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• How should a process running outside Internet Explorer talk to JavaScript running inside it?

  - by Paul Crowley

  This may well be impossible; either way I'm sure people here will know. I'm trying to reduce three "OK" prompts to two. As part of my application, users will download and run an executable I supply; call it privileged.exe. privileged.exe will have a coda that asks for the highest privileges available. That's two OK prompts, one to run privileged.exe and one for UAC. I'd like privileged.exe to then install an ActiveX control, browser plugin or some such. The purpose of this ActiveX control is to allow the JavaScript running inside the browser to talk to the running privileged.exe process, to allow the user to perform certain operations that require high privileges by making choices in the browser. And I'd ideally like this to happen without the user having to restart their browser or explicitly OK the installation of the ActiveX control. Is that possible? Can you install an ActiveX control from outside the browser in such a way that it becomes immediately available to pages running inside the browser? Or should I give up, and allow the user to be explicitly prompted to install the ActiveX control?

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• Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

  - by Kon

  We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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• Java Servlet: getInitParameter not work in Service()

  - by Gabriele

  I've added some parameters in my web.xml config file, as follow: <context-param> <param-name>service1</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>service2</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> ... I try to get the parameter in my servlet, in particular in my service method: protected void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(this.getServletContext().getInitParameter("service1")); ... but at runtime I have a NullPointerException... How can I get the parameter value included in web.xml? This is the stacktrace: GRAVE: Servlet.service() for servlet DispatcherServlet threw exception java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.getServletContext(GenericServlet.java:160) at it.servlethope.DispatcherServlet.service(DispatcherServlet.java:66) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.handleRewrite(RuleChain.java:176) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.doRules(RuleChain.java:145) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriter.processRequest(UrlRewriter.java:92) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriteFilter.doFilter(UrlRewriteFilter.java:381) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) DispatcherServlet.java:66 is the line where I try the getInitParameter()

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• jquery change event not working with IE6

  - by manivineet

  It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• mysql query using global variables

  - by Carlos

  I am trying run a query to active the users account. I am not sure if I am having problem with the query itself or if there's something else that I dont know about. here is the code: if($_SESSION['lastid']&&$_SESSION['random']) { $check= mysql_query('SELECT * FROM members WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]" AND random = " $_SESSION[random]"'); $checknum = mysql_num_rows($check); //$checknum = mysql_query($check) or die("Error: ". mysql_error(). " with query ". $check); if($checknum != 0) // run query to activate the account { $acti= mysql_query('UPDATE members SET activation = "1" WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]"'); die('Your account has been activated. You may now log in!'); }else{ echo('Invalid id or activation code.') . ' lastid: ' .$_SESSION['lastid'] . ' random: ' .$_SESSION['random'] ; // die ('Invalid id or activation code.'); } }else{ die('Could not either find id or random number!'); } this is the warning I am getting from mysql: Warning: mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /hermes/bosweb26b/b2501/servername/folder/file.php on line 30 but when I echo the variables out, I get the same values that are stored in the database.... Invalid id or activation code. lastid: 2 and random: 36308075 could someone please give me a hint? thank you.

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• PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

  - by John

  Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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• Exception error in Erlang

  - by Jim

  So I've been using Erlang for the last eight hours, and I've spent two of those banging my head against the keyboard trying to figure out the exception error my console keeps returning. I'm writing a dice program to learn erlang. I want it to be able to call from the console through the erlang interpreter. The program accepts a number of dice, and is supposed to generate a list of values. Each value is supposed to be between one and six. I won't bore you with the dozens of individual micro-changes I made to try and fix the problem (random engineering) but I'll post my code and the error. The Source: -module(dice2). -export([d6/1]). d6(1) - random:uniform(6); d6(Numdice) - Result = [], d6(Numdice, [Result]). d6(0, [Finalresult]) - {ok, [Finalresult]}; d6(Numdice, [Result]) - d6(Numdice - 1, [random:uniform(6) | Result]). When I run the program from my console like so... dice2:d6(1). ...I get a random number between one and six like expected. However when I run the same function with any number higher than one as an argument I get the following exception... **exception error: no function clause matching dice2:d6(1, [4|3]) ... I know I I don't have a function with matching arguments but I don't know how to write a function with variable arguments, and a variable number of arguments. I tried modifying the function in question like so.... d6(Numdice, [Result]) - Newresult = [random:uniform(6) | Result], d6(Numdice - 1, Newresult). ... but I got essentially the same error. Anyone know what is going on here?

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• how to return a list using SwingWorker

  - by Ender

  I have an assignment where i have to create an Image Gallery which uses a SwingWorker to load the images froma a file, once the image is load you can flip threw the image and have a slideshow play. I am having trouble getting the list of loaded images using SwingWorker. This is what happens in the background it just publishes the results to a TextArea // In a thread @Override public List<Image> doInBackground() { List<Image> images = new ArrayList<Image>(); for (File filename : filenames) { try { //File file = new File(filename); System.out.println("Attempting to add: " + filename.getAbsolutePath()); images.add(ImageIO.read(filename)); publish("Loaded " + filename); System.out.println("Added file" + filename.getAbsolutePath()); } catch (IOException ioe) { publish("Error loading " + filename); } } return images; } } when it is done I just insert the images in a List<Image> and that is all it does. // In the EDT @Override protected void done() { try { for (Image image : get()) { list.add(image); } } catch (Exception e) { } } Also I created an method that returns the list called getImages() what I need to get is the list from getImages() but doesn't seam to work when I call execute() for example MySwingWorkerClass swingworker = new MySwingWorkerClass(log,list,filenames); swingworker.execute(); imageList = swingworker.getImage() Once it reaches the imageList it doesn't return anything the only way I was able to get the list was when i used the run() instead of the execute() is there another way to get the list or is the run() method the only way?. or perhaps i am not understanding the Swing Worker Class.

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• Serializing and deserializing a map with key as string

  - by Grace K

  Hi! I am intending to serialize and deserialize a hashmap whose key is a string. From Josh Bloch's Effective Java, I understand the following. P.222 "For example, consider the case of a harsh table. The physical representation is a sequence of hash buckets containing key-value entries. Which bucket an entry is placed in is a function of the hash code of the key, which is not, in general guaranteed to be the same from JVM implementation to JVM implementation. In fact, it isn't even guranteed to be the same from run to run on the same JVM implementation. Therefore accepting the default serialized form for a hash table would constitute a serious bug. Serializing and deserializing the hash table could yield an object whose invariants were seriously corrupt." My questions are: 1) In general, would overriding the equals and hashcode of the key class of the map resolve this issue and the map can be correctly restored? 2) If my key is a String and the String class is already overriding the hashCode() method, would I still have problem described above. (I am seeing a bug which makes me think this is probably still a problem even though the key is String with overriding hashCode.) 3)Previously, I get around this issue by serializing an array of entries (key, value) and when deserializing I would reconstruct the map. I am wondering if there is a better approach. 4) If the answers to question 1 and 2 are that I still can't be guaranteed. Could someone explain why? If the hashCodes are the same would they go to the same buckets across JVMs? Thanks, Grace

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• Web User Control og Event

  - by Mcoroklo

  I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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• Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

  - by Tony

  Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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• How do you slow down the output from a DOS / windows command prompt

  - by JW

  I have lots of experience of writing php scripts that are run in the context of a webserver and almost no epxerience of writing php scripts for CLI or GUI output. I have used the command line for linux but do not have much expereince with DOS. Lets say I have php script that is: <?php echo('Hello world'); for ($idx = 0 ; $idx < 100 ; $idx++ ) { echo 'I am line '. $idx . PHP_EOL; } Then, I run it in my DOS Command prompt: # php helloworld.php Now this will spurt out the output quckly and i have to scroll the DOS command window up to see the output. I want to see the output one 'screen full' at a time. How do you do that from the perspective of a DOS user? Furthermore, although this is not my main main question, I would be also interested in knowing how to make the php script 'wait for input' from the command prompt.

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• Why is this JLabel continuously repainting?

  - by Morinar

  I've got an item that appears to continuously repaint when it exists, causing the CPU to spike whenever it is in any of my windows. It directly inherits from a JLabel, and unlike the other JLabels on the screen, it has a red background and a border. I have NO idea why it would be different enough to continuously repaint. The callstack looks like this: Thread [AWT-EventQueue-1] (Suspended (breakpoint at line 260 in sItem)) sItem.paint(Graphics) line: 260 sItem(JComponent).paintToOffscreen(Graphics, int, int, int, int, int, int) line: 5124 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paintDoubleBuffered(JComponent, Image, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1475 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1406 RepaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1220 sItem(JComponent)._paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 5072 sItem(JComponent).paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 4882 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(Map<Component,Rectangle>) line: 803 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions() line: 714 RepaintManager.seqPaintDirtyRegions() line: 694 [local variables unavailable] SystemEventQueueUtilities$ComponentWorkRequest.run() line: 128 InvocationEvent.dispatch() line: 209 summitEventQueue(EventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 597 summitEventQueue(SummitHackableEventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 26 summitEventQueue.dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 62 EventDispatchThread.pumpOneEventForFilters(int) line: 269 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForFilter(int, Conditional, EventFilter) line: 184 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForHierarchy(int, Conditional, Component) line: 174 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(int, Conditional) line: 169 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(Conditional) line: 161 EventDispatchThread.run() line: 122 [local variables unavailable] It basically just continually hits that over and over again as fast as I can press continue. The code that is "unique" to this particular label looks approximately like this: bgColor = OurColors.clrWindowTextAlert; textColor = Color.white; setBackground(bgColor); setOpaque(true); setSize(150, getHeight()); Border border_warning = BorderFactory.createCompoundBorder( BorderFactory.createMatteBorder(1, 1, 1, 1, OurColors.clrXBoxBorder), Global.border_left_margin); setBorder(border_warning); It obviously does more, but that particular block only exists for these labels that are causing the spike/continuous repaint. Any ideas why it would keep repainting this particular label?

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• Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

  - by Neil T.

  I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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• Execute a function to affect different template class instances

  - by Samer Afach

  I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

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• Best approach for Java/Maven/JPA/Hibernate build with multiple database vendor support?

  - by HDave

  I have an enterprise application that uses a single database, but the application needs to support mysql, oracle, and sql*server as installation options. To try to remain portable we are using JPA annotations with Hibernate as the implementation. We also have a test-bed instance of each database running for development. The app is building nicely in Maven, and I've played around with the hibernate3-maven-plugin and can auto-generate DDL for a given database dialect. What is the best way to approach this so that individual developers can easily test against all three databases and our Hudson based CI server can build things propertly. More specifically: 1) I thought the hbm2ddl goal in the hibernate3-maven-plugin would just generate a schema file, but apparently it connects to a live database and attempts to create the schema. Is there a way to have this just create the schema file for each database dialect without connecting to a database? 2) If the hibernate3-maven-plug insists on actually creating the database schema, is there a way to have it drop the database and recreate it before creating the schema? 3) I am thinking that each developer (and the hudson build machine) should have their own separate database on each database server. Is this typical? 4) Will developers have to run Maven three times...once for each database vendor? If so, how do I merge the results on the build machine? 5) There is a hbm2doc goal within hibernate3-maven-plugin. It seems overkill to run this three times...I gotta believe it'd be nearly identical for each database.

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• I'm trying to grasp the concept of creating a program that uses a SQL Server database, but I'm used

  - by Sergio Tapia

  How can I make a program use a SQL Server database, and have that program work on whatever computer it's installed on. If you've been following my string of questions today, you'd know that I'm making an open source and free Help Desk suite for small and medium businesses. The client application. The client application is a Windows Forms app. On installation and first launch on every client machine, it'll ask for the address of the main Help Desk server. The server. Here I plan to handle all incoming help requests, show them to the IT guys, and provide WCF services for the Client application to consume. My dilemma lies in that, I know how to make the program run on my local machine; but I'm really stumped on how to make this work for everyone who wants to download and install the server bit on their Windows Server. Would I have to make an SQL Script and have it run on the MS SQL server when a user wants to install the 'server' application? Many thanks to all for your valuable time and effort to teach me. It's really really appreciated. :) Edit: To clarify, each business will have their server completely separate from me. I will have no access whatsoever to them nor will they be in any way connected to me. (I don't know why I should clarify this :P ) So, assuming the have ABSOLUTELY NO DATABASE SERVER installed; what can I do?

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• Adobe flex dateField

  - by JonoB

  I have some code as follows: private function onComboChange(evt:Event):void { var temp:Date = df_date.selectedDate; temp.date += 5; df_dateDue.selectedDate = new Date(temp); } In essence, I am trying to add 5 days onto the selected date in df_date, and put that date into df_dateDue. This fires off via an EventListener on a combobox. Both df_date and df_dateDue are dateFields. OK, so the first time that I run this, it works fine; df_date stays the same and df_dateDue is set to 5 days past df_date. However, the next time that I run it, df_dateDue increments by 10 days from df_date, the next time by 15, and so on. So, stepping through the code shows that somehow df_date has become linked to the temp var, and that the temp var is not resetting itself each time the function is called. Example: df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 01 Jan. Fire off the event, df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 06 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point, var temp = 06 Jan (even though df_date still shows 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 11 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point var temp = 11 Jan (even though df_date = 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 16 Jan What am I missing here?

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• Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

  - by Eric

  I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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• Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

  - by Petr Vostrel

  I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

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• setting the openCV configuration in an openGL project produce several errors

  - by GolSa

  I have a win32 solution which is set for openGL; it works well; but I want to write a function which use functions of openCV; I set the configuration for openCV for both X86 and X64;;I commented the openCV function and just to test the correctness of configuration, I run it; but when I want to run it on X64 I faced with the error below: Error 1 error C2065: 'GWL_HINSTANCE' : undeclared identifier D:\matrix\matrixProjection\src\ControllerMain.cpp 35 1 matrixProjection Error 2 error C2664: 'CreateDialogParamW' : cannot convert parameter 4 from 'BOOL (__cdecl *)(HWND,UINT,WPARAM,LPARAM)' to 'DLGPROC' D:\matrix\matrixProjection\src\DialogWindow.cpp 47 1 matrixProjection Error 2 points to this line of code: HWND DialogWindow::create() { /*-->this line*/ handle = ::CreateDialogParam(instance, MAKEINTRESOURCE(id), parentHandle, Win::dialogProcedure, (LPARAM)controller); return handle; } but on Debug Win32 configure, it runs; I used openGL32 in my project; is there any probability to be the cause? is there any X64 version for openGL? I know that there is something needed in X64 mode which my solution can not handle it; I googled a lot about it but I did not find any solution; How can I solve that?

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• Storyboard Bug - iOS 5.1 - Xcode 4.3.3

  - by user1505431

  In my iOS project (using xcode only), I continue to run into a problem where layout presented to me in the storyboard editor becomes automatically modified after some change (which I have not been able to specifically determine). The problem is as follows: The TabBarController has for whatever reason started displaying in landscape orientation. Some of the NavigationControllers have also done the same thing. I can no longer see or edit the navigation bar on my nested views. I can no longer see of edit the tab bar on the views of the resp. tab bar items. Everything works properly when I run the app in my simulator. If I had set it up prior to this change in default display settings, it still works just fine. Here is a screen shot of the problem: My storyboard has consistently presented me with this bug throughout the course of my project. I have fixed it once by resetting via git and another time by rebuilding the entire storyboard. Both solutions worked for an extended period of time, but I would rather have a permanent solution. Any input would be helpful.

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• Will Learning C++ Help for Building Fast/No-Additional-Requirements Desktop Applications?

  - by vito

  Will learning C++ help me build native applications with good speed? Will it help me as a programmer, and what are the other benefits? The reason why I want to learn C++ is because I'm disappointed with the UI performances of applications built on top of JVM and .NET. They feel slow, and start slow too. Of course, a really bad programmer can create a slower and sluggish application using C++ too, but I'm not considering that case. One of my favorite Windows utility application is Launchy. And in the Readme.pdf file, the author of the program wrote this: 0.6 This is the first C++ release. As I became frustrated with C#’s large .NET framework requirements and users lack of desire to install it, I decided to switch back to the faster language. I totally agree with the author of Launchy about the .NET framework requirement or even a JRE requirement for desktop applications. Let alone the specific version of them. And some of the best and my favorite desktop applications don't need .NET or Java to run. They just run after installing. Are they mostly built using C++? Is C++ the only option for good and fast GUI based applications? And, I'm also very interested in hearing the other benefits of learning C++.

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• Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

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