Search Results

Search found 46053 results on 1843 pages for 'thinly veiled question mark'.

Page 522/1843 | < Previous Page | 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529  | Next Page >

• Routing redirection decision

  - by programming late night

  I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

  Read the article

• Problem registering a COM server written for Excel registered on client machine (can't set full path

  - by toytrains

  In this previous question <How to get COM Server for Excel written in VB.NET installed and registered in Automation Servers list? there is an example of how to create the full path to a registry key using VS 2008. Everything in the previous answer works correctly except the full path that I am setting (using the registry editor in VS) for mscoree.dll is not working (meaning it seems to do nothing). The full registry path is: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID{my_GUID}\InprocServer32(default) and the value I am setting is: [SystemFolder]mscoree.dll I can put anything (including hardcoding the full path) but the setting does not seem to matter and the registry always contains mscoree.dll without any path. I have tried adding another value to the registry path via VS and that works correctly including having the full path as specified by [SystemFolder]. The reason I need the full path (as explained in the previous question) is that without the path, Excel generates an error when the automation server is selected as it cannot find mscoree.dll (interestingly even though I receive an error the registration works OK). I am doing the install via a setup project which otherwise works fine. I am installing on a VISTA*64 system but have gotten the same error on other OS's. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

  Read the article

• Message Handlers and the WeakReference issue

  - by user1058647

  The following message Handler works fine receiving messages from my service... private Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { Object path = message.obj; if (message.arg1 == 5 && path != null) //5 means its a single mapleg to plot on the map { String myString = (String) message.obj; Gson gson = new Gson(); MapPlot mapleg = gson.fromJson(myString, MapPlot.class); myMapView.getOverlays().add(new DirectionPathOverlay(mapleg.fromPoint, mapleg.toPoint)); mc.animateTo(mapleg.toPoint); } else { if (message.arg1 == RESULT_OK && path != null) { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this, "Service Started" + path.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this,"Service error" + String.valueOf(message.arg1), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }; }; However, even though it tests out alright in the AVD (I'm feeding it a large KML file via DDMS) the "object path = message.obj;" line has a WARNING saying "this Handler class should be static else leaks might occur". But if I say "static Handler handler = new Handler()" it won't compile complaining that I "cannot make a static reference to a non-static field myMapView. If I can't make such references, I can't do anything useful. This led me into several hours of googling around on this issue and learning more about weakReferences than I ever wanted to know. The often found reccomendation I find is that I should replace... private Handler handler = new Handler() with static class handler extends Handler { private final WeakReference<PSActivity> mTarget; handler(PSActivity target) { mTarget = new WeakReference<PSActivity>(target); } But this won't compile still complaining that I can't make a static reference to a non-dtatic field. So, my question a week or to ago was "how can I write a message handler for android so my service can send data to my activity. Even though I have working code, the question still stands with the suffix "without leaking memory". Thanks, Gary

  Read the article

• How does the receiver of a cipher text know the IV used for encryption?

  - by PatrickL

  If a random IV is used in encrypting plain text, how does the receiver of the cipher text know what the IV is in order to decrypt it? This is a follow-up question to a response to the previous stackoverflow question on IVs here. The IV allows for plaintext to be encrypted such that the encrypted text is harder to decrypt for an attacker. Each bit of IV you use will double the possibilities of encrypted text from a given plain text. The point is that the attacker doesn't know what the IV is and therefore must compute every possible IV for a given plain text to find the matching cipher text. In this way, the IV acts like a password salt. Most commonly, an IV is used with a chaining cipher (either a stream or block cipher). ... So, if you have a random IV used to encrypt the plain text, how do you decrypt it? Simple. Pass the IV (in plain text) along with your encrypted text. Wait. You just said the IV is randomly generated. Then why pass it as plain text along with the encrypted text?

  Read the article

• Inheritance and type parameters of Traversable

  - by Jesper

  I'm studying the source code of the Scala 2.8 collection classes. I have questions about the hierarchy of scala.collection.Traversable. Look at the following declarations: package scala.collection trait Traversable[+A] extends TraversableLike[A, Traversable[A]] with GenericTraversableTemplate[A, Traversable] trait TraversableLike[+A, +Repr] extends HasNewBuilder[A, Repr] with TraversableOnce[A] package scala.collection.generic trait HasNewBuilder[+A, +Repr] trait GenericTraversableTemplate[+A, +CC[X] <: Traversable[X]] extends HasNewBuilder[A, CC[A] @uncheckedVariance] Question: Why does Traversable extend GenericTraversableTemplate with type parameters [A, Traversable] - why not [A, Traversable[A]]? I tried some experimenting with a small program with the same structure and got a strange error message when I tried to change it to Traversable[A]: error: Traversable[A] takes no type parameters, expected: one I guess that the use of the @uncheckedVariance annotation in GenericTraversableTemplate also has to do with this? (That seems like a kind of potentially unsafe hack to force things to work...). Question: When you look at the hierarchy, you see that Traversable inherits HasNewBuilder twice (once via TraversableLike and once via GenericTraversableTemplate), but with slightly different type parameters. How does this work exactly? Why don't the different type parameters cause an error?

  Read the article

• Bind an Incode DataTemplate in WPF

  - by Mike Bynum

  I have a WPF Application which is using MVVM. I know that there ways of doing this in XAML but I am working on a plugin architecture and came up with a solution where a plugin exposes it's viewmodel to my plugin host's viewmodel and it's datatemplate. I want to leave the lifetime management of the plugin view up to WPF. I have tried having the plugins expose a UserControl but ran into issues when WPF decided to dispose of my UserControl so I would not reattach it without weird hacky work arounds. I am having issues getting some sort of binding working to where i can bind a control to the data and it's template to my data template. I have a ViewModel which looks something like: public class MyViewModel { public DataTemplate SelectedTemplate{ get; set;} public object SelectedViewModel {get; set;} } The selected template and viewmodel are determined somewhere else in the code but are irrelevant to my question. My question is how i can bind to a DataTemplate so that I know how to display the data shown in the SelectedViewModel. The DataTemplate is a DataTemplate created incode which respresents: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:MyViewModel}"> <v:MyUserControl /> </DataTemplate> I have tried: <UserControl Template="{Binding Path=SelectedTemplate}" Content="{Binding Path=SelectedViewModel"} /> But UserControl expects a control template and not a data template.

  Read the article

• jQuery Accordion + Anchor Tag 'stuck as block' bug?

  - by DA

  Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue. UPDATE 2: After some more playing, I've narrowed things down a bit more: the bug has nothing to do with lists. The issue is any anchor tag within a jQuery Accordion will appear as display: block (even though it appears that the CSS still indicates display: inline) the bug has nothing to do with the actual CSS that jQuery UI uses to create the accordion. I created a test page that uses the fully rendered jQuery Accordion post-processed source code and the accompanying CSS. In that situation, the anchor tags remain inline. In conclusion: It appears that the process of rendering the accordion via javascript is messing up the display of the anchor tags. It may be a show/hide issue?

  Read the article

• Make TBODY scrollable in Webkit browsers

  - by Andrew

  I'm aware of this question, but none of the answers work in Safari, Chrome, etc. The accepted strategy (as demonstrated here) is to set the tbody height and overflow properties like so: <table> <thead> <tr><th>This is the header and doesn't scroll</th></tr> </thead> <tbody style="height:100px; overflow:auto;"> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> </tbody> </table> Unfortunately, this does not work in any webkit browsers. There is a bug report about it that doesn't seem to be a high priority (reported June 05). So my question is: are there alternate strategies that do actually work? I've tried the two-table approach, but it's impossible to guarantee that the header will line up with the content. Do I just have to wait for Webkit to fix it?

  Read the article

• Catching specific vs. generic exceptions in c#

  - by Scott Vercuski

  This question comes from a code analysis run against an object I've created. The analysis says that I should catch a more specific exception type than just the basic Exception. Do you find yourself using just catching the generic Exception or attempting to catch a specific Exception and defaulting to a generic Exception using multiple catch blocks? One of the code chunks in question is below: internal static bool ClearFlags(string connectionString, Guid ID) { bool returnValue = false; SqlConnection dbEngine = new SqlConnection(connectionString); SqlCommand dbCmd = new SqlCommand("ClearFlags", dbEngine); SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(dbCmd); dbCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; try { dbCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID.ToString()); dbEngine.Open(); dbCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); dbEngine.Close(); returnValue = true; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorHandler(ex); } return returnValue; } Thank you for your advice EDIT: Here is the warning from the code analysis Warning 351 CA1031 : Microsoft.Design : Modify 'ClearFlags(string, Guid)' to catch a more specific exception than 'Exception' or rethrow the exception

  Read the article

• What is the correct stage to use for Google Guice in production in an application server?

  - by Yishai

  It seems like a strange question (the obvious answer would Production, duh), but if you read the java docs: /** * We want fast startup times at the expense of runtime performance and some up front error * checking. */ DEVELOPMENT, /** * We want to catch errors as early as possible and take performance hits up front. */ PRODUCTION Assuming a scenario where you have a stateless call to an application server, the initial receiving method (or there abouts) creates the injector new every call. If there all of the module bindings are not needed in a given call, then it would seem to have been better to use the Development stage (which is the default) and not take the performance hit upfront, because you may never take it at all, and here the distinction between "upfront" and "runtime performance" is kind of moot, as it is one call. Of course the downside of this would appear to be that you would lose the error checking, causing potential code paths to cause a problem by surprise. So the question boils down to are the assumptions in the above correct? Will you save performance on a large set of modules when the given lifetime of an injector is one call?

  Read the article

• asp.net, wcf authentication and caching

  - by andrew

  I need to place my app business logic into a WCF service. The service shouldn't be dependent on ASP.NET and there is a lot of data regarding the authenticated user which is frequently used in the business logic hence it's supposed to be cached (probably using a distributed cache). As for authentication - I'm going to use two level authentication: Front-End - forms authentication back-end (WCF Service) - message username authentication. For both authentications the same custom membership provider is supposed to be used. To cache the authenticated user data, I'm going to implement two service methods: 1) Authenticate - will retrieve the needed data and place it into the cache(where username will be used as a key) 2) SignOut - will remove the data from the cache Question 1. Is correct to perform authentication that way (in two places) ? Question 2. Is this caching strategy worth using or should I look at using aspnet compatible service and asp.net session ? Maybe, these questions are too general. But, anyway I'd like to get any suggestions or recommendations. Any Idea

  Read the article

• php form submit and the resend infromation screen

  - by Para

  Hello, I want to ask a best practice question. Suppose I have a form in php with 3 fields say name, email and comment. I submit the form via POST. In PHP I try and insert the date into the database. Suppose the insertion fails. I should now show the user an error and display the form filled in with the data he previously inserted so he can correct his error. Showing the form in it's initial state won't do. So I display the form and the 3 fields are now filled in from PHP with echo or such. Now if I click refresh I get a message saying "Are you sure you want to resend information?". OK. Suppose after I insert the data I don't carry on but I redirect to the same page but with the necessary parameters in the query string. This makes the message go away but I have to carry 3 parameters in the query string. So my question is: How is it better to do this? I want to not carry around lots of parameters in the query string but also not get that error. How can this be done? Should I use cookies to store the form information.

  Read the article

• When is the reintegrate option really necessary?

  - by Tor Hovland

  If you always sync a feature branch before you merge it back, why do you really have to use the --reintegrate option? The Subversion book says: When merging your branch back to the trunk, however, the underlying mathematics is quite different. Your feature branch is now a mishmosh of both duplicated trunk changes and private branch changes, so there's no simple contiguous range of revisions to copy over. By specifying the --reintegrate option, you're asking Subversion to carefully replicate only those changes unique to your branch. (And in fact, it does this by comparing the latest trunk tree with the latest branch tree: the resulting difference is exactly your branch changes!) So the --reintegrate option only merges the changes that are unique to the feature branch. But if you always sync before merge (which is a recommended practice, in order to deal with any conflicts on the feature branch), then the only changes between the branches are the changes that are unique to the feature branch, right? And if Subversion tries to merge code that is already on the target branch, it will just do nothing, right? In this blog post, Mark Phippard writes: http://blogs.open.collab.net/svn/2008/07/subversion-merg.html If we include those synched revisions, then we merge back changes that already exist in trunk. This yields unnecessary and confusing conflicts. Can somebody give me an example of when dropping reintegrate gives me unnecessary conflicts?

  Read the article

• Selecting a form which is in an iframe using jQuery

  - by Khnle

  I have a form inside an iframe which is inside a jQuery UI dialog box. The form contains a file input type. The jQuery UI dialog contains an Upload button. When this button is clicked, I would like to programmatically call the submit method. My question is how I could select the form which is in a iframe using jQuery. The following code should clarify the picture: <div id="upload_file_picker_dlg" title="Upload file"> <iframe id="upload_file_iframe" src="/frame_src_url" frameborder=0 width=100% scrolling=no></iframe> </div> frame_src_url contains: <form action="/UploadTaxTable" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" id="upload-form"> <p>Select a file to be uploaded:</p> <p> <input type="file" name="datafile" size="60"> </p> The jQueryUI dialog box javascript code: $('#upload_file_picker_dlg').dialog({ ... buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Upload': function() { $('#upload-form').submit(); //question is related to this line $(this).dialog('close'); } }, .... }); From the javascript code snippet above, how can I select the form with id upload-form that is in the iframe whose id is upload_file_iframe ?

  Read the article

• problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

  - by Spiderman

  in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

  Read the article

• How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

  - by Semen Semenych

  There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

  Read the article

• How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

  - by Pavan

  my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

  Read the article

• S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

  - by Ilija Tovilo

  I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

  Read the article

• How can I create global context variables in JBOSS?

  - by NobodyMan

  This is a follow-up to a question I posted a while back: "Can I use a single WAR in multiple environments?". I was able to create a single-war solution in Tomcat, but now we are migrating our app to JBoss 4.2 and I can't figure out how to set up global environment variables. In Tomcat 6 this was pretty straightforward: I simply put the following snippet in tomcat/conf/Catalina/myappname.xml: <Context ...> <Environment name="TARGET_ENV" value="DEV" type="java.lang.String" override="false"/> </Context> Then in my app I was able to resolve the environment name with the following: Context context = (Context) InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env"); String targetEnvironment = (String) context.lookup("TARGET_ENV"); The problem is that I can't find out where/how to place global variables in JBoss. I've tried putting the <Environment> tag in the following files to no avail: server/all/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml server/default/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml I know that I can put environment variables in my app's web.xml but that defeats the purpose of having a unified war - I'd still need custom .war's for dev, qa and prod. I'm a JBoss newbie so if there's any additional information that would help just let me know and I'll append to this question. Many thanks! --N

  Read the article

• I want just the insert query for a temp table.

  - by John Stephen

  Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.. Below is the set of code.. Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

  Read the article

• Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

  - by chappar

  I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

  Read the article

• Partial class or "chained inheritance"

  - by Charlie boy

  Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

  Read the article

• C# Interface Method calls from a controller

  - by ArjaaAine

  I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

  Read the article

• Chrome renders button links completely screwed up when placed inside a paragraph

  - by Ferdy

  I am fairly proficient in CSS but now I am running into a very strange rendering issue in Google Chrome 9. I am trying to create some fancy looking link buttons (basically heavily styled anchors). Here is some example markup: <a href="" class="button"> <figure class="sprite icon icon_back"></figure> Link button with icon</a> This markup may look a litte strange to you, there's a few things you should know: I am using HTML5's figure class to include an icon as part of the button. I have the proper reset CSS applied and Chrome can render this tag for sure. Instead of actually pointing to an image I am applying CSS classes to the figure element. Within the CSS I am using the spriting technique to show the correct portion of a single large sprite image. All of this is working fine in Firefox, and actually also in Chrome. The correct rendering can be seen in the following image: It renders like that in both Firefox and Chrome. Here comes the problem, if I place such a button within paragraph tags <p></p> this is what happens in Chrome only: Notice how the button is ripped apart? Only in Chrome and only when placed inside a paragraph. It gets even stranger: this only happens for the first button inside the paragraph, if I would place three buttons inside a paragraph, only the 1st one is screwed up. Your first question would probably be about the CSS. It is rather verbose so hereby a temporary link to the page in question: Edit: link to live page removed, was only temporary for problem inspection.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529  | Next Page >