Search Results

Search found 69026 results on 2762 pages for 'toy problem'.

Page 514/2762 | < Previous Page | 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible to install into Program Files with limited privileges?

    - by Marek
    I have an application that will be deployed as MSI package (authored in WiX). I am deciding whether to specify elevated or limited privileges as required for the installer. The application does not include anything requiring elevated privileges besides the default install location, which is under Program Files. Now the problem: If I specify elevated privileges, then the user is prompted by UAC for administrator password during the installation. This is not required and prevents non-admin users from installing. If I specify limited privileges, then the user is presented with a dialog to select install location with Program Files being default. In case they do not change the install location (95 % of end users probably won't), then the installer will fail with a message that they should contact the Administrator or run the application as administrator. If they launch the installer as Administrator then they can install into Program Files without problem - but most of the users won't probably know how to launch an installer as administrator. I can potentially set the default install location to e.g. C:\Company name\Program\, but this seems nonstandard to me and majority of users will not probably like this (they are probably used to installing into Program Files). How do you solve this problem with installing applications under limited user accounts?

    Read the article

  • Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

    - by sevennineteen
    This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Read varbinary data in java

    - by masoud farahani
    I made a Java application which reads some files from SQL server. Those files are saved to a varbinary(MAX) field in SQL Server by a third party web service. My problem is that when I want to read those files with my Java application, those binary data show different content in the Java application. In fact, I read data byte by byte and I figured out that some bytes did not show the real values which were saved in the database. I found out what the problem is, but I couldn’t find a solution yet. I found out that in the web service every varbinary data is saved to database as byte data (in .Net each byte takes 0 to 255). But, when I want to read the binary data in Java, it takes different values and cause an exception with some values, because in Java a byte value takes -127 to 127. In my Java application I want to write those data to a file by OutputStream.write(byte[]) method. How can I solve this problem? I think that I have to find a way to convert c# byte[] to a Java byte[] (or binary data), but how can I do that?

    Read the article

  • Scroll view to bottom while keyboard is hiding

    - by Manu
    Hi! I'm using a scroll view to move my view and show certain text fields (that otherwise would be hidden) when the keyboard shows. I basically resize the scroll view to make room for the keyboard, and then scroll up the view smoothly with "scrollRectToVisible", which works perfectly. After that, I can scroll and edit the rest of the text fields without lowering the keyboard, which is what I intend. The problem comes when I want to hide the keyboard again. I have been able to lower the keyboard and scroll down the view to its original position without a problem, but I have been unable to make that transition smooth. At the moment I use the following: - (void)keyboardWillHide: (NSNotification *)notif { CGRect topRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1, 1); [scrollview scrollRectToVisible:topRect animated:YES]; scrollview.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, scrollviewWidth, scrollviewHeight); } I create a CGRect at the top, which I then move into view with "scrollRectToVisible". That works fine and commences the scrolling right when the keyboard is hiding (I use "keyboardWillHide" and not "keyboardDidHide" because the scroll view frame is still missing its lower part). The problem comes when I resize the scroll view frame back to its original dimensions (which I need to do), because then the scrolling is interrupted and the view drops to the bottom suddenly (as there is nothing else to scroll). This causes a glitch, which is why I cannot complete the transition smoothly. Any ideas on how could I lower the keyboard while scrolling the view down smoothly? Should I be scrolling up a bigger view, instead of resizing it? That way I would not have to restore the scroll view frame dimensions when lowering the keyboard, or would I? Thanks very much in advance!

    Read the article

  • Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

    - by Tom
    I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

    Read the article

  • How to get <td> value in textbox

    - by Shreeuday Kasat
    I've done some code in html and in JavaScript ... My query is when I click on <td>, whatever the value associated with it, has to be displayed in the corresponding text box ... In front of <td> I've taken the textbox ... for an example I've taken 3 <td> and 3 textboxes <script type="text/javascript"> function click3(x) { x = document.getElementById("name").innerHTML var a = document.getElementById("txt"); a.value = x; } function click1(y) { y = document.getElementById("addr").innerHTML var b = document.getElementById("txt1"); b.value = y; } function click2(z) { z = document.getElementById("email").innerHTML var c = document.getElementById("txt2"); c.value = z; } </script> this is my JavaScript code , I know this is not an adequate way to deal such problem, since its giving static way to deal with this problem does anyone have a better solution for this problem ?? In JavaScript/jQuery

    Read the article

  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

    Read the article

  • CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

    - by Stephen Kellett
    Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

    Read the article

  • Randomly sorting an array

    - by Cam
    Does there exist an algorithm which, given an ordered list of symbols {a1, a2, a3, ..., ak}, produces in O(n) time a new list of the same symbols in a random order without bias? "Without bias" means the probability that any symbol s will end up in some position p in the list is 1/k. Assume it is possible to generate a non-biased integer from 1-k inclusive in O(1) time. Also assume that O(1) element access/mutation is possible, and that it is possible to create a new list of size k in O(k) time. In particular, I would be interested in a 'generative' algorithm. That is, I would be interested in an algorithm that has O(1) initial overhead, and then produces a new element for each slot in the list, taking O(1) time per slot. If no solution exists to the problem as described, I would still like to know about solutions that do not meet my constraints in one or more of the following ways (and/or in other ways if necessary): the time complexity is worse than O(n). the algorithm is biased with regards to the final positions of the symbols. the algorithm is not generative. I should add that this problem appears to be the same as the problem of randomly sorting the integers from 1-k, since we can sort the list of integers from 1-k and then for each integer i in the new list, we can produce the symbol ai.

    Read the article

  • gluLookAt alternative doesn't work

    - by Brammie
    Hey guys. I'm trying to calculate a lookat matrix myself, instead of using gluLookAt(). My problem is that my matrix doesn't work. using the same parameters on gluLookAt does work however. my way of creating a lookat matrix: Vector3 Eye, At, Up; //these should be parameters =) Vector3 zaxis = At - Eye; zaxis.Normalize(); Vector3 xaxis = Vector3::Cross(Up, zaxis); xaxis.Normalize(); Vector3 yaxis = Vector3::Cross(zaxis, xaxis); yaxis.Normalize(); float r[16] = { xaxis.x, yaxis.x, zaxis.x, 0, xaxis.y, yaxis.y, zaxis.y, 0, xaxis.z, yaxis.z, zaxis.z, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, }; Matrix Rotation; memcpy(Rotation.values, r, sizeof(r)); float t[16] = { 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, -Eye.x, -Eye.y, -Eye.z, 1, }; Matrix Translation; memcpy(Translation.values, t, sizeof(t)); View = Rotation * Translation; // i tried reversing this as well (translation*rotation) now, when i try to use this matrix be calling glMultMatrixf, nothing shows up in my engine, while using the same eye, lookat and up values on gluLookAt works perfect as i said before. glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); glMultMatrixf(View); the problem must be in somewhere in the code i posted here, i know the problem is not in my Vector3/Matrix classes, because they work fine when creating a projection matrix.

    Read the article

  • Adding Categories to my Articles in my Rails app (Small Help)

    - by user214038
    I'm currently building a semi-small ruby app for a project. The problem I'm currently facing is the following: I want to be Able to fit the Article into the Categories. I've already accomplish this by having two models. An article model with a foreign key of category_id and my Category model with the name of the category. With a has_one and belogs_to relationship. (We're assuming you can only fit an article into one category). Here's the piece of code. This is the new method, where i create a new article and load up all the categories. def new @article = Article.new @categories = Category.find(:all) end The problem comes when i try to get the category from a combo box in order to insert it along with the article. This is the combo box code : f.select(:category_id,@categories) And this is the create method: def create @category = Category.find(params[:id]) @article = @category.articles.new(params[:article]) if @article.save flash[:notice] = "Article Submitted Sucessfully" redirect_to user_path else render :action = 'new' end end I believe that the problem i have is in this line when i try to load up the selected category "@category = Category.find(params[:id])" because whenever i hardcode the this line into @category = Category.find(1) It Works perfectly

    Read the article

  • Creating Binary Block from struct

    - by MOnsDaR
    I hope the title is describing the problem, i'll change it if anyone has a better idea. I'm storing information in a struct like this: struct AnyStruct { AnyStruct : testInt(20), testDouble(100.01), testBool1(true), testBool2(false), testBool3(true), testChar('x') {} int testInt; double testDouble; bool testBool1; bool testBool2; bool testBool3; char testChar; std::vector<char> getBinaryBlock() { //how to build that? } } The struct should be sent via network in a binary byte-buffer with the following structure: Bit 00- 31: testInt Bit 32- 61: testDouble most significant portion Bit 62- 93: testDouble least significant portion Bit 94: testBool1 Bit 95: testBool2 Bit 96: testBool3 Bit 97-104: testChar According to this definition the resulting std::vector should have a size of 13 bytes (char == byte) My question now is how I can form such a packet out of the different datatypes I've got. I've already read through a lot of pages and found datatypes like std::bitset or boost::dynamic_bitset, but neither seems to solve my problem. I think it is easy to see, that the above code is just an example, the original standard is far more complex and contains more different datatypes. Solving the above example should solve my problems with the complex structures too i think. One last point: The problem should be solved just by using standard, portable language-features of C++ like STL or Boost (

    Read the article

  • jQuery Syntax Error - Trying to detect viewport size and select background image to use w/CSS

    - by CuppyCakes
    Hi all. Please be gentle, I'm still learning. I imagine that the solution to my problem is simple and that perhaps I have just been in front of the computer too long. I am trying to detect the size of the viewport, and then use a different sized image for a background on an element depending on the size of the viewport. Here is what I have so far: $(document).ready(function(){ var pageWidth = $(window).width(); if ( pageWidth <= 1280 ) { $('#contact').css('background-image', 'url(../images/contact_us_low.jpg)'); } elseif ( pageWidth > 1280 ) { $('#contact').css('background-image', 'url(../images/contact_us_high.jpg)'); } }); Error: missing ; before statement [Break on this error] elseif ( pageWidth 1280 ) {\n (Line 7) To me it seems like all of my semi-colons are in the right place. Two questions: Am I going about solving the problem in a sensible way? To me a simple conditional should solve this background problem, as the code is merely selecting between two images based on what size it detects the viewport to be. Can you please help point out my n00b syntax error? Sometimes it really does help to have an extra pair of eyes look at something like this, even if small. Thank you kindly for your advice, I will continue poking and perusing the docs I have available to me.

    Read the article

  • Timing issues with playback of the HTML5 Audio API

    - by pat
    I'm using the following code to try to play a sound clip with the HTML5 Audio API: HTMLAudioElement.prototype.playClip = function(startTime, stopTime) { this.stopTime = stopTime; this.currentTime = startTime; this.play(); $(this).bind('timeupdate', function(){ if (this.ended || this.currentTime >= stopTime) { this.pause(); $(this).unbind('timeupdate'); } }); } I utilize this new playClip method as follows. First I have a link with some data attributes: <a href=# data-stop=1.051 data-start=0.000>And then I was thinking,</a> And finally this bit of jQuery which runs on $(document).ready to hook up a click on the link with the playback: $('a').click(function(ev){ $('a').click(function(ev){ var start = $(this).data('start'), stop = $(this).data('stop'), audio = $('audio').get(0), $audio = $(audio); ev.preventDefault(); audio.playClip(start,stop); }) This approach seems to work, but there's a frustrating bug: sometimes, the playback of a given clip plays beyond the correct data-stop time. I suspect it could have something to do with the timing of the timeupdate event, but I'm no JS guru and I don't know how to begin debugging the problem. Here are a few clues I've gathered: The same behavior appears to come up in both FF and Chrome. The playback of a given clip actually seems to vary a bit -- if I play the same clip a couple times in a row, it may over-play a different amount of time on each playing. Is the problem here the inherent accuracy of the Audio API? My app needs milliseconds. Is there a problem with the way I'm using jQuery to bind and unbind the timeupdate event? I tried using the jQuery-less approach with addEventListener but I couldn't get it to work. Thanks in advance, I would really love to know what's going wrong.

    Read the article

  • Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

    - by DavidYell
    I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Cannot open a SQL2000 DTS package I imported into SQL2008

    - by RJ
    I am running into a problem trying to open a SQL2000 DTS package I imported into SQL2008. I set up a new server and installed a fresh install of SQL2008. The database I need to run is a SQL2000 database. I moved the database over with no problem but there are a few DTS packages that need to run in legacy on SQL2008. I exported the DTS packages I need out of SQL2000 and imported them successfully into SQL2008. My SQL2008 server is x64. I can see the DTS packages under Data Transformation Service in Legacy but when I try to open the package I get this message. "SQL Server 2000 DTS Designer components are required to edit DTS packages. Install the special web download, "SQL Server 2000 DTS Designer components" to use this feature. (Microsoft.SqlServer.DtsObjectExplorerUI)" I downloaded the components and installed them and still get this error. I researched and found an article about this not working on x64 so I have an x86 machine that I installed the SQL2008 tools and tried to open the package from there and got the same error. I have spent days on this and need help. Has anyone run across this and can tell me what to do. If you have solved this problem, please help me out. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Heroku "We're sorry, but something went wrong." due to javascript_include_tag

    - by Newton
    Uploading my ruby on rails app to heroku causes the following error: We're sorry, but something went wrong. This does not occur on my local machine. After some debugging, I think I may have spotted the error, but do not know how to fix it. In my file application.html.erb, removing the following line solves the problem, but then my app loses its jquery mobile theme. Any ideas what I could do to fix the problem? Line causing the problem: <%= javascript_include_tag "application" %> application.html.erb file: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Washapp</title> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/mobile/1.0.1/jquery.mobile-1.0.1.min.css" /> <%= javascript_include_tag "application" %> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/mobile/1.0.1/jquery.mobile-1.0.1.min.js"></script> <%= csrf_meta_tags %> <script> if (window.location.hash == "#_=_") window.location.hash = ""; </script> </head> <body> <div data-role="page"> <%= yield %> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

    - by Oscar
    Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

    Read the article

  • PHP Foreach statement issue. Multiple rows are returned

    - by Daniel Patilea
    I'm a PHP beginner and lately i've been having a problem with my source code. Here it is: <html> <head> <title> Bot </title> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="main.css" /> </head> <body> <form action="bot.php "method="post"> <lable>You:<input type="text" name="intrebare"></lable> <input type="submit" name="introdu" value="Send"> </form> </body> </html> <?php //error_reporting(E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE); mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("robo") or die(mysql_error()); $intrebare=$_POST['intrebare']; $query = "SELECT * FROM dialog where intrebare like '%$intrebare%'"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die(mysql_error()); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result) or die(mysql_error()); ?> <div id="history"> <?php foreach($row as $rows){ echo "<b>The robot says: </b><br />"; echo $row['raspuns']; } ?> </div> It returns me the result x6 times. This problem appeared when I've made that foreach because I wanted the results to stuck on the page one by one after every sql querry. Can you please tell me what seems to be the problem? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What, if any, printable character did a user type based on the values in a given System.Windows.Form

    - by Corey Trager
    As a workaround for a problem, I think I have to handle KeyDown events to get the printable character the user actually typed. KeyDown supplies me with a KeyEventArgs object with the properities KeyCode, KeyData, KeyValue, Modifiers, Alt, Shift, Control. My first attempt was just to consider the KeyCode to be the ascii code, but KeyCode on my keyboard is 46, a period ("."), so I end up printing a period when the user types the delete key. So, I know my logic is inadequate. (For those who are curious, the problem is that I have my own combobox in a DataGridView's control collection and somehow SOME characters I type don't produce the KeyPress and TextChanged ComboBox events. These letters include Q, $, %.... This code will reproduce the problem. Generate a Form App and replace the ctor with this code. Run it, and try typing the letter Q into the two comboxes. public partial class Form1 : Form { ComboBox cmbInGrid; ComboBox cmbNotInGrid; DataGridView grid; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); grid = new DataGridView(); cmbInGrid = new ComboBox(); cmbNotInGrid = new ComboBox(); cmbInGrid.Items.Add("a"); cmbInGrid.Items.Add("b"); cmbNotInGrid.Items.Add("c"); cmbNotInGrid.Items.Add("d"); this.Controls.Add(cmbNotInGrid); this.Controls.Add(grid); grid.Location = new Point(0, 100); this.grid.Controls.Add(cmbInGrid); }

    Read the article

  • Sharing a global/static variable between a process and DLL

    - by minjang
    I'd like to share a static/global variable only between a process and a dll that is invoked by the process. The exe and dll are in the same memory address space. I don't want the variable to be shared among other processes. Elaboration of the problem: Say that there is a static/global variable x in a.cpp. Both the exe foo.exe and the dll bar.dll have a.cpp, so the variable x is in both images. Now, foo.exe dynamically loads (or statically) bar.dll. Then, the problem is whether the variable x is shared by the exe and dll, or not. In Windows, these two guys never share the x: the exe and dll will have a separate copy of x. However, in Linux, the exe and dll do share the variable x. Unfortunately, I want the behavior of Linux. I first considered using pragma data_seg on Windows. However, even if I correctly setup the shared data segment, foo.exe and bar.dll never shares the x. Recall that bar.dll is loaded into the address space of foo.exe. However, if I run another instance of foo.exe, then x is shared. But, I don't want x to be shared by different processes. So, using data_seg was failed. I may it use a memory-mapped file by making an unique name between exe and dll, which I'm trying now. Two questions: Why the behavior of Linux and Windows is different? Can anyone explain more about this? What would be most easiest way to solve this problem on Windows?

    Read the article

  • Git rebase and semi-tracked per-developer config files.

    - by dougkiwi
    This is my first SO question and I'm new-ish to Git as well. Background: I am supposed to be the version control guru for Git in my group of about 8 developers. As I don't have a lot of Git experience, this is exciting. I decided we need a shared repository that would be the authoritative master for the production code and the main meeting-point for the development code. As we work for a corporation, we really do need to show an authoritive source for the production code at least. I have instructed the developers to pull-rebase when pulling from the shared repository, then push the commits that they want to share. We have been running into problems with a particular type of file. One of these files, which I currently assume is typical of the problem, is called web.config. We want a version-controlled master web.config for devs to clone, but each dev may make minor edits to this file that they wish to locally save but not share. The problem is this: how do I tell git not to consider local changes or commits to this file to be relevent for rebasing and pushing? Gitignore does not seem to solve the problem, but maybe that's because I put web.config into .gitignore too late? In some simple situations we have stacked local changes, rebased, pushed, and popped the stack, but that doesn't seem to work all of the time. I haven't picked up the pattern quite yet. The published documentation on pull --rebase tends to deal with simplier situations. Or do I have the wrong idea entirely? Are we misusing Git? Dougkiwi

    Read the article

  • VS ASP.NET 500 Server Error

    - by rlb.usa
    Hey guys, I'm having a super weird problem with my VS 2008 solution. We had this hand-coded ASP.NET compiled web app on our old IIS6/Win2003 server, working great, moved it to our new IIS7/Win2008 server, still working great, but when I try to compile the application and publish it again to our new Win2008 server, I get server 500 errors. It's ASP.NET 2.0 with AJAX extensions and AJAX control toolkit. I'm not too great with server issues, or even sure if it is a server issue but here are some more symptoms... ? I know the website works (it only differs by some minor code fixes) and can use it's code on a development machine, there are no errors, and it publishes fine. Publishing (using the DLL files), and even not publishing and trying to use the code-behind files on our new server, both no success. The old website does work on the new server just fine. If I put a simple hello world html page in the website's virtual directory, with the old code, it works fine, but with the new code, that html page gets the 500 error. And in fact, oddly, I can add all the files to the website, only when I add the web.config, do I get the 500 error. The web.config has not changed. Tried stopping and restarting IIS What's the problem, here? Any ideas, what else can I do to troubleshoot the problem?

    Read the article

  • DB Architecture : Linking to intersection or to main tables?

    - by Jean-Nicolas
    Hi, I'm creating fantasy football system on my website but i'm very confuse about how I should link some of my table. Tables The main table is Pool which have all the info about the ruling of the fantasy draft. A standard table User, which contains the usual stuff. Intersection table called pools_users which contains id,pool_id,user_id because a user could be in more than one pool, and a pool contains more than 1 user. The problem Table Selections = that's the table that is causing problem. That's the selection that the user choose for his pool. This is related to the Player table but thats not relevant for this problem. Should I link this table to the table Pools_users or should I link it with both main table Pool and User. This table contains id,pool_id,user_id,player_id,... What is the best way link my tables? When I want to retrieve my data, I normally want the information to be divided BY users. "This user have those selections, this one those selections, etc).

    Read the article

  • interface variables are final and static by default and methods are public and abstract

    - by sap
    The question is why it's been decided to have variable as final and static and methods as public and abstract by default. Is there any particular reason for making them implicit,variable as final and static and methods as public and abstract. Why they are not allowing static method but allowing static variable? We have interface to have feature of multiple inheritance in Java and to avoid diamond problem. But how it solves diamond problem,since it does not allow static methods. In the following program, both interfaces have method with the same name..but while implementing only one we implement...is this how diamond problem is solved? interface testInt{ int m = 0; void testMethod(); } interface testInt1{ int m = 10; void testMethod(); } public class interfaceCheck implements testInt, testInt1{ public void testMethod(){ System . out . println ( "m is"+ testInt.m ); System . out . println ( "Hi World!" ); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521  | Next Page >