Search Results

Search found 15353 results on 615 pages for 'native methods'.

Page 513/615 | < Previous Page | 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520  | Next Page >

  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

    Read the article

  • How to detect changing directory size in Perl

    - by materiamage
    Hello, I am trying to find a way of monitoring directories in Perl, in particular the size of a directory, and upon detecting a change in directory size, perform a particular action. The issue I have is with large files that require a noticeable amount of time to copy into this directory, i.e. 100MB. What happens (in Windows, not Unix) is the system reserves enough disk space for the entire file, even though the file is still copying in progress. This causes problems for me, because my script will try to perform an action on this file that has not finished copying over. I can easily detect directory size changes in Unix via 'du', but 'du' in Windows does not behave the same way. Are there any accurate methods of detecting directory size changes in Perl? Edit: Some points to clarify: - My Perl script is only monitoring a particular directory, and upon detecting a new file or a new directory, perform an action on this new file or directory. It is not copying any files; users on the network will be copying files into the directory I am monitoring. - The problem occurs when a new file or directory appears (copied, not moved) that is significantly large ( 100MB, but usually a couple GB) and my program fires before this copy completes - In Unix I can easily 'du' to see that the file/directory in question is growing in size, and take the appropriate action - In Windows the size is static, so I cannot detect this change - opendir/readdir/closedir is not feasible, as some of the directories that appear may contain thousands of files, and I want to avoid the overhead of Ideally I would like my program to be triggered on change, but I am not sure how to do this. As of right now it busy waits until it detects a change. The change in file/directory size is not in my control.

    Read the article

  • What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

    - by SnAzBaZ
    I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

    Read the article

  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • eclipse show errors but compiles when external makefile

    - by Anthony
    I have some c++ code using CImg and Eigen libraries. At the c++ code I define a plugin like this #define cimg_plugin1 "my_plugin.h" #include "CImg.h" The plugin contains many method definitions that are used at the c++ code. I also have a makefile that when called from the command line (./make), allows me to compile everything, and generates an executable. I want to import this code into a new Eclipse project, and I do it so: NewProjectC++ projectmakefile projectempty project unmark "Use default location", and select the folder containing my code at the filesystem ProjectpropertiesC/C++ Buildunmark "Use default build command" and set it to use my makefile Also in project propertiesC/C++ GeneralPaths and SymbolsAdd paths to folders containing Eigen and CImg Rebuild index Clean project Restart eclipse When I build the project, eclipse tells me I have more than 1000 errors in "my_plugin.h", but it is capable to generate the executable. Even though, I would like to get rid of this errors, because they are annoying. Also, if I want to open the declaration of CImg methods used at the plugin, I can't. I know it has been asked before, but any of the solutions I found were satisfactory for me (most of them enumerated at the previous list). The sources I visited are the following, and I would be really happy if you find and tell me others I didn't see. Eclipse shows errors but project compile fine eclipse C project shows errors (Symbol could not be resolved) but it compiles Eclipse CDT shows some errors, but the project is successfully built http://www.eclipse.org/forums/index.php/t/247954/

    Read the article

  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

    Read the article

  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

    Read the article

  • Problem: writing parameter values to data driven MSTEST output

    - by Shubh
    Hi, I am trying to extract some information about the parameter variants used in an MSTEST data driven test case from trx file. Currently, For data driven tests, I get the output of same testcase with different inputs as a sequence of tags , but there is no info about the value of the variants. Example: Suppose we have a [data driven]TestMethod1() and the data rows contain variations a and b. There are two variations a=1,b=2 for which the test passes and a=3,b=4 for which the test fails. If we can output the info that it was a=1,b=2 which passed and a=3 b=4 which failed in the trx file; the output will be meaningful. Better information about test case runs from the output file alone(without any dependencies). Investigating the test failure without rerunning the whole set If the data rows change in data source(now a=1,b=2 pass and a=5,b=6 fail) , easy to decipher that the errors are different; although the fail sequence is still the same(row 0 pass row 1 fail but now row1 is different) Has any of you gone through a similar problem? What did you follow? I tried to put the parameter value information in the Description attribute of TestMethod, it didnt work. Any other methods you think can work too? thanks, Shubhankar

    Read the article

  • [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

    - by David
    I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

    Read the article

  • Iframe/Popup redirecting opener window

    - by Bara
    Hello all, I have a page located at x.com. On this page is a button that, when clicked, will launch a new window (using javascript's window.open() method) to a page that is located at z.com. The popup does a few things, then redirects the original window (the opener, x.com) to a different page based on some parameters defined in the popup. This works fine in Firefox/Chrome, but not in IE. In IE (8 specifically, but I believe 7 also has this problem) the original window (the opener) is not redirected. Instead, a new window comes up and THAT window is redirected. I've tried many different methods to try and get this to work, including changing the popup to an iframe loaded on the page and having a function on the opener that the popup/iframe call. The problem seems to be that IE refuses to allow cross-domain sites to talk to each other via javascript. Is there a way around this? How can I get the parent window to redirect to a page based on parameters in a popup or iframe? Bara

    Read the article

  • Can I avoid explicitly casting objects with a common subclass?

    - by prendio2
    I have an iPodLibraryGroup object and Artist and Album both inherit from it. When it comes to my view controllers though I find that I'm duplicate lots of code, for example I have an ArtistListViewController and and AlbumListViewController even though they're both doing basically the same thing. The reason I've ended up duplicating the code is because these view controllers each refer to either an Artist object or al Album object and I'm not sure how to set it up so that one view controller could handle both — these view controllers are mainly accessing methods that that the objects have in common from iPodLibraryGroup. As an example, to hopefully make this clearer consider this code in AlbumListViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Album *album = nil; album = [self albumForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; … if (!album.thumbnail) { [self startThumbnailDownload:album forIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = album.thumbnail; } return cell; } This is essentially completely repeated (along with a hell of a lot more repeated code) in ArtistListViewController just so that I can typecast the local variable as an Artist instead of an Album. Is there a way to not explicitly need to set Artist or Album here so that the same code could work for any object that is a child of iPodLibraryGroup?

    Read the article

  • Force sending a user to custom QuerySet.

    - by Jack M.
    I'm trying to secure an application so that users can only see objects which are assigned to them. I've got a custom QuerySet which works for this, but I'm trying to find a way to force the use of this additional functionality. Here is my Model: class Inquiry(models.Model): ts = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) assigned_to_user = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True, related_name="assigned_inquiries") objects = CustomQuerySetManager() class QuerySet(QuerySet): def for_user(self, user): return self.filter(assigned_to_user=user) (The CustomQuerySetManager is documented over here, if it is important.) I'm trying to force everything to use this filtering, so that other methods will raise an exception. For example: Inquiry.objects.all() ## Should raise an exception. Inquiry.objects.filter(pk=69) ## Should raise an exception. Inquiry.objects.for_user(request.user).filter(pk=69) ## Should work. inqs = Inquiry.objects.for_user(request.user) ## Should work. inqs.filter(pk=69) ## Should work. It seems to me that there should be a way to force the security of these objects by allowing only certain users to access them. I am not concerned with how this might impact the admin interface.

    Read the article

  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

    Read the article

  • Encrypt a file base upon a pregenerated "key" C#

    - by Anubis
    Hello everyone. I'm trying to determine the best course of action to implement a simple "licensing" system with a partner of mine. The concept is: Generate an encrypted value based upon several internal hardware components. Have the customer send this value to us which we will implement into our key generator. Once we have that, we add any other restrictions on the license (user, expires, etc.). From there we generate a file which we send to the customer they can add to their installation and voila, happy people about. I have the first part all done. My next part is trying to figure out which encryption methodology I would need to use. I already know Symmetric Encryption is pretty much the only route I can take. Most of the information I have found involves .NET already creating a key from its own internal methods. That's a bit of background, my question is: "Which encryption method could I use which would allow me to encrypt the restrictions based upon the "id" I was given from the customer's computer?" I'm writing this in C# by the way. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! Take Care!

    Read the article

  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Vertically Aligning Elements

    - by Naz
    I'm trying to understand how to center elements within a div. I have this basic code I am working with and am trying to get the 'This is a button' element to be in the center <body> <div style="width:960px;background-color:#d7d7d7;"> <div style=" width:400px; padding:10px; height:auto; background-color:#006699; display:inline-block; "> <p> Vivamus vel sapien. Praesent nisl tortor, laoreet eu, dapibus quis, egestas non, mauris. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus. Vivamus vel sapien. Praesent nisl tortor, laoreet eu, dapibus quis, egestas non, mauris. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus.</p> </div> <div style=" width:100px; padding:10px; height:auto; background-color:#b1b1b1; float:right; display:inline-block; margin:auto!important; vertical-align:middle; "> <p>This is a button</p> </div> </div> </body> It's essentially 1 div, divided into 2 with text on the left hand side and a 'This is a button' label to be in the center of the right side, but I can;t figure out how to get it to center, I've tried all sorts of methods. All help/advice is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Binding mousemove within mousedown function with jQuery

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am trying to bind a mousemove event to a div when the left mousebutton is down, and unbind when it is released. This code should be fairly self-explainatory. function handleMouseDown(e, sbar){ if (e.button == 0){ console.log(sbar); //firebug sbar.bind('mousemove', function(event){ handleMouseMove(event, sbar); }); } } function handleMouseUp(e, sbar){ sbar.unbind('mousemove'); } function handleMouseMove(e, sbar){ // not sure it this will work yet, but unimportant $(".position").html(e.pageX); } $(document).ready(function (){ var statusbar = $(".statusbar"); statusbar.mousedown(function(event){ handleMouseDown(event, this); }); statusbar.mouseup(function(event){ handleMouseUp(event, this); }); }); The important part of the HTML looks like this <div id="main"> <div class="statusbar"> <p class="position"></p> </div> </div> Firebug says that the bind methods are undefined on the variable sbar within handleMouseDown and handleMouseUp. The firebug console prints out <div class="statusbar"> for the line commented //firebug. I'm doing something wrong, probably when binding the mousedown and mouseup... but what?! I'm using jQuery v1.4.2, if that helps?

    Read the article

  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

    Read the article

  • Chrome extension custom cursor

    - by the_nakos
    Hi, I building an Google Chrome extension that place some IMG tag in sites. This img tag on :hover must show a custom cursor. The extension uses jQuery as its injected core script. I tried the following methods: 1. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('#myImgId').css({ 'position': 'absolute', 'top':'5px', 'left':'5px', 'cursor':cursor }); This is the best working. On smaller sites its shows the cursor. On slower loading sites it does not. But on little sites it fails sometimes. 2. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('<style>#myImgId{cursor:'+cursor+'}</style>').appendTo('head'); This did nothing at all. 3. In manifest.json I injected the css. "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*/*"], "css": ["css/style.css"], "js": ["j/c.js", "j/s.js"] } The css file just had the cursor:url(icons/cursor.cur) as I don't have idea, how to get real url in a css file. This isn't working at all. I think it must work like this, I didn't find reference for this on code.google though.

    Read the article

  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

    Read the article

  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

    Read the article

  • Moving UIScrollView in App

    - by jsetting32
    Currently, I am attempting to create the same effect as Yahoo! Weather's App where the vital day information is at the bottom of the page on the top of a UIScrollView, that's contained by a UIView. I am having a hard time thinking about how this is going to happen or how I should implement this. If the user taps on the top of the UIScrollView which is located near the bottom of the laoded UIView, and starts to scroll up (/), the UIScrollView's frame should be moved to the TOP of the current UIView's frame. So the UIScrollView's y-value should change to UIView's (self.view.frame.origin.y) if the user starts scrolling UP on the UIScrollView which is located on the UIView's y-pixel ~280. Here's what the UIViewController should look like in the beginning of loading the ViewController... Then once the user slides his finger from the bottom to the top of the screen... this should happen........ And when the user scrolls to the top of the UIScrollView with all the content within it... the view should go back to the start picture shown... How is this done? I was thinking several UIGestureRecognizer's and Instantiating the UIscrollview at the lower part of the UIView... _weatherView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y + 250, self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height - 44)]; _weatherView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height * 4); _weatherView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:_weatherView]; The adding some UIGestureRecognizer delegate method.... But anyone have any ideas on the UIGestureRecognizer delegate method? And how it should be implemented? I can write the psuedo-code but I am having problems finding the delegate methods :P Thank you!!! ---- Break Time.... :)

    Read the article

  • Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

    - by DDP
    Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520  | Next Page >