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  • Why can't I pipe the output of uuencode to mailx in a single Perl open statement?

    - by CheeseConQueso
    Here's my code that is not working: print "To: "; my $to=<>; chomp $to; print "From: "; my $from=<>; chomp $from; print "Attach: "; my $attach=<>; chomp $attach; print "Subject: "; my $subject=<>; chomp $subject; print "Message: "; my $message=<>; chomp $message; my $mail_fh = \*MAIL; open $mail_fh, "uuencode $attach $attach |mailx -m -s \"$subject\" -r $from $to"; print $mail_fh $message; close($mail_fh); The mailx command works fine off the command line, but not in this Perl script context. Any idea what I'm missing? I suspect that this line's format/syntax: open $mail_fh, "uuencode $attach $attach |mailx -m -s \"$subject\" -r $from $to"; is the culprit.

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  • Custom UIView using CALayers disappears after 180º rotation or navigation controller pop

    - by Steve Madsen
    I have a created a custom UIView subclass that is exhibiting some strange behavior. It is a spinning wheel selector, and for performance reasons it is drawn entirely into two CALayer instances. The bottom layer is the wheel itself, which is rotated using setAffineTransform: according to touches. The top layer is eye candy. drawRect: is fairly simple. If the control hasn't been drawn yet (or it's been invalidated), it calls a method that creates the images and assigns them to the layer contents property. - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { if (imageLayer == nil) { [self drawIntoImageLayer]; } [self updateWheelRotation]; } When the view controller using this view first appears, everything is fine. There are two instances where the view completely disappears, however: If the device is rotated a full 180°. After a view controller is popped off the navigation stack and the view becomes visible again. drawRect: is not called either time. Interestingly enough, it IS called after a 90° orientation change, and that causes the view to re-appear. How can I ensure that a custom view using CALayers is redrawn properly in these situations?

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  • Need events to execute on timer events, metronome precision.

    - by user295734
    I setup a timer to call an event in my application. The problme is the event execution is being skewed by other windows operations. Ex. openning and window, loading a webpage. I need the event to excute exactly on time, every time. When i first set up the app, used a sound file, like a metronome to listen to the even firing, in a steady state, its firing right on, but as soon do something in the windows environment, the sound fires slower, then sort of sppeds up a bit to catch up. So i added a logging method to the event to ctahc the timer ticks. From that data, it appears that the timer is not being affected by the windows app, but my application event calls are being affected. I figured this out by checking the datetime.now in the event, and if i set it to 250 milliseconds, which is 4 clicks per second. You get data something like below. (sec):(ms) 1:000 1:250 1:500 1:750 2:000 2:250 2:500 2:750 3:000 3:250 3:500 3:750 (lets say i execute some windows event)(time will skew) 4:122 4:388 4:600 4:876 (stop doing what i was doing in windows) (going to shorten the data for simplicit, my list was 30sec long) 5:124 5:268 5:500 5:750 (you would se the time go back the same milliseconds it was at the begining) 6:000 6:250 6:500 6:750 7:000 7:250 7:500 7:750 So i'm thinking the timer continues to fire on the same millisecond every time, but its the event that is being skewed to fire off time by other windows operations. Its not a huge skew, but for what i need to accomplish, its unacceptable. Is there anyhting i can do in .NET, hoping to use XAML/WPF application, thats will correct the skewing of events? thx.

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  • UITableView Section Headers Drawing Above Front Subview

    - by hadronzoo
    I have a UITableView whose data have sections. I display an overlay view on top of tableView that dims it when searching: - (UIView *)blackOverlay { if (!blackOverlay) { blackOverlay = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[self overlayFrame]]; blackOverlay.alpha = 0.75; blackOverlay.backgroundColor = UIColor.blackColor; [tableView insertSubview:blackOverlay aboveSubview:self.parentViewController.view]; } return blackOverlay; } This works perfectly as long as tableView does not contain sections. When tableView does contain sections and the tableView updates (such as when the view reappears after popping a view off of the navigation controller stack), the section headers are rendered above blackOverlay. This leaves tableView dimmed except for the section headers. I've tried calling [tableView bringSubviewToFront:self.blackOverlay] from within viewWillAppear:, but I get the same behavior. My current work-around is returning nil for tableView section headers while the overlay is present, but this leaves whitespace gaps in the overlaid tableView where the section headers were previously. How can I insure that tableView section headers are never drawn above blackOverlay? Or, is it possible to create a view in front of tableView from within a UITableViewController subclass that is not a subview of tableView?

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  • Java - Custom PropertyEditorSupport to display units

    - by I82Much
    All, I'm trying to make the properties of my node have Units associated with the measure. ( I am using the JScience.org implementation of JSR 275) So for instance, public class Robot extends AbstractNode { // in kg float vehicleMass; @Override public Sheet createSheet() { Sheet s = Sheet.createDefault(); Sheet.Set set = s.createPropertiesSet(); try { PropertySupport.Reflection vehicleMassField = new PropertySupport.Reflection(this, float.class, "vehicleMass"); vehicleMassField.setValue("units", SI.KILOGRAMS); vehicleMassField.setName("vehicleMass"); set.put(vehicleMassField); PropertyEditorManager.registerEditor(float.class, UnitInPlaceEditor.class); } catch (NoSuchMethodException ex) { Exceptions.printStackTrace(ex); } s.put(set); return s; } } I want my UnitInPlaceEditor to append the units to the end of the string representation of the number, and when the field is clicked (enters edit mode) for the units to disappear and just the number becomes selected for editing. I can make the units appear, but I cannot get the units to disappear when the field enters editing mode. public class UnitsInplaceEditor extends PropertyEditorSupport implements ExPropertyEditor { private PropertyEnv pe; @Override public String getAsText() { // Append the unit by retrieving the stored value } @Override public void setAsText(String s) { // strip off the unit, parse out the number } public void attachEnv(PropertyEnv pe) { this.pe = pe; } } Here's a screenshot of the display - I like it like this.. but here's the value being edited; note the unit stays there. Basically I want one value (string) to be displayed in the field when the field is NOT being edited, and a different to be displayed when user starts editing the field. Barring that, I'd like to put a constant jlabel for the units (uneditable) to the right of the text field. Anyone know how to do this?

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  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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  • Strange File Upload issue with asp.net site on a web farm

    - by Coov
    I have a basic asp.net file upload page. When I test file uploads from my local machine, it works fine. When I test file uploads from our dev machine, it works fine. When I deploy the site to our production webfarm, it behaves strangely. If I access the site from off the network, I can load file-after-file without issue. If I access the site from within our network, I can load the first file just fine but any subsequent files result it a bad sequence of commands error. I'm not sure if this is web farm issue, a network issue, or something else. It feels like a connection is not being disposed of properly but it doesn't make sense why everything works fine remotely. Markup: <asp:FileUpload ID="FileUpload1" runat="server" Width="350px" /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Upload" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> Code: if (FileUpload1.HasFile) { FtpWebRequest ftpRequest; FtpWebResponse ftpResponse; ftpRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri("ftp://ftp.myftpsite.com/" + FileUpload1.FileName)); ftpRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; ftpRequest.Proxy = null; ftpRequest.UseBinary = true; ftpRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); ftpRequest.KeepAlive = false; byte[] fileContents = new byte[FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength]; using (Stream fr = FileUpload1.PostedFile.InputStream) { fr.Read(fileContents, 0, FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength); } using (Stream writer = ftpRequest.GetRequestStream()) { writer.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); } ftpResponse = (FtpWebResponse)ftpRequest.GetResponse(); Response.Write(ftpResponse.StatusDescription); }

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  • Virtual properties duplicated during serialization when XmlElement attribute used

    - by Laramie
    The Goal: XML serialize an object that contains a list of objects of that and its derived types. The resulting XML should not use the xsi:type attribute to describe the type, to wit the names of the serialized XML elements would be an assigned name specific to the derived type, not always that of the base class, which is the default behavior. The Attempt: After exploring IXmlSerializable and IXmlSerializable with eerie XmlSchemaProvider methods and voodoo reflection to return specialized schemas and an XmlQualifiedName over the course of days, I found I was able to use the simple [XmlElement] attribute to accomplish the goal... almost. The Problem: Overridden properties appear twice when serializing. The exception reads "The XML element 'overriddenProperty' from namespace '' is already present in the current scope. Use XML attributes to specify another XML name or namespace for the element." I attempted using a *Specified property (see code), but it didn't work. Sample Code: Class Declaration using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlInclude(typeof(DerivedClass))] public class BaseClass { public BaseClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public virtual string Virtual { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public bool VirtualSpecified { get { return (this is BaseClass); } set { } } [XmlElement(ElementName = "B", Type = typeof(BaseClass), IsNullable = false)] [XmlElement(ElementName = "D", Type = typeof(DerivedClass), IsNullable = false)] public List<BaseClass> Children { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public DerivedClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public override string Virtual { get { return "always return spackle"; } set { } } } Driver: BaseClass baseClass = new BaseClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; BaseClass baseClass2 = new BaseClass(){}; DerivedClass derivedClass1 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; DerivedClass derivedClass2 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass1); baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass2); derivedClass1.Children.Add(baseClass2); I've been wrestling with this on and off for weeks and can't find the answer anywhere.

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  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

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  • Access ADP - For/Against?

    - by webworm
    I have been tasked with taking an Access 97 application and moving the back-end data to SQL Server while moving the front end to Access 2003 (using Access Data Projects). In the process of this migration the back-end data structures will be changed significantly to support new functionality. If I had my wish we would not be using Access as the front end. I think our application would be much better served by WinForms, WPF, or a web application. We have the time needed to properly plan a business logic layer and implement an excellent solution but powers above me want to stay with Access because that is what they are familiar with. What I could use help with is pros/cons of continuing down this path of Access development. What are some legitimate arguments for and against using Access 2003? Here is what I have come up with so far. Pro Access: Already own Access 2003 licenses Easy GUI development Reports look nice Against Access Having to use VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) ADO vs DAO. Didn't Microsoft change things from Access 2002 to Access 2003? Not tied to Access runtime Choice in front end (WPF, WinForms, even ASP.NET) Maintainability True separation of logic from UI not possible Does Microsoft still support Access ADP? Perhaps there are other issues I am not aware off both for and against Access for application development. I am trying to keep an open mind while at the same time trying to maintain my sanity. I have been using C# since .NET was released and the thought of going back to VBA for six months makes my head hurt. Especially when I feel I could offer so much more if allowed to develop with modern languages and tools?

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  • static block instance block java Order

    - by Rollerball
    Having read this question In what order are the different parts of a class initialized when a class is loaded in the JVM? and the related JLS. I would like to know in more detail why for example having class Animal (superclass) and class Dog (subclass) as following: class Animal { static{ System.out.println("This is Animal's static block speaking"): } { System.out.println("This is Animal's instance block speaking"); } class Dog{ static{ System.out.println("This is Dog's static block speaking"); } { System.out.println("This is Dog's instance block speaking"); } public static void main (String [] args) { Dog dog = new Dog(); } } Ok before instantiating a class its direct superclass needs to be initialized (therefore all the statics variables and block need to be executed). So basically the question is: Why after initializing the static variables and static blocks of the super class, control goes down to the subclass for static variables initialization rather then finishing off the initialization of also the instance member? The control goes like: superclass (Animal): static variables and static blocks subclass (Dog): static variables and static blocks superclass (Animal): instance variables and instance blocks sublcass (Dog):instance variables and instance blocks What is the reason why it is in this way rather than : superclass -> static members superclass -> instance members subclass -> static members sublcass-> instance members

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  • Converting a pointer for a base class into an inherited class

    - by Shawn B
    Hey, I'm working on a small roguelike game, and for any object/"thing" that is not a part of the map is based off an XEntity class. There are several classes that depend on it, such as XPlayer, XItem, and XMonster. My problem is, that I want to convert a pointer from XEntity to XItem when I know that an object is in item. The sample code I am using to pick up an item is this, it is when a different entity picks up an item it is standing over. void XEntity::PickupItem() { XEntity *Ent = MapList; // Start of a linked list while(true) { if(Ent == NULL) { break; } if(Ent->Flags & ENT_ITEM) { Ent->RemoveEntity(); // Unlink from the map's linked list XItem *Item = Ent // Problem is here, type-safety // Code to link into inventory is here break; } Ent = Ent->MapList; } } My first thought was to create a method in XEntity that returns itself as an XItem pointer, but it creates circular dependencies that are unresolvable. I'm pretty stumped about this one. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Controls added in the designer are null during Page_Load

    - by mwright
    All of the names below are generic and not the actual names used. I have a custom UserControl with a Panel that contains a a couple Labels, both .aspx controls. .aspx: <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label1" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label2" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> Codebehind: private readonly Object object; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // These are the lines that are failing // label1 and label2 are null label1.Text = object.Value1; label2.Text = object.Value2; } public ObjectRow(Object objectToDisplay) { object = objectToDisplay; } On another page, in the code behind, I create a new instance of the custom user control. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { CustomControl control = new CustomControl(object); } The user control takes the parameter and attempts to set the labels based off of the object passed in. The labels that it tries to assign the values to are however, null. Is this an ASP.net lifecycle issue that I'm not understanding? My understanding based on the Microsoft ASP.net lifecycle page was that page controls were available after the Page_Initialization. What is the proper way to do this? Is there a better way?

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  • Treetop basic parsing and regular expression usage

    - by ucint
    I'm developing a script using the ruby Treetop library and having issues working with its syntax for regex's. First off, many regular expressions that work in other settings dont work the same in treetop. This is my grammar: (myline.treetop) grammar MyLine rule line string whitespace condition end rule string [\S]* end rule whitespace [\s]* end rule condition "new" / "old" / "used" end end This is my usage: (usage.rb) require 'rubygems' require 'treetop' require 'polyglot' require 'myline' parser = MyLineParser.new p parser.parse("randomstring new") This should find the word new for sure and it does! Now I wont to extend it so that it can find new if the input string becomes "randomstring anotherstring new yetanother andanother" and possibly have any number of strings followed by whitespace (tab included) before and after the regex for rule condition. In other words, if I pass it any sentence with the word "new" etc in it, it should be able to match it. So let's say I change my grammar to: rule line string whitespace condition whitespace string end Then, it should be able to find a match for: p parser.parse("randomstring new anotherstring") So, what do I have to do to allow the string whitespace to be repeated before and after condition? If I try to write this: rule line (string whitespace)* condition (whitespace string)* end , it goes in an infinite loop. If i replace the above () with [], it returns nil In general, regex's return a match when i use the above, but treetop regex's dont. Does anyone have any tips/points on how to go about this? Plus, since there isn't much documentation for treetop and the examples are either too trivial or too complex, is there anyone who knows a more thorough documentation/guide for treetop?

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  • Array Recursion

    - by GeeYouAreYou
    I've got an assignment I can't figure out, any pointers will be much appreciated, it goes like so: There's a series of light bulbs represented as an array of true/false, there's a switch for every light bulb, by clicking it for any light bulb, you toggle it as well as 2 adjacent ones (1 from left & another 1 from right; if clicked switch's bulb on edge -- only 1 adjacent toggled of course). What is needed to accomplish is a method that accepts an array of a series of turned on/off light bulbs and another one representing another state of supposedly the 1st array after some switches have been clicked..! So recursion must be used to find out whether there's a combination of switch clicks that will transform array 1 to array 2. Here's the signature of the method: public static boolean disco(boolean[] init, boolean[] target) Will return true if array init can be transformed to target, false otherwise. Method must be static and not use any other static and global variables, only local. Example: boolean[] init = {true, false, true, false, true, false}; boolean[] target = {false, true, false, true, false, true}; For above 2 arrays, disco(init, target) will return true because toggling the 1st and 4th bulbs would yield the target state (remember adjacent bulbs being toggled as well). Any help much appreciated..!!

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  • as3 tracking number value of variables

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hi, I have a bunch an as3 game going. In my game when newCrag hits egg_mc the score gets added. // Add the score var newScore:score_mc; newScore = new score_mc(); addChild(newScore); newScore.x = 20; newScore.y = 20; newScore.score_txt.text='0/15'; var score:Number=0; function getEggs(event:Event):void { if(event.target.hitTestObject(MovieClip(root).newCrag) && event.target is egg_mc) { sndEgg.play(); if(event.target.stage) { event.target.parent.removeChild(event.target); } // Increase score score++; newScore.score_txt.text = "" + score + '/15'; } } I am trying to refer to the number value of the score using if statements. I need to change the speed variables based off the number that is inside the score box. var speed:Number if(score > 10 || score == 10) { speed=20; trace("speed3"); } else if(score > 5 || score == 5 && score < 10) { speed=18; trace("speed2"); } else { speed=14; trace("speed1"); } However, this part of the code is not working. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks, Wade

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  • What are practical guidelines for evaluating a language's "Turing Completeness"?

    - by AShelly
    I've read "what-is-turing-complete" and the wikipedia page, but I'm less interested in a formal proof than in the practical implications of being Turing Complete. What I'm actually trying to decide is if the toy language I've just designed could be used as a general-purpose language. I know I can prove it is if I can write a Turing machine with it. But I don't want to go through that exercise until I'm fairly certain of success. Is there a minimum set of features without which Turing Completeness is impossible? Is there a set of features which virtually guarantees completeness? (My guess is that conditional branching and a readable/writeable memory store will get me most of the way there) EDIT: I think I've gone off on a tangent by saying "Turing Complete". I'm trying to guess with reasonable confidence that a newly invented language with a certain feature set (or alternately, a VM with a certain instruction set) would be able to compute anything worth computing. I know proving you can building a Turing machine with it is one way, but not the only way. What I was hoping for was a set of guidelines like: "if it can do X,Y,and Z, it can probably do anything".

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  • Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

    - by John Galt
    On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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  • Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

    - by user304361
    I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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  • Moving a large number of files in one directory to multiple directories

    - by Axsuul
    I am looking to create a Windows batch script to move about 2,000 files and splitting them up so that there are 10 files per folder. I have attempted creating a batch script but the syntax really boggles my mind. Here is what I have so far @echo off :: Config parameters set /a groupsize = 10 :: initial counter, everytime counter is 1, we create new folder set /a n = 1 :: folder counter set /a nf = 1 for %%f in (*.txt) do ( :: if counter is 1, create new folder if %n% == 1 ( md folder%nf% set /a n += 1 ) :: move file into folder mv -Y %%f folder%nf%\%%f :: reset counter if larger than group size if %n% == %groupsize% ( set /a n = 1 ) else ( set /a n += 1 ) ) pause Basically what this script does is loop through each .txt file in the directory. It creates a new directory in the beginning and moves 10 files into that directory, then creates a new folder again and moves another 10 files into that directory, and so on. However, I'm having problems where the n variable is not being incremented in the loop? I'm sure there's other errors too since the CMD window closes on me even with pause. Any help or guidance is appreciated, thanks for your time!

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  • Designing secure consumer blackberry application

    - by Kiran Kuppa
    I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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  • Working for free

    - by truncate
    Finances are making me take an extended period off of my college education. In my current state, I don't feel fully qualified to be employed by an iPhone software company. While I work on getting things back together, I'd like to try an work for a software company for free in my local area (I'm going to college out of state and have to move back as well). The economy has forced employers to be very picky about who they hire, if any at all. Since I'd like to continue refining my abilities, I was wondering on what the consensus is on working for free. It can't be considered an internship, as I would no longer be in school..., I guess an apprenticeship is more appropriate. Like I said, I don't think I'm qualified to be paid for my services, and I don't want to be. I just don't know how to ask, or if it's even appropriate to ask them to show me how to develop software in the real world. My thinking is that they would be willing to get some work done for free and if I prove myself, they could hire me. If not, there was no major loss. They get some free development, and lose a bit of time helping show me the ropes. I get either a job, or valuable experience that I need. The other alternative is that I try to work out things by myself on the iPhone platform, but that sounds terrifying. I appreciate any input the community has to offer.

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  • JavaScript problems in one IIS server but not another

    - by DanyW
    Hi everyone, I have a problem that only occurs in one environment. On this particular page, somewhere in the top half of the element, an array is created and populated. This is later used in the onfocus event handlers of various controls. I use Firebug to debug the page and discovered the problem. In our dev environment the array is indeed created and populated. In our staging environment this block of script is not executed! I put a break point where the array is instantiated and it's never hit in staging, but is hit in dev. I'm really puzzled what aspects of the two environments can possibly affect this? We use aptimize on the staging box but it has been turned off for this particular website. I compared the page sources and they're identical! The only difference is bits of content since they are served by a CMS. Any ideas please? I'm quite stuck on this. Cheers, Dany.

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  • Is there a java library / package analogous to <stdio.h>?

    - by Roboprog
    I have been doing Java on and off for about 14 years, and almost nothing else the last 6 years or so. I really hate the java.io package -- its legion of subclasses and adapters. I do like exceptions, rather than having to always poll "errno" and the like, but I could surely live without declared exceptions. Is there anything that functions like the Unix/ANSI stdio.h routines in C? I know we will never be rid of java.io and its conventions until java itself is retired, as they have metastasized throughout the many frameworks that have accreted to java. That said, I would like something that works kind of like this (let's call it package javax.stdio): Have a main utility class, perhaps FileStar, that can read and write files (or pipes), either text or binary, either sequentially or random access, with constructors that mimic fopen() and popen(). This class should have a load of useful methods that do things like fread(), fwrite(), fgets(), fputs(), fseek(), and whatever else (fprintf()?). Methods that are incompatible with the open/construct mode simply throw up (just like some of the collections classes/methods do when restricted). Then, have a bunch of interfaces that suggest how you intend to use the stream once you have created it: Sequential, RandomAccess, ReadOnly, WriteOnly, Text, Binary, plus combinations of these that make sense. Perhaps even have methods to return the appropriate type-cast (interface), throwing up if you have asked for something incompatible. For extra flavor, skip the declared exceptions -- e.g. - javax.stdio.IOException extends RuntimeException. Is there an open source project like this floating around?

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  • Apache CXF REST Services w/ Spring AOP

    - by jconlin
    I'm trying to get Apache CXF JAX-RS services working with Spring AOP. I've created a simple logging class: public class AOPLogger{ public void logBefore(){ System.out.println("Logging Before!"); } } My Spring configuration (beans.xml): <aop:config> <aop:aspect id="aopLogger" ref="test.aop.AOPLogger"> <aop:before method="logBefore" pointcut="execution(* test.rest.RestService(..))"/> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> <bean id="aopLogger" class="test.aop.AOPLogger"/> I always get an NPE in RestService when a call is made to a Method getServletRequest(), which has: return messageContext.getHttpServletRequest(); If I remove the aop configuration or comment it out from my beans.xml, everything works fine. All of my actual Rest services extend test.rest.RestService (which is a class) and call getServletRequest(). I'm just trying to just get AOP up and running based off of the example in the CXF JAX-RS documentation. Does anyone have any idea what I'm doing wrong? Thanks!

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