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  • Using DotNetOpenAuth AccessToken for uploading docx file to google

    - by PrashantC
    Hi , I am using DotNetOpenAuth Package, I am trying to upload a package to google docs, Using client credentials i am able to do it successfully using following code, DocumentEntry objDocumentEntry = new DocumentEntry(); objDocumentsService.setUserCredentials(strUserName,strPassWord); string strAuthenticationToken = objDocumentsService.QueryAuthenticationToken(); objDocumentEntry = objDocumentsService.UploadDocument(Server.MapPath("test.docx"), "New Name"); I want achieve save with plain oAuth, I am having following code written for it, if (this.TokenManager != null) { if (!IsPostBack) { var google = new WebConsumer(GoogleConsumer.ServiceDescription, this.TokenManager); // Is Google calling back with authorization? var accessTokenResponse = google.ProcessUserAuthorization(); if (accessTokenResponse != null) { this.AccessToken = accessTokenResponse.AccessToken; } else if (this.AccessToken == null) { // If we don't yet have access, immediately request it. GoogleConsumer.RequestAuthorization(google, GoogleConsumer.Applications.DocumentsList); } } } I successfully get "AccessToken", But i am not sure how to use it.. Do we need to exchange this token? what excatly to do with this token? Is it a sessionToken? Please provide some inputs, I am badly stuck with this problem from last 3 days, Prashant C

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  • Ajax: Add new <div> from JSON with jQuery

    - by Francesc
    Hi, In a page I have this HTML code: <div id="content"> <div class="container"> <div id="author">@Francesc</div> <div id="message"Hey World!</div <div id="time"13/06/2010 11:53 GMT</div </div> <div class="container"> <div id="author">@SomeOtherUser</div> <div id="message"Bye World!</div <div id="time"13/06/2010 14:53 GMT</div </div> <div class="container"> <div id="author">@Me</div> <div id="message"Hey World!</div <div id="time"13/06/2010 18:53 GMT</div </div> </div> I want to ask, how to get a JSON file, from the server that has more recent messages and put them to the top, I mean above the first <div class="container">. Another question, it's possible to pass with GET when submiting the request to the server, the time of last update? How can I do it? Thanks.

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  • Problem with object serialization in Applet-Servlet communication

    - by Bruce
    Hi guys, I spent a lot of time on thinking what is wrong with the following code. I send the object from my applet to servlet and then I read the object from servlet. Everything goes fine till reading serialized object from the servlet - I got IOException. Thank you in advance! Here is the code: Applet: try { URL servletURL = new URL(this.getCodeBase().getProtocol(), this.getCodeBase().getHost(), this.getCodeBase().getPort(), "/MyApplet"); URLConnection servletConnection = servletURL.openConnection(); servletConnection.setDoInput( true ); servletConnection.setDoOutput( true ); servletConnection.setUseCaches( false ); servletConnection.setRequestProperty( "Content-Type", "application/x-java-serialized-object" ); ObjectOutputStream output; output = new ObjectOutputStream( servletConnection.getOutputStream( ) ); output.writeObject( someObject ); output.flush( ); output.close( ); ObjectInputStream input = new ObjectInputStream( servletConnection.getInputStream( ) ); // Here I got the exception myObject = ( SomeObject ) input.readObject( ); } catch (java.io.IOException ioe) { System.err.println(ioe.getStackTrace()); } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println(e.getStackTrace()); } Servlet: response.setContentType("application/x-java-serialized-object"); try { ObjectInputStream inputFromApplet = new ObjectInputStream(request.getInputStream()); SomeObject myObject = (SomeObject) inputFromApplet.readObject(); ObjectOutputStream outputToApplet = new ObjectOutputStream(response.getOutputStream()); outputToApplet.writeObject(myObject); outputToApplet.flush(); } catch(Exception e) { // ... }

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  • Async WebRequest Timeout Windows Phone 7

    - by Tyler
    Hi All, I'm wondering what the "right" way of timing out an HttpWebRequest is on Windows Phone7? I've been reading about ThreadPool.RegisterWaitForSingleObject() but this can't be used as WaitHandles throw a Not implemented exception at run time. I've also been looking at ManualReset events but A) Don't understand them properly and B) Don't understand how blocking the calling thread is an acceptable way to implement a time out on an Async request. Here's my existing code sans timeout, can someone please show me how I would add a timeout to this? public static void Get(Uri requestUri, HttpResponseReceived httpResponseReceivedCallback, ICredentials credentials, object userState, bool getResponseAsString = true, bool getResponseAsBytes = false) { var httpWebRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); httpWebRequest.Method = "GET"; httpWebRequest.Credentials = credentials; var httpClientRequestState = new JsonHttpClientRequestState(null, userState, httpResponseReceivedCallback, httpWebRequest, getResponseAsString, getResponseAsBytes); httpWebRequest.BeginGetResponse(ResponseReceived, httpClientRequestState); } private static void ResponseReceived(IAsyncResult asyncResult) { var httpClientRequestState = asyncResult.AsyncState as JsonHttpClientRequestState; Debug.Assert(httpClientRequestState != null, "httpClientRequestState cannot be null. Fatal error."); try { var webResponse = (HttpWebResponse)httpClientRequestState.HttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(asyncResult); } }

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  • Endianness and C API's: Specifically OpenSSL.

    - by Hassan Syed
    I have an algorithm that uses the following OpenSSL calls: HMAC_update() / HMAC_final() // ripe160 EVP_CipherUpdate() / EVP_CipherFinal() // cbc_blowfish These algorithm take a unsigned char * into the "plain text". My input data is comes from a C++ std::string::c_str() which originate from a protocol buffer object as a encoded UTF-8 string. UTF-8 strings are meant to be endian neutrial. However I'm a bit paranoid about how OpenSSL may perform operations on the data. My understanding is that encryption algorithms work on 8-bit blocks of data, and if a unsigned char * is used for pointer arithmetic when the operations are performed the algorithms should be endian neutral and I do not need to worry about anything. My uncertainty is compounded by the fact that I am working on a little-endian machine and have never done any real cross-architecture programming. My beliefs/reasoning are/is based on the following two properties std::string (not wstring) internally uses a 8-bit ptr and a the resulting c_str() ptr will itterate the same way regardless of the CPU architecture. Encryption algorithms are either by design, or by implementation, endian neutral. I know the best way to get a definitive answer is to use QEMU and do some cross-platform unit tests (which I plan to do). My question is a request for comments on my reasoning, and perhaps will assist other programmers when faced with similar problems.

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  • What is the easiest way to add compression to WCF in Silverlight?

    - by caryden
    I have a silverlight 2 beta 2 application that accesses a WCF web service. Because of this, it currently can only use basicHttp binding. The webservice will return fairly large amounts of XML data. This seems fairly wasteful from a bandwidth usage standpoint as the response, if zipped, would be smaller by a factor of 5 (I actually pasted the response into a txt file and zipped it.). The request does have the "Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate" - Is there any way have the WCF service gzip (or otherwise compress) the response? I did find this link but it sure seems a bit complex for functionality that should be handled out-of-the-box IMHO. OK - at first I marked the solution using the System.IO.Compression as the answer as I could never "seem" to get the IIS7 dynamic compression to work. Well, as it turns out: Dynamic Compression on IIS7 was working al along. It is just that Nikhil's Web Developer Helper plugin for IE did not show it working. My guess is that since SL hands the web service call off to the browser, that the browser handles it "under the covers" and Nikhil's tool never sees the compressed response. I was able to confirm this by using Fiddler which monitors traffic external to the browser application. In fiddler, the response was, in fact, gzip compressed!! The other problem with the System.IO.Compression solution is that System.IO.Compression does not exist in the Silverlight CLR. So from my perspective, the EASIEST way to enable WCF compression in Silverlight is to enable Dynamic Compression in IIS7 and write no code at all.

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  • Doing without partial commits the "Mercurial way"

    - by David Moles
    Subversion shop considering switching to Mercurial, trying to figure out in advance what all the complaints from developers are going to be. There's one fairly common use case here that I can't see how to handle. I'm working on some largish feature, and I have a significant part of the code -- or possibly several significant parts of the code -- in pieces all over the garage floor, totally unsuitable for checkin, maybe not even compiling. An urgent bugfix request comes in. The fix is nice and local and doesn't touch any of the code I've been working on. I make the fix in my working copy. Now what? I've looked at "Mercurial cherry picking changes for commit" and "best practices in mercurial: branch vs. clone, and partial merges?" and all the suggestions seem to be extensions of varying complexity, from Record and Shelve to Queues. The fact that there apparently isn't any core functionality for this makes me suspect that in some sense this working style is Doing It Wrong. What would a Mercurial-like solution to this use case look like?

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  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

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  • How to send XML and other post parameters via cURL in PHP

    - by tomaszs
    Hello. I've used code below to send XML to my REST API. $xml_string_data contains proper XML, and it is passed well to mypi.php: //set POST variables $url = 'http://www.server.cu/mypi.php'; $fields = array( 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); //url-ify the data for the POST $fields_string = ""; foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); echo $fields_string; //open connection $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER,array ( "Expect: " )); //execute post $result = @curl_exec($ch); But when I've added other field: $fields = array( 'method' => "methodGoPay", 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); It stopped to work. On the mypi.php I don't recieve any more POST parameters at all! Could you you please tell me what to do to send XML and other post parameters in one cURL request? Please don't suggest using any libraries, I wan't to acomplish it in plain PHP.

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  • jquery .on() toggle div

    - by lollo
    i'm developing a blog with dynamic content loaded via ajax request and i'm trying to hide/show the "post comment" form, of the article, with a button : <div id="post"> ... <ol id="update" class="timeline"> <!-- comments here --> </ol> <button class="mybutton Bhome">Commenta</button><!-- hide/show button --> <div class="mycomment"><!-- div to hide/show --> <form action="#" method="post"> Nome: <input type="text" size="12" id="name" /><br /> Email: <input type="text" size="12" id="email" /><br /> <textarea rows="10" cols="50" class="mytext" id="commentArea"></textarea><br /> <input type="submit" class="Bhome" value=" Post " /> </form> </div><!-- mycomment --> </div><!-- post --> This jquery code works well but has effect on All the posts... $("div").on("click", ".mybutton", function(e){ $(".mycomment").slideToggle("slow"); e.stopPropagation(); }); I want that only the clicked hide/show button has effect on the related article but f i have more than one article on my page the button with .mybutton class hides or shows all the comment form of all the articles.

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • How to keep confirmation messages after POST while doing a post-submit redirect?

    - by MicE
    Hello, I'm looking for advise on how to share certain bits of data (i.e. post-submit confirmation messages) between individual requests in a web application. Let me explain: Current approach: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, user is shown a confirmation with links to: submit a new resource (for "add" form) view the submitted/edited resource view all resources (one step above in hierarchy) user then has to click on one of the three links to proceed (i.e. to the page "above") Progmatically, the form and its confirmation page are one set of classes. The page above that is another. They can technically share code, but at the moment they are both independent during processing of individual requests. We would like to amend the above as follows: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, the user is redirected to the page with all resources (one step above in hierarchy) with one or more confirmation messages displayed at the top of the page (i.e. success message, to whom was the request assigned, etc) This will: save users one click (they have to go through a lot of these add/edit forms) the post-submit redirect will address common problems with browser refresh / back-buttons What approach would you recommend for sharing data needed for the confirmation messages between the two requests, please? I'm not sure if it helps, it's a PHP application backed by a RESTful API, but I think that this is a language-agnostic question. A few simple solutions that come to mind are to share the data via cookies or in the session, this however breaks statelessness and would pose a significant problem for users who work in several tabs (the data could clash together). Passing the data as GET parameters is not suitable as we are talking about several messages which are dynamic (e.g. changing actors, dates). Thanks, M.

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • .htacces Rewrite Rule to Keep .php File Extensions

    - by user2672112
    I'm upgrading my static website that had .php extensions on the content pages. I've created my own simple cms which will start retrieving data from mysql database from now on, keeping the url structure same as the old once. The cms has get function to retrieve url structure from the database. Overall it started working fine with .html when i tested. But when i change the .html extension to .php in my .htaccess code the content pages starts reflecting "Internal Server Error. The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request." Here is my .htaccess code which i've used: RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).php$ content.php?pid=$1 Perhaps there is a conflict, here is the code with .html extension that actually works fine. RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).html$ content.php?pid=$1 So basically, content pages with .html are working & .php are not working. But i need my content pages to be with .php Please help. Thanks in advance... :)

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  • Listen to Response on HTML Form embedded in GWT View?

    - by confile
    I have a HTML like the following: <div> <form> <input type="text" /> <button class="sendForm" value="Send form" /> </form> </div> <script> // post the form with Jquery post // register a callback that handles the response </script> I use this type of form a lot with a JavaScript/JQuery overlay that displays the form. That could be handled for example with plugins like FancyBox. I also want to use this form embedded into a GWT view. Lets assume that the for cannot be created on client side because it has some server based markup language inside to set up some model data. If I want to use this form in GWT I have to do the following. Tell GWT the form request url and use a RequestBuilder to query the html content of this form. Then I can insert it into a div generated by GWT. So far so good. Problem: When the user hits the send button the response is handled my the JQuery callback that is inside the script under the form. Is there a way to access this callback from within GWT? Is there a way to overwrite the JQuery send action? Since, the code is HTML and comes from the server I cannot place ui-binder UiFields inside to get access to these DOM elements. I need to get the response if the submitted form accessible to GWT. Is there a way how I can achieve this with JSNI?

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  • Need some help understanding this problem

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

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  • How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

    - by AngryHacker
    I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

    - by Budda
    I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something?

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  • Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

    - by Ev
    Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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  • Resource mapping in a Ruby on Rails URL (RESTful API)

    - by randombits
    I'm having a bit of difficulty coming up with the right answer to this, so I will solicit my problem here. I'm working on a RESTFul API. Naturally, I have multiple resources, some of which consist of parent to child relationships, some of which are stand alone resources. Where I'm having a bit of difficulty is figuring out how to make things easier for the folks who will be building clients against my API. The situation is this. Hypothetically I have a 'Street' resource. Each street has multiple homes. So Street :has_many to Homes and Homes :belongs_to Street. If a user wants to request an HTTP GET on a specific home resource, the following should work: http://mymap/streets/5/homes/10 That allows a user to get information for a home with the id 10. Straight forward. My question is, am I breaking the rules of the book by giving the user access to: http://mymap/homes/10 Technically that home resource exists on its own without the street. It makes sense that it exists as its own entity without an encapsulating street, even though business logic says otherwise. What's the best way to handle this?

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