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  • Delphi7 - How can i copy a file that is being written to

    - by Simon
    I have an application that logs information to a daily text file every second on a master PC. A Slave PC on the network using the same application would like to copy this text file to its local drive. I can see there is going to be file access issues. These files should be no larger than 30-40MB each. the network will be 100MB ethernet. I can see there is potential for the copying process to take longer than 1 second meaning the logging PC will need to open the file for writing while it is being read. What is the best method for the file writing(logging) and file copying procedures? I know there is the standard Windows CopyFile() procedure, however this has given me file access problems. There is also TFileStream using the fmShareDenyNone flag, but this also very occasionally gives me an access problem too (like 1 per week). What is this the best way of accomplishing this task? My current File Logging: procedure FSWriteline(Filename,Header,s : String); var LogFile : TFileStream; line : String; begin if not FileExists(filename) then begin LogFile := TFileStream.Create(FileName, fmCreate or fmShareDenyNone); try LogFile.Seek(0,soFromEnd); line := Header + #13#10; LogFile.Write(line[1],Length(line)); line := s + #13#10; LogFile.Write(line[1],Length(line)); finally logfile.Free; end; end else begin line := s + #13#10; Logfile:=tfilestream.Create(Filename,fmOpenWrite or fmShareDenyNone); try logfile.Seek(0,soFromEnd); Logfile.Write(line[1], length(line)); finally Logfile.free; end; end; end; My file copy procedure: procedure DoCopy(infile, Outfile : String); begin ForceDirectories(ExtractFilePath(outfile)); //ensure folder exists if FileAge(inFile) = FileAge(OutFile) then Exit; //they are the same modified time try { Open existing destination } fo := TFileStream.Create(Outfile, fmOpenReadWrite or fmShareDenyNone); fo.Position := 0; except { otherwise Create destination } fo := TFileStream.Create(OutFile, fmCreate or fmShareDenyNone); end; try { open source } fi := TFileStream.Create(InFile, fmOpenRead or fmShareDenyNone); try cnt:= 0; fi.Position := cnt; max := fi.Size; {start copying } Repeat dod := BLOCKSIZE; // Block size if cnt+dod>max then dod := max-cnt; if dod>0 then did := fo.CopyFrom(fi, dod); cnt:=cnt+did; Percent := Round(Cnt/Max*100); until (dod=0) finally fi.free; end; finally fo.free; end; end;

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  • Insert text into a div from a poput form and rewrite the inserted text with javascript

    - by kuswantin
    So I read some related questions here before I asked, but can't find the answer to my problem. Hope some javascript master here can find this and bring the light to me. I created another button for nicEdit, a video button and wanted to insert some formatted text into the editor DIV (note: nicEdit has inline DIV, no iframe, no textarea). This is my button, recreated from the image button: var nicVideoOptions = { buttons : { 'video' : {name : __('Insert Video'), type : 'nicEditorVideoButton'} //, tags : ['VIDEO:'] }, iconFiles : {'video' : '../movie.png'} }; var nicEditorVideoButton = nicEditorAdvancedButton.extend({ addPane : function() { this.vi = this.ne.selectedInstance.selElm().parentTag('A'); this.addForm({ '' : {type : 'title', txt : 'Insert Video URL'}, 'href' : {type : 'text', txt : 'URL', 'value' : 'http://', style : {width: '150px'}} },this.vi); }, submit : function(e) { var vidVal = this.inputs['href'].value; if(vidVal == "" || vidVal == "http://") { alert("Enter the video url"); return false; } this.removePane(); if(!this.vi) { var tmp = 'javascript:nicVidTemp();'; this.ne.nicCommand("insertVideo",tmp); // still nothing works //this.vi = this.findElm('VIDEO:','href',tmp); //this.vi = this.setContent('[video:' + this.inputs['href'].value + ']'); //nicEditors.findEditor('edit-comment').setContent('<strong>Some HTML</strong> here'); //this.vi = this.setContent('<strong>Some HTML</strong> here'); insertAtCaret(this.ne.selectedInstance, vidVal); } if(this.vi) { // still nothing works //this.vi.setAttributes({ //vidVal : this.inputs['href'].value //}); //this.vi = this.setContent('[video:' + this.inputs['href'].value + ']'); //this.vi = this.setContent('<strong>Some HTML</strong> here'); } } }); nicEditors.registerPlugin(nicPlugin,nicVideoOptions); The button is there, the form poput like the image button, so it's okay. But can't insert the text into the DIV. The final output will be taken from this: ('[video:' + this.inputs['href'].value + ']') and displayed in the editor DIV as is: [video:http//some.com/video-url] As you see, I am blindly touching everything :) And this insertion is taken from: http://www.scottklarr.com/topic/425/how-to-insert-text-into-a-textarea-where-the-cursor-is/ function insertAtCaret(areaId,text) { var txtarea = document.getElementById(areaId); var scrollPos = txtarea.scrollTop; var strPos = 0; var br = ((txtarea.selectionStart || txtarea.selectionStart == '0') ? "ff" : (document.selection ? "ie" : false ) ); if (br == "ie") { txtarea.focus(); var range = document.selection.createRange(); range.moveStart ('character', -txtarea.value.length); strPos = range.text.length; } else if (br == "ff") strPos = txtarea.selectionStart; var front = (txtarea.value).substring(0,strPos); var back = (txtarea.value).substring(strPos,txtarea.value.length); txtarea.value=front+text+back; strPos = strPos + text.length; if (br == "ie") { txtarea.focus(); var range = document.selection.createRange(); range.moveStart ('character', -txtarea.value.length); range.moveStart ('character', strPos); range.moveEnd ('character', 0); range.select(); } else if (br == "ff") { txtarea.selectionStart = strPos; txtarea.selectionEnd = strPos; txtarea.focus(); } txtarea.scrollTop = scrollPos; } The flow: I click the button, a form popouts, fill the input text box, hit the query button and the text should appear in the editor DIV. I hope I can make myself clear. Any help would be very much appreaciated Thanks

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  • Call phpexcel from joomla

    - by Oscar Calderon
    i have a problem about phpexcel and joomla. I'm developing some filter form to load excel reports, so i used phpexcel library to do this. Right now i have only a report, it works fine, but after that i upload inside joomla using PHP pages component that allows me to put php files inside joomla and call it. When i put them, i change a little bit the form that calls the php that generates the excel report, i call the php using a link like this: h**p://www.whiblix.com/index.php?option=com_php&Itemid=24 That is, calling it from Joomla, not directly the php. If i wanna call the php directly i could use this path: h**p://www.whiblix.com/components/com_php/files/repImportaciones.php What's the problem? The problem is, when i call the php that generates the excel through joomla, the excel that is downloaded is corrupt and only shows symbols in one cell when i open it. But if i call the php directly the report is generated fine. I could call the php directly, the problem is that if i call it directly i can't use this line of code: defined( '_JEXEC' ) or die( 'Restricted access' ); That is used to deny the direct access to php from call it directly, because it doesn' work because the security. Where's the problem? This is the code of php that generates the report (ommiting the code where generates the rows and cells): <?php //defined( '_JEXEC' ) or die( 'Restricted access' ); /** Error reporting */ error_reporting(E_ALL); date_default_timezone_set('Europe/London'); require_once 'Classes/PHPExcel.php'; // Create new PHPExcel object $objPHPExcel = new PHPExcel(); // Set properties $objPHPExcel->getProperties()->setCreator("Maarten Balliauw") ->setLastModifiedBy("Maarten Balliauw") ->setTitle("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setSubject("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setDescription("Test document for Office 2007 XLSX, generated using PHP classes.") ->setKeywords("office 2007 openxml php") ->setCategory("Test result file"); // Rename sheet $objPHPExcel->getActiveSheet()->setTitle('Reporte de Importaciones'); // Set active sheet index to the first sheet, so Excel opens this as the first sheet $objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0); // Redirect output to a client’s web browser (Excel5) header('Content-Type: application/vnd.ms-excel'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment;filename="repPrueba.xls"'); header('Cache-Control: max-age=0'); $objWriter = PHPExcel_IOFactory::createWriter($objPHPExcel, 'Excel5'); $objWriter->save('php://output'); exit;

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  • Issues loading Jquery (Galleria) script from inside an i-frame (beginner javascript?)

    - by 103188530284789248582
    Hello, first of all - I'm not entirely new to javascript, but am not fluent in it as I am with html and css, and am especially new to jQuery... so please excuse me if this questions seems easy or obvious, but after days of google I still have no solution to the problem... using jQuery 1.4.2.min, jQuery-ui-1.8.1 .... the site in question: http://homecapture.ca/sets/project_index.html The scenario: I have a tabbed menu generated from an unordered list, when a menu item is clicked it reveals an iframe which links to the page containing an image gallery. I am using jQuery UI tabs for the tabbed menu, and the galleries to which I'm linking are jQuery Galleria pages, automatically generated with Jalbum. The problem: The galleria plug-in only works normally from inside of the containing iframe in Chrome, has inconsistent behaviour in IE8 (seems to work in my local copy, but won't load properly online), and is not loaded properly in Firefox. Instead of displaying a thumbnail area and the first large image, the Galleria page shows the first thumbnail only, then when it is clicked the image it links to, but if you right-click and go Back, the iframe content shows up as a properly rendered Galleria page. Jalbum generates more script in the < head of the page in addition to linking to jquery and the galleria plug-in. All of it seems to be in charge of the gallery navigation , and I have relocated it to the < body of the page, in an effort to make it load after the parent page scripts, and together with the gallery content. At this point I am not sure what else I could do to solve the problem, without digging around in all or some of the library and pluging .js files (which I am not knowledgeable enough to do without some pointers). Has anyone dealt with a similar issue? I'm seeing some solutions for manipulating iframe content from a parent page with jQuery on here, is that what I should be researching instead? Thanks in advance for all the help! ps. I tried posting some code, but it seems I do not have enough 'reputation' for things to work right on here either :)

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  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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  • Wordpress Custom Field

    - by kwek-kwek
    I wanted to use the custom field for wordpress to have a different header banner for my site here is my code: <?php get_header(); ?> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <div id="BodyWrap"> <!--MAIN CONT--> <div id="mainCont"> <?php get_sidebar(); ?> <div id="rotateBanner"><?php // check for image $image = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'image', $single = true);?> <img class="mainImg" src="<?php bloginfo(template_url); echo $image; ?>" alt=""/> </div> <div id="mainCopy"> <div id="content"> <h2><?php single_post_title(); ?></h2> <?php the_content('<p class="serif">Read the rest of this page &raquo;</p>'); ?> <?php wp_link_pages(array('before' => '<p><strong>Pages:</strong> ', 'after' => '</p>', 'next_or_number' => 'number')); ?> </div> </div> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> <?php get_footer(); ?> Now the code renders but for some reason it only renders the img path as: <img alt="" src="http://www.testground.idghosting.com/philcom/wp-content/themes/phil"/> here is the demosite in the custom field I put this: image For the value I put this: /images/sampleHead.png

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  • Difference between SQL 2005 and SQL 2008 for inserting multiple rows with XML

    - by Sam Dahan
    I am using the following SQL code for inserting multiple rows of data in a table. The data is passed to the stored procedure using an XML variable : INSERT INTO MyTable SELECT SampleTime = T.Item.value('SampleTime[1]', 'datetime'), Volume1 = T.Item.value('Volume1[1]', 'float'), Volume2 = T.Item.value('Volume2[1]', 'float') FROM @xml.nodes('//Root/MyRecord') T(item) I have a whole bunch of unit tests to verify that I am inserting the right information, the right number of records, etc.. when I call the stored procedure. All fine and dandy - that is, until we began to monkey around with the compatibility level of the database. The code above worked beautifully as long as we kept the compatibility level of the DB at 90 (SQL 2005). When we set the compatibility level at 100 (SQL 2008), the unit tests failed, because the stored procedure using the code above times out. The unit tests are dropping the database, re-creating it from scripts, and running the tests on the brand new DB, so it's not - I think - a question of the 'old compatibility level' sticking around. Using the SQL Management studio, I made up a quick test SQL script. Using the same XML chunk, I alter the DB compat level , truncate the table, then use the code above to insert 650 rows. When the level is 90 (SQL 2005), it runs in milliseconds. When the level is 100 (SQL 2008) it sometimes takes over a minute, sometimes runs in milliseconds. I'd appreciate any insight anyone might have into that. EDIT The script takes over a minute to run with my actual data, which has more rows than I show here, is a real table, and has an index. With the following example code, the difference goes between milliseconds and around 5 seconds. --use [master] --ALTER DATABASE MyDB SET compatibility_level =100 use [MyDB] declare @xml xml set @xml = '<?xml version="1.0"?> <Root xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Record> <SampleTime>2009-01-24T00:00:00</SampleTime> <Volume1>0</Volume1> <Volume2>0</Volume2> </Record> ..... 653 records, sample time spaced out 4 hours ........ </Root>' DECLARE @myTable TABLE( ID int IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [SampleTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Volume1] [float] NULL, [Volume2] [float] NULL) INSERT INTO @myTable select T.Item.value('SampleTime[1]', 'datetime') as SampleTime, Volume1 = T.Item.value('Volume1[1]', 'float'), Volume2 = T.Item.value('Volume2[1]', 'float') FROM @xml.nodes('//Root/Record') T(item) I uncomment the 2 lines at the top, select them and run just that (the ALTER DATABASE statement), then comment the 2 lines, deselect any text and run the whole thing. When I change from 90 to 100, it runs all the time in 5 seconds (I change the level once, but I run the series several times to see if I have consistent results). When I change from 100 to 90, it runs in milliseconds all the time. Just so you can play with it too. I am using SQL Server 2008 R2 standard edition.

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  • Why is the W3C box model considered better?

    - by Mel
    Why do most developers consider the W3C box-model to be better than the box-model used by Internet Explorer? I know it's very frustrating developing pages that look the way you want them on Internet Explorer, but I find the W3C box-model to be counter-intuitive. For example, if margins, padding, and border were factored into the width, I could assign fixed width values for all my columns without having to worry about how many columns I have and what changes I make to my padding and margins. Under W3C box model I have to worry about how many columns I have, and develop something akin to a mathematical formula to calculate my values. Changing them would nightmarish, especially for complex layouts. My novice opinion is that it's more restrictive. Consider this small frame-work I wrote: #content { margin:0 auto 30px auto; padding:0 30px 30px 30px; width:900px; } #content .column { float:left; margin:0 20px 20px 20px; } #content .first { margin-left:0; } #content .last { margin-right:0; } .width_1-4 { width:195px; } .width_1-3 { width:273px; } .width_1-2 { width:430px; } .width_3-4 { width:645px; } .width_1-1 { width:900px; } These values I have assigned here will falter unless there are three columns, and thus the margins at 0(first)+20+20+20+20+0(last). It would be a disaster if I wanted to add padding to my columns too, as my entire setup would have to be re calibrated. Now imagine if column width incorporated all the other elements, all I would need to do is change one associated value, and I have my layout. I'm less criticizing it and more hoping to understand why it's better, or why I'm finding it more difficult. Am I doing this whole thing wrong? I don't know very much about this topic, but it seems counter intuitive to use W3C's box-model. Some advice would be really appreciated. Thanks

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  • one page has 9 urls. I am looking for 301 auto redirect syntax for multiple urls.

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi This is the third time I am asking this question. I am only looking for the syntax of how to solve this problem. I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? Please only reply if you have the coding for a auto 301 redirect! URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)-([a-z0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]).jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.)$ http://www.*.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.index.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.)index.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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  • curl can't verify cert using capath, but can with cacert option

    - by phylae
    I am trying to use curl to connect to a site using HTTPS. But curl is failing to verify the SSL cert. $ curl --verbose --capath ./certs/ --head https://example.com/ * About to connect() to example.com port 443 (#0) * Trying 1.1.1.1... connected * Connected to example.com (1.1.1.1) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: ./certs/ * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Client hello (1): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server hello (2): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, CERT (11): * SSLv3, TLS alert, Server hello (2): * SSL certificate problem, verify that the CA cert is OK. Details: error:14090086:SSL routines:SSL3_GET_SERVER_CERTIFICATE:certificate verify failed * Closing connection #0 curl: (60) SSL certificate problem, verify that the CA cert is OK. Details: error:14090086:SSL routines:SSL3_GET_SERVER_CERTIFICATE:certificate verify failed More details here: http://curl.haxx.se/docs/sslcerts.html curl performs SSL certificate verification by default, using a "bundle" of Certificate Authority (CA) public keys (CA certs). If the default bundle file isn't adequate, you can specify an alternate file using the --cacert option. If this HTTPS server uses a certificate signed by a CA represented in the bundle, the certificate verification probably failed due to a problem with the certificate (it might be expired, or the name might not match the domain name in the URL). If you'd like to turn off curl's verification of the certificate, use the -k (or --insecure) option. I know about the -k option. But I do actually want to verify the cert. The certs directory has been properly hashed with c_rehash . and it contains: A Verisign intermediate cert Two self-signed certs The above site should be verified with the Verisign intermediate cert. When I use the --cacert option instead (and point directly to the Verisign cert) curl is able to verify the SSL cert. $ curl --verbose --cacert ./certs/verisign-intermediate-ca.crt --head https://example.com/ * About to connect() to example.com port 443 (#0) * Trying 1.1.1.1... connected * Connected to example.com (1.1.1.1) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: ./certs/verisign-intermediate-ca.crt CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Client hello (1): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server hello (2): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, CERT (11): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server finished (14): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Client key exchange (16): * SSLv3, TLS change cipher, Client hello (1): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Finished (20): * SSLv3, TLS change cipher, Client hello (1): * SSLv3, TLS handshake, Finished (20): * SSL connection using RC4-SHA * Server certificate: * subject: C=US; ST=State; L=City; O=Company; OU=ou1; CN=example.com * start date: 2011-04-17 00:00:00 GMT * expire date: 2012-04-15 23:59:59 GMT * common name: example.com (matched) * issuer: C=US; O=VeriSign, Inc.; OU=VeriSign Trust Network; OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)10; CN=VeriSign Class 3 Secure Server CA - G3 * SSL certificate verify ok. > HEAD / HTTP/1.1 > User-Agent: curl/7.19.7 (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu) libcurl/7.19.7 OpenSSL/0.9.8k zlib/1.2.3.3 libidn/1.15 > Host: example.com > Accept: */* > < HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found < Cache-Control: must-revalidate,no-cache,no-store Cache-Control: must-revalidate,no-cache,no-store < Content-Type: text/html;charset=ISO-8859-1 Content-Type: text/html;charset=ISO-8859-1 < Content-Length: 1267 Content-Length: 1267 < Server: Jetty(7.2.2.v20101205) Server: Jetty(7.2.2.v20101205) < * Connection #0 to host example.com left intact * Closing connection #0 * SSLv3, TLS alert, Client hello (1): In addition, if I try hitting one of the sites using a self signed cert and the --capath option, it also works. (Let me know if I should post an example of that.) This implies that curl is finding the cert directory, and it is properly hash. Finally, I am able to verify the SSL cert with openssl, using its -CApath option. $ openssl s_client -CApath ./certs/ -connect example.com:443 CONNECTED(00000003) depth=3 /C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority verify return:1 depth=2 /C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=(c) 2006 VeriSign, Inc. - For authorized use only/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Public Primary Certification Authority - G5 verify return:1 depth=1 /C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)10/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Secure Server CA - G3 verify return:1 depth=0 /C=US/ST=State/L=City/O=Company/OU=ou1/CN=example.com verify return:1 --- Certificate chain 0 s:/C=US/ST=State/L=City/O=Company/OU=ou1/CN=example.com i:/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)10/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Secure Server CA - G3 --- Server certificate -----BEGIN CERTIFICATE----- <cert removed> -----END CERTIFICATE----- subject=/C=US/ST=State/L=City/O=Company/OU=ou1/CN=example.com issuer=/C=US/O=VeriSign, Inc./OU=VeriSign Trust Network/OU=Terms of use at https://www.verisign.com/rpa (c)10/CN=VeriSign Class 3 Secure Server CA - G3 --- No client certificate CA names sent --- SSL handshake has read 1563 bytes and written 435 bytes --- New, TLSv1/SSLv3, Cipher is RC4-SHA Server public key is 2048 bit Secure Renegotiation IS NOT supported Compression: NONE Expansion: NONE SSL-Session: Protocol : TLSv1 Cipher : RC4-SHA Session-ID: D65C4C6D52E183BF1E7543DA6D6A74EDD7D6E98EB7BD4D48450885188B127717 Session-ID-ctx: Master-Key: 253D4A3477FDED5FD1353D16C1F65CFCBFD78276B6DA1A078F19A51E9F79F7DAB4C7C98E5B8F308FC89C777519C887E2 Key-Arg : None Start Time: 1303258052 Timeout : 300 (sec) Verify return code: 0 (ok) --- QUIT DONE How can I get curl to verify this cert using the --capath option?

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  • HTTP caching confusion

    - by Keith
    I'm not sure whether this is a server issue, or whether I'm failing to understand how HTTP caching really works. I have an ASP MVC application running on IIS7. There's a lot of static content as part of the site including lots of CSS, Javascript and image files. For these files I want the browser to cache them for at least a day - our .css, .js, .gif and .png files rarely change. My web.config goes like this: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="UseMaxAge" cacheControlMaxAge="1.00:00:00" /> </staticContent> </system.webServer> The problem I'm getting is that the browser (tested Chrome, IE8 and FX) doesn't seem to be caching the files as I'd expect. I've got the default settings (check for newer pages automatically in IE). On first visit the content downloads as expected HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Content-Type: image/gif Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:29:16 GMT Content-Length: 918 <content> I think that the Cache-Control: max-age=86400 should tell the browser not to request the page again for a day. Ok, so now the page is reloaded and the browser requests the image again. This time it gets an empty response with these headers: HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:30:32 GMT So it looks like the browser has sent the ETag back (as a unique id for the resource), and the server's come back with a 304 Not Modified - telling the browser that it can use the previously downloaded file. It seems to me that would be correct for many caching situations, but here I don't want the extra round trip. I don't care if the image gets out of date when the file on the server changes. There are a lot of these files (even with sprite-maps and the like) and many of our clients have very slow networks. Each round trip to ping for that 304 status is taking about a 10th to a 5th of a second. Many also have IE6 which only has 2 HTTP connections at a time. The net result is that our application appears to be very slow for these clients with every page taking an extra couple of seconds to check that the static content hasn't changed. What response header am I missing that would cause the browser to aggressively cache the files? How would I set this in a .Net web.config for IIS7? Am I misunderstanding how HTTP caching works in the first place?

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  • ScriptManager emits ScriptReferences after ClientScriptIncludes. Why?

    - by Chris F
    I have an application that uses a lot of javascript in a lot of different .js files. Each page can have any number and combination of different controls and each control can use a different set of js files. Instead of including all possible js files as <script src="xxx.js"> in the head of my master page, I thought I would reduce the amount of included files by getting each control to call ScriptManager.Scripts.Add(new ScriptReference("xxx.js")) - thus only the scripts that are actually needed by the page will be included. Well that bit works fine. But...the controls also use ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock fairly extensively too. (There are scenarios where the controls are inside update panels). I was disappointed to see that the ScriptManager emits the client script includes before the ScriptReferences. For example - see the test file and output at the end (this results in a JS error because $ is not defined). Am I being dumb or is this to be expected? I would have thought that a sensible thing for the ScriptManger to do would be to emit the ScriptReferences first and then the other stuff. Short of rolling my own ScriptManager like object to manage static JS file references, does anyone have any suggestions as to get the behaviour that I want from ScriptManager?? Thanks in advance. Example File <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, Page.GetType(), "Test", "$(function() {alert('hello');});", true); } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" > <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/jquery/jquery.js" /> </Scripts> </asp:ScriptManager> </form> </body> </html> Output <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > ... boring stuff removed .... <script src="/js/WebResource.axd?d=-nOHbla bla " type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ $(function() {alert('hello');});//]]> </script> ... boring stuff removed .... <script src="/js/ScriptResource.axd?d=qgCbla bla bla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery/jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> ... boring stuff removed .... </form> </body> </html>

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  • Phonegap web view thinks device screen taller than it is - results in offscreen tabbar

    - by Stin
    I have a jQTouch application loaded via server, so all I need to do is display the webpage full screen in PhoneGap for a faux-Native app. Unfortunatley each solution I've tried in PhoneGap has an issue: it thinks the screen size is taller than it is. This resuls in the tabbar that is pinned to the bottom being permantly offscreen and there fore unusable. You should be able to recreate this with my code below and going to the iTabbar online demo. Any thoughts on how to correct this issue? For background, going to the app page in iOS safari works fine, as well as saving the page to the home screen. In both cases the webview stops at the bottom of the screen and the tabbar is therefore viewable. Also, I'm using build.phonegap.com to compile (I'm not compiling locally) I've tried two methods: load the childBrowser plugin and call up the page (with navbar hidden via options) set the following config.xml parameter to prevent phonegap from switching to Safari, and then just load the link (preferable as it's cleaner in my mind. I've pasted my index.html and config.xml below) Details on the config.xml paramater: Open all links in WebView stay-in-webview with values true or false example: <preference name="stay-in-webview" value="true" /> if set to true, all links (even with target set to blank) will open in the app's webview only use this preference if you want pages from your server to take over your entire app default is false (Source: https://build.phonegap.com/docs/config-xml) my index.html: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=utf-8"> <title>MyApp</title> <script src="phonegap.js"></script> </head> <body> <p><a href="http://www.itabbar.com/itabbar/demo.html#home">Launch iTabbar</a></p> </body> </html> my config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <widget xmlns = "http://www.w3.org/ns/widgets" xmlns:gap = "http://phonegap.com/ns/1.0" id = "com.phonegap.myapp" versionCode="10" version = "1.0.0"> <!-- versionCode is optional and Android only --> <name>MyApp</name> <description> My app is... </description> <author href="https://myurl.com" email="[email protected]"> me </author> <preference name="stay-in-webview" value="true" /> </widget>

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  • Using jQuery to call a web service

    - by Matt
    I have created a web service which takes a username and password as parameters and returns a list of children in JSON (the user is a Social Worker). The web service is hosted locally with IIS7. I am attempting to access the web service using javascript/jquery because it will eventually need to run as a mobile app. I'm not really experienced with web services, or javascript for that matter, but the following two links seemed to point me in the right direction: http://williamsportwebdeveloper.com/cgi/wp/?p=494 http://encosia.com/using-jquery-to-consume-aspnet-json-web-services/ This is my html page: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="TestWebService.aspx.cs" Inherits="Sponsor_A_Child.TestWebService" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="stylesPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery-1.7.1.js"> $(document).ready(function () { }); function LoginClientClick() { $("#query_results").empty(); $("#query_results").append('<table id="ResultsTable" class="ChildrenTable"><tr><th>Child_ID</th><th>Child_Name</th><th>Child_Surname</th></tr>'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://localhost/PhoneWebServices/GetChildren.asmx/GetMyChildren", data: '{ "email" : "' + $("#EmailBox").val() + '", "password": "' + $("#PasswordBox").val() + '" }', dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var c = eval(msg.d); alert("" + c); for (var i in c) { $("#ResultsTable tr:last").after("<tr><td>" + c[i][0] + "</td><td>" + c[i][1] + "</td><td>" + c[i][2] + "</td></tr>"); } } }); } </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="contentPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <div id="LoginDiv"> Email: <input id="EmailBox" type="text" /><br /> Password: <input id="PasswordBox" type="password" /><br /> <input id="LoginButton" type="button" value="Submit" onclick="LoginClientClick()" /> </div> <div id="query_results"> </div> </asp:Content> And this is my web service code: [WebMethod (Description="Returns the list of children for whom the social worker is responsible.")] public String GetMyChildren(String email,String password) { DataSet MyChildren=new DataSet(); int ID=SocialWorkerLogin(email, password); if (ID > 0) { MyChildren = FillChildrenTable(ID); } MyChildren.DataSetName = "My Children"; //To prevent 'DataTable name not set' error string[][] JaggedArray = new string[MyChildren.Tables[0].Rows.Count][]; int i = 0; foreach (DataRow rs in MyChildren.Tables[0].Rows) { JaggedArray[i] = new string[] { rs["Child_ID"].ToString(), rs["Child_Name"].ToString(), rs["Child_Surname"].ToString() }; i = i + 1; } // Return JSON data JavaScriptSerializer js = new JavaScriptSerializer(); string strJSON = js.Serialize(JaggedArray); return strJSON; } I followed the examples in the provided links, but when I press submit, only the table headers appear but not the list of children. When I test the web service on it's own though, it does return a JSON string so that part seems to be working. Any help is greatly appreciated :)

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  • Want to set 'src' of script to my IP-Won't load in Safari or Chrome. Relative link asp.netmvc

    - by Ozaki
    I have a script that links to the server I am hosting (IP can change) usually I would just use for links: var url ='http://' + window.location.hostname + 'end of url'; But in this case it isnt appearing to be so easy. I have tried: (1) $('#scriptid').attr('src', url); as well as: (2) var script = document.createElement( 'script' ); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = url; $("#insert").append( script ); Now case (2) works loads the script runs the script. But when at the end of my script it hits the 'write data' it decides to replace the entire page with just the data. Any idea on how I can do this? Note: I am using plain html not ASP. With ASP backend that is just the way it has to be. Ok it now is <script src="myscript.js"></script> C# router.AddAsyncRoute("myscript.js"...... It workes in IE & FF. But I get blank pages in Chrome & Safari. I am using document.write to write a script onto my page. Any ideas why Chrome & Safari don't like this? I am so far assuming that in Crhome & Safari it takes longer to run the script therefore launching the document.write after the DOM has loaded therefore replacing the page with a blank one. edit the script im trying to run is a modification of: d = new dTree('d'); d.add(0,-1,'My example tree'); d.add(1,0,'Node 1','default.html'); d.add(2,0,'Node 2','default.html'); d.add(3,1,'Node 1.1','default.html'); d.add(4,0,'Node 3','default.html'); d.add(5,3,'Node 1.1.1','default.html') document.write(d); Any ideas how I can get around this? I am not to sure how to implement an appenChild in this case as the script is changing constantly with live data. So every refresh it will generally have changed some...

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  • DDNS Not Creating Journal (Dhcpd and Named)

    - by user130094
    * EDIT 1 * After monkeying with additional debug logging I see some log entries of interest. 27-Jul-2012 23:45:26.537 general: error: zone example.lan/IN/internal: journal rollforward failed: no more 27-Jul-2012 23:45:26.537 general: error: zone example.lan/IN/internal: not loaded due to errors. ^^^ If I can remedy the above messages I think I'll be good to go ^^^ * EDIT 2 * Grasping at straws I touched a forward and a reverse zone journal file and restarted named. Boom! Works. Despite documentation stating the files are created automatically and what I have seen before... dunno why but that did the trick. Also re-checked perms on the dir the files live in. As certain as I was, they were correct with named having rw. CentOS 6 (final) dhcpd 4.1.1-P1 named BIND 9.8.2rc1-RedHat-9.8.2-0.10.rc1.el6 Basic DHCP and DNS functionality are in place on 192.168.111.2. Clients are assigned addresses as intended and can resolve local DNS names as well as Internet names. My problem is that named's zone journal files are not created. chroot: /var/named/chroot I tried placing the zone files in various directories (/var/named/data, /var/named, /var/named/dynamic - no matter which dir with named owning and wide open perms I now get nowhere). Along the way I, at one point, got a permission denied when named tried to create the journal. Resolved the issue by: chown --recursive named:named /var/named chmod --recursive 777 /var/named The journal was then created and here's where things fell apart. I attempted to tame permissions to something more sane and broke it. Once changed and having restarted named it threw an error indicating the journal was out of sync (or something to that affect)... didn't matter since this is a new setup so I deleted it and now it is not recreated. Now though I see no errors in /var/log/messages, my chrooted /var/log/named.log, or chrooted /var/log/named.debug. I increased the debug level with 'rndc trace' - no love. Increased trace to 10, still nothing. SELinux is disabled... [root@server temp]# sestatus SELinux status: disabled dhcpd.conf... allow client-updates; ddns-update-style interim; subnet 192.168.111.0 netmask 255.255.255.224 { ... key dhcpudpate { algorithm hmac-md5; secret LDJMdPdEZED+/nN/AGO9ZA==; } zone example.lan. { primary 192.168.111.2; key dhcpudpate; } } named.conf... key dhcpudpate { algorithm hmac-md5; secret "LDJMdPdEZED+/nN/AGO9ZA=="; }; zone "example.lan" { type master; file "/var/named/dynamic/example.lan.db"; allow-transfer { none; }; allow-update { key dhcpudpate; }; notify false; check-names ignore; }; The following shows /var/log/named.log output of named starting up - no errors. 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.349 general: info: zone 111.168.192.in-addr.arpa/IN/internal: loaded serial 2012072601 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.349 general: info: zone example.lan/IN/internal: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.350 general: info: zone example2.lan/IN/internal: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.350 general: info: zone example3.lan/IN/internal: loaded serial 2012072601 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.350 general: info: zone example4.lan/IN/internal: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.351 general: info: zone example5.lan/IN/internal: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.351 general: info: managed-keys-zone ./IN/internal: loaded serial 0 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.351 general: info: zone example.lan/IN/external: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.352 general: info: zone example1.lan/IN/external: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.352 general: info: zone example2.lan/IN/external: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.352 general: info: zone example3.lan/IN/external: loaded serial 2012072501 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.353 general: info: managed-keys-zone ./IN/external: loaded serial 0 27-Jul-2012 21:33:39.353 general: notice: running 27-Jul-2012 21:34:03.825 general: info: received control channel command 'trace 10' 27-Jul-2012 21:34:03.825 general: info: debug level is now 10 ...and /var/log/messages for a named start... Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: ---------------------------------------------------- Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: BIND 9 is maintained by Internet Systems Consortium, Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: Inc. (ISC), a non-profit 501(c)(3) public-benefit Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: corporation. Support and training for BIND 9 are Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: available at https://www.isc.org/support Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: ---------------------------------------------------- Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: adjusted limit on open files from 4096 to 1048576 Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: found 2 CPUs, using 2 worker threads Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: using up to 4096 sockets Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: loading configuration from '/etc/named.conf' Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: using default UDP/IPv4 port range: [1024, 65535] Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: using default UDP/IPv6 port range: [1024, 65535] Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: listening on IPv4 interface eth0, 192.168.111.2#53 Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: generating session key for dynamic DNS Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: sizing zone task pool based on 12 zones Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: set up managed keys zone for view internal, file 'dynamic/3bed2cb3a3acf7b6a8ef408420cc682d5520e26976d354254f528c965612054f.mkeys' Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: set up managed keys zone for view external, file 'dynamic/3c4623849a49a53911c4a3e48d8cead8a1858960bccdea7a1b978d73ec2f06d7.mkeys' Jul 27 23:02:04 server named[9124]: command channel listening on 127.0.0.1#953 What can I do to troubleshoot this further? It almost seems as though dhcpd is not triggering the update. Maybe I should troubleshoot here and, if so, how? Many thanks.

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  • change attributes of SVG graph without refresh

    - by Mike Hudak
    Hello, I have a simple SVG graph generated by GraphViz: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/Graphics/SVG/1.1/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <!-- Generated by graphviz version 2.26.3 (20100126.1600) --> <!-- Title: G Pages: 1 --> <svg width="138pt" height="168pt" viewBox="0.00 0.00 138.00 168.00" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink"> <g id="graph1" class="graph" transform="scale(1 1) rotate(0) translate(4 164)"> <title>G</title> <polygon fill="white" stroke="white" points="-4,5 -4,-164 135,-164 135,5 -4,5"/> <!-- Node1 --> <g id="node1" class="node"><title>Node1</title> <a xlink:href="http://localhost/viz/applet.php" xlink:title="Internet"> <image xlink:href="images/cloud.png" width="130px" height="77px" preserveAspectRatio="xMinYMin meet" x="0" y="-159.5"/> <text text-anchor="middle" x="65" y="-116.4" font-family="Times New Roman,serif" font-size="14.00">&#39;.$Internet.&#39;</text> </a> </g> <!-- Node2 --> <g id="node2" class="node"><title>Node2</title> <a xlink:href="http://localhost/viz/applet.php"> <image xlink:href="images/file server.png" width="44px" height="45px" preserveAspectRatio="xMinYMin meet" x="43" y="-45.5"/> </a> </g> <!-- Node1&#45;&gt;Node2 --> <g id="edge2" class="edge"><title>Node1&#45;&gt;Node2</title> <a xlink:title="Bandwidth: 1544kbps&#10;Using link: 12%&#10;VOIP calls: 4&#10;Packet rate: 10000&#10;Packet loss: 2"> <path fill="none" stroke="black" d="M65,-82.2678C65,-73.5404 65,-64.358 65,-55.8964"/> <polygon fill="black" stroke="black" points="68.5001,-55.6524 65,-45.6524 61.5001,-55.6525 68.5001,-55.6524"/> </a> </g> </g> </svg> I want to change some atributes: for example " VOIP calls: 4 " -changing "4" to value from Database(LDAP) without refreshing whole SVG graph <a xlink:title="Bandwidth: 1544kbps&#10;Using link: 12%&#10;VOIP calls: 4&#10;Packet rate: 10000&#10;Packet loss: 2"> Thank you for your answers

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  • ASP.MVC 1.0 complex ViewModel not populating on Action

    - by Graham
    Hi, I'm 3 days into learning MVC for a new project and i've managed to stumble my way over the multitude of issues I've come across - mainly about something as simple as moving data to a view and back into the controller in a type-safe (and manageable) manner. This is the latest. I've seen this reported before but nothing advised has seemed to work. I have a complex view model: public class IndexViewModel : ApplicationViewModel { public SearchFragment Search { get; private set; } public IndexViewModel() { this.Search = new SearchFragment(); } } public class SearchFragment { public string ItemId { get; set; } public string Identifier { get; set; } } This maps to (the main Index page): %@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<IndexViewModel>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% Html.BeginForm("Search", AvailableControllers.Search, FormMethod.Post); %> <div id="search"> <% Html.RenderPartial("SearchControl", Model.Search); %> </div> <% Html.EndForm(); %> </asp:Content> and a UserControl: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<SearchFragment>" %> <p> <label for="itemId"> <%= Html.Resource("ItemId") %></label> <%= Html.TextBox("itemId", Model.ItemId)%> </p> <p> <label for="title"> <%= Html.Resource("Title") %></label> <%= Html.TextBox("identifier", Model.Identifier)%> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="<%= Html.Resource("Search") %>" name="search" /> </p> This is returned to the following method: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Search(IndexViewModel viewModel) { .... } My problem is that when the view model is rehydrated from the View into the ViewModel, the SearchFragment elements are null. I suspect this is because the default model binder doesn't realise the HTML ItemId and Identifier elements rendered inline in the View map to the SearchFragment class. When I have two extra properties (ItemId and Identifier) in the IndexViewModel, the values are bound correctly. Unfortunately, as far as I can tell, I must use the SearchFragment as I need this to strongly type the Search UserControl... as the control can be used anywhere it can operate under any parent view. I really don't want to make it use "magic strings". There's too much of that going on already IMO. I've tried prefixing the HTML with "Search." in the hope that the model binder would recognise "Search.ItemId" and match to the IndexViewModel "Search" property and the ItemId within it, but this doesn't work. I fear I'm going to have to write my own ModelBinder to do this, but surely this must be something you can do out-of-the-box?? Failing that is there any other suggestions (or link to someone who has already done this?) Here's hoping....

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  • UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

    - by Ben Robinson
    I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

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  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

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  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • Coolstack MySQL Crash Unable to Restart

    - by rayblasdel
    Environment: Solaris 10 This mysql server has been up and running for 6 months now. Today all of a sudden it crashed. When typing 'mysql' as user it gives the error MYSQL" Error 2002 (HY000): Can't Connect to Local MySQL server though socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' The server try to open mysql, it stays open for 9-10 seconds and restarts the process. Below are the application logs. Application-database-mysql_mysql-csk.log [ May 30 22:37:52 Enabled. ] [ May 30 22:37:58 Rereading configuration. ] [ May 30 22:37:59 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:37:59 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] I am hoping someone might have run into this before and might know how to fix it. The following is an excerpt from the MySQL Error log 100530 22:44:03 mysqld_safe mysqld from pid file /dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid ended 100530 22:44:04 mysqld_safe Starting mysqld daemon with databases from /dbpool1/data InnoDB: Log scan progressed past the checkpoint lsn 32 727170612 100530 22:44:13 InnoDB: Database was not shut down normally! InnoDB: Starting crash recovery. InnoDB: Reading tablespace information from the .ibd files... InnoDB: Restoring possible half-written data pages from the doublewrite InnoDB: buffer... InnoDB: Doing recovery: scanned up to log sequence number 32 727200901 100530 22:44:14 InnoDB: Starting an apply batch of log records to the database... InnoDB: Progress in percents: 100530 22:44:14 - mysqld got signal 11 ; This could be because you hit a bug. It is also possible that this binary or one of the libraries it was linked against is corrupt, improperly built, or misconfigured. This error can also be caused by malfunctioning hardware. We will try our best to scrape up some info that will hopefully help diagnose the problem, but since we have already crashed, something is definitely wrong and this may fail. key_buffer_size=209715200 read_buffer_size=1048576 max_used_connections=0 max_threads=10000 threads_connected=0 It is possible that mysqld could use up to key_buffer_size + (read_buffer_size + sort_buffer_size)*max_threads = 31024253 K bytes of memory Hope that's ok; if not, decrease some variables in the equation. enter code here

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  • Question about Architecture for Viewing Images in ASP.NET MVC App

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to from the browser via javascript (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • Edit problem on asp.net mvc

    - by ognjenb
    <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<IEnumerable<MvcKVteam.Models.transporter>>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Transporters </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Transporters</h2> <table class="data-table" id=""> <tr> <th> Id </th> <th> ContactId </th> <th> Name </th> <th> Notes </th> <th> PreferredCurrency </th> <th> PriceList </th> <th> SeviceTypeAvailible </th> <th> Contact </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Id) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.ContactId) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Notes) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.PreferredCurrency) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.PriceList) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.SeviceTypeAvailible) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.ActionLink("View contact info", "Edit", new { id = item.ContactId }) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table> <p> <%= Html.ActionLink("Create New", "Create") %> </p> This action for Edit: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var FilesQuery1 = from i in FilesEntities.contact where i.Id == id select i; return View(FilesQuery1); } When click on "View contact info" link I have this error: The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'System.Data.Objects.ObjectQuery`1[MvcKVteam.Models.contact]', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'MvcKVteam.Models.contact'.

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