span class="hint"><?php echo $this->element->getDescription(); ?></span> <?php endif; ?> </div> Trying to use that ViewScript alone results in an error: Exception caught by form: No file decorator found... unable to render file element Looking at this FAQ revealed part of my problem, and I updated my form element decorators like this: 'decorators' => array( array('File'), array('ViewScript', array('viewScript' => 'form/field.phtml')) ) Now it's rendering the file element twice, once within my view script, and extra elements with the file element outside my view script: <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="8388608" id="MAX_FILE_SIZE" /> <input type="hidden" name="UPLOAD_IDENTIFIER" value="4b5f7335a55ee" id="progress_key" /> <input type="file" name="upload_file" id="upload_file" /> <div class="field" id="field_upload_file"> <label for="upload_file">Upload File</label> <span class="value"><input type="file" name="upload_file" id="upload_file" /></span> </div> Any ideas on how to handle this properly with a ViewScript?

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  • Why SQL2008 debugger would NOT step into a certain child stored procedure

    - by John Galt
    I'm encountering differences in T-SQL with SQL2008 (vs. SQL2000) that are leading me to dead-ends. I've verified that the technique of sharing #TEMP tables between a caller which CREATES the #TEMP and the child sProc which references it remain valid in SQL2008 See recent SO question. My core problem remains a critical "child" stored procedure that works fine in SQL2000 but fails in SQL2008 (i.e. a FROM clause in the child sProc is coded as: SELECT * FROM #AREAS A) despite #AREAS being created by the calling parent. Rather than post snippets of the code now, here is another symptom that may help you suggest something. I fired up the new debugger in SQL Mgmt Studio: EXEC dbo.AMS1 @S1='06',@C1='037',@StartDate='01/01/2008',@EndDate='07/31/2008',@Type=1,@ACReq = 1,@Output = 0,@NumofLines = 30,@SourceTable = 'P',@LoanPurposeCatg='P' This is a very large sProc and the key snippet that is weird is the following: **create table #Areas ( State char(2) , County char(3) , ZipCode char(5) NULL , CityName varchar(28) NULL , PData varchar(3) NULL , RData varchar(3) NULL , SMSA_CD varchar(10) NULL , TypeCounty varchar(50) , StateAbbr char(2) ) EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 -- this child populates #Areas @SMSA = @SMSA , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @SourceTable = @SourceTable , @CustomID = @CustomID , @UserName = @UserName , @CityName = @CityName , @Debug=0 EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC -- this child cannot reference #Areas @StartDate = @StartDate , @EndDate = @EndDate , @SMSA_CD = @SMSA_CD , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @CityName = @CityName , @CustomID = @CustomID , @Debug=0 -- continuation of the parent sProc** I can step through the execution of the parent stored procedure. When I get to the first child sproc above, I can either STEP INTO dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 or STEP OVER its execution. When I arrive at the invocation of the 2nd child sProc - dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC - I try to STEP INTO it (because that is where the problem statement is) and STEP INTO is ignored (i.e. treated like STEP OVER instead; yet I KNOW I pressed F11 not F10). It WAS executed however, because when control is returned to the statement after the EXECUTE, I click Continue to finish execution and the results windows shows the errors in the dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC (i.e. the 2nd child) stored procedure. Is there a way to "pre-load" an sProc with the goal of setting a breakpoint on its entry so that I can pursue execution inside it? In summary, I wonder if the inability to step into a given child sproc might be related to the same inability of this particular child to reference a #temp created by its parent (caller).

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • How to select all parent objects into DataContext using single LINQ query ?

    - by too
    I am looking for an answer to a specific problem of fetching whole LINQ object hierarchy using single SELECT. At first I was trying to fill as much LINQ objects as possible using LoadOptions, but AFAIK this method allows only single table to be linked in one query using LoadWith. So I have invented a solution to forcibly set all parent objects of entity which of list is to be fetched, although there is a problem of multiple SELECTS going to database - a single query results in two SELECTS with the same parameters in the same LINQ context. For this question I have simplified this query to popular invoice example: public static class Extensions { public static IEnumerable<T> ForEach<T>(this IEnumerable<T> collection, Action<T> func) { foreach(var c in collection) { func(c); } return collection; } } public IEnumerable<Entry> GetResults(AppDataContext context, int CustomerId) { return ( from entry in context.Entries join invoice in context.Invoices on entry.EntryInvoiceId equals invoice.InvoiceId join period in context.Periods on invoice.InvoicePeriodId equals period.PeriodId // LEFT OUTER JOIN, store is not mandatory join store in context.Stores on entry.EntryStoreId equals store.StoreId into condStore from store in condStore.DefaultIfEmpty() where (invoice.InvoiceCustomerId = CustomerId) orderby entry.EntryPrice descending select new { Entry = entry, Invoice = invoice, Period = period, Store = store } ).ForEach(x => { x.Entry.Invoice = Invoice; x.Invoice.Period = Period; x.Entry.Store = Store; } ).Select(x => x.Entry); } When calling this function and traversing through result set, for example: var entries = GetResults(this.Context); int withoutStore = 0; foreach(var k in entries) { if(k.EntryStoreId == null) withoutStore++; } the resulting query to database looks like (single result is fetched): SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The question is why there are two queries and how can I fetch LINQ objects without such hacks?

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